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Worksheets

Quarter 3 Science Exam

Total questions: 200

Worksheet time: 17hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What Moon Phase is shown?

a)

New Moon

b)

Full Moon

c)

First Quarter

d)
Third Quarter
2.

What Moon Phase is shown?

a)

New Moon

b)

Full Moon

c)

First Quarter

d)
Third Quarter
3.

What Moon Phase is shown?

a)

New Moon

b)

Full Moon

c)

First Quarter

d)
Third Quarter
4.

What Moon Phase is shown?

a)

New Moon

b)

Full Moon

c)

First Quarter

d)
Third Quarter
5.

What Moon Phase is shown?

a)

Waxing Crescent

b)

Waxing Gibbous

c)

Waning Crescent

d)

Waning Gibbous

6.

What Moon Phase is shown?

a)

Waxing Crescent

b)

Waxing Gibbous

c)

Waning Crescent

d)

Waning Gibbous

7.

What Moon Phase is shown?

a)

Waxing Crescent

b)

Waxing Gibbous

c)

Waning Crescent

d)

Waning Gibbous

8.

What Moon Phase is shown?

a)

Waxing Crescent

b)

Waxing Gibbous

c)

Waning Crescent

d)

Waning Gibbous

9.

What moon phase comes AFTER a New Moon?

a)

Waxing Crescent

b)

First Quarter

c)

Waxing Gibbous

d)

Full Moon

10.

What moon phase comes AFTER a Waxing Crescent?

a)

New Moon

b)

First Quarter

c)

Waxing Gibbous

d)

Full Moon

11.

What moon phase comes AFTER a First Quarter?

a)

Waxing Crescent

b)

New Moon

c)

Waxing Gibbous

d)

Full Moon

12.

What moon phase comes AFTER a Waxing Gibbous?

a)

Waxing Crescent

b)

New Moon

c)

Waxing Gibbous

d)

Full Moon

13.

What moon phase comes AFTER a Full Moon?

a)

Waning Gibbous

b)

Third Quarter

c)

Waning Crescent

d)

New Moon

14.

What moon phase comes AFTER a Waning Gibbous?

a)

Full Moon

b)

Third Quarter

c)

Waning Crescent

d)

New Moon

15.

What moon phase comes AFTER a Third Quarter?

a)

Full Moon

b)

Waning Gibbous

c)

Waning Crescent

d)

New Moon

16.

What moon phase comes AFTER a Waning Crescent?

a)

Full Moon

b)

Waning Gibbous

c)

Waning Crescent

d)

New Moon

17.

_______are daily changes in ocean water.

a)

Waters

b)

Tides

c)

Colors

d)

Earths

18.

Tides are caused by the difference in the gravitational force of the ________ and ________ across the ________.

a)

earth, sun, moon

b)

sun, mars, jupiter

c)

sun, moon, earth

d)

tide, water, sun

19.

The tidal force exerted by the ______ is stronger that the tidal force exerted by the _______.

a)

earth, ocean

b)

sun, moon

c)

moon, stars

d)

moon, sun

20.

The moon is mainly responsible for the tides on Earth because it is _________ _________.

a)

much closer

b)

far away

c)

behind the sun

21.

The bulges that occur in the Earth's oceans are called ______ _______.

a)

low waters

b)

low tides

c)

high tides

d)

big dips

22.

____ ____ occur in the spaces between the high tides.

a)

High tides

b)

Medium tides

c)

Low tides

d)

Super tides

23.

As the _____ revolves around the Earth and Earth rotates, the tidal bulge moves around the Earth.

a)

sun

b)

ocean

c)

Earth

d)

moon

24.

The tidal bulge follows the movement of the _____.

a)

moon

b)

sun

c)

Earth

d)

ocean

25.

Because the moon is so much closer than the sun, the moon's gravitational force is much stronger than that of the ___.

a)

sun

b)

earth

c)

moon

d)

sea

26.

What is a high tide?

a)

Sea pulled TOWARD the moon where Earth is CLOSEST to the moon

b)

Sea pulled AWAY from the moon where Earth is FARTHEST to the moon

c)

Sea pulled AWAY from the moon where Earth is CLOSEST to the moon

27.

What causes spring tides to occur?

a)

The alignment of the Earth, Moon, and Sun in a straight line

b)

The Moon being at its farthest point from Earth

c)

The Earth being closest to the Sun

d)

The Moon being at its closest point to Earth

28.

During which phase of the Moon do spring tides occur?

a)

First Quarter

b)

Full Moon

c)

Last Quarter

d)

New Moon

29.

Explain why spring tides are higher than neap tides.

a)

Because the gravitational forces of the Moon and Sun combine

b)

Because the Earth rotates faster

c)

Because the Moon is closer to the Earth

d)

Because the Sun is closer to the Earth

30.

What causes neap tides to occur?

a)

The alignment of the Earth, Moon, and Sun in a straight line

b)

The Moon being at its farthest point from Earth

c)

The Earth, Moon, and Sun forming a right angle

d)

The Moon being at its closest point to Earth

31.

During which phase of the Moon do neap tides occur?

a)

First Quarter

b)

Full Moon

c)

Last Quarter

d)

New Moon

32.

How do the positions of the Earth, Moon, and Sun affect the occurrence of neap tides?

a)

They form a right angle

b)

They are aligned in a straight line

c)

The Moon is at its closest point to Earth

d)

The Sun is at its closest point to Earth

33.

What is the main difference between spring tides and neap tides?

a)

Spring tides occur when the Moon is full, and neap tides occur when the Moon is new

b)

Spring tides are higher and lower than normal tides, while neap tides are less extreme

c)

Spring tides occur every day, while neap tides occur once a month

d)

Spring tides are caused by the Sun, and neap tides are caused by the Moon

34.

Which of the following statements is true about the gravitational pull during spring tides?

a)

The gravitational pull of the Sun is stronger than that of the Moon

b)

The gravitational pull of the Moon is stronger than that of the Sun

c)

The gravitational pulls of the Sun and Moon combine to create higher tides

d)

The gravitational pulls of the Sun and Moon cancel each other out

35.

Which of the following statements is true about the gravitational pull during neap tides?

a)

The gravitational pull of the Sun is stronger than that of the Moon

b)

The gravitational pull of the Moon is stronger than that of the Sun

c)

The gravitational pulls of the Sun and Moon combine to create higher tides

d)

The gravitational pulls of the Sun and Moon partially cancel each other out

36.

What is the effect of spring tides on coastal areas?

a)

They cause lower high tides and higher low tides

b)

They cause higher high tides and lower low tides

c)

They have no effect on tides

d)

They cause tides to occur more frequently

37.

What is a spring tide?

a)

A tide with the least difference between high and low tide

b)

A tide that occurs only in the spring season

c)

A tide with the greatest difference between high and low tide

d)

A regular occurrence unrelated to the Moon's position

38.

What is the primary difference between weather and climate?

a)

Weather is the average atmospheric condition over decades, while climate changes daily.

b)

Weather is short-term atmospheric conditions, while climate is the long-term average of weather patterns.

c)

Weather refers only to temperature, while climate includes all atmospheric elements.

d)

Weather and climate are the same and can be used interchangeably.

39.

Which of the following is NOT one of the three main influences on weather and climate?

a)

The Sun

b)

Atmosphere

c)

Earth’s Core

d)

Hydrosphere

40.

What type of heat transfer is responsible for setting the atmosphere and ocean into motion to create weather?

a)

Conduction

b)

Convection

c)

Radiation

d)

Reflection

41.

What causes wind?

a)

The Earth’s rotation

b)

Differences in atmospheric air pressure

c)

The movement of ocean currents

d)

The position of the Sun at noon

42.

Which factor is primarily responsible for determining an area's climate?

a)

The type of vegetation present

b)

The amount of direct sunlight a location gets

c)

The number of thunderstorms per year

d)

The presence of mountains

43.

How do ocean currents influence weather?

a)

They absorb energy from the Sun and distribute heat around the Earth.

b)

They prevent precipitation from forming.

c)

They block sunlight from reaching coastal areas.

d)

They slow down atmospheric convection.

44.

What is the primary role of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere?

a)

They absorb and trap radiation from the Earth.

b)

They reflect all sunlight away from Earth.

c)

They stop the formation of precipitation.

d)

They cool down the Earth’s atmosphere.

45.

What is the term used to describe the reflectivity of a surface?

a)

Humidity

b)

Albedo

c)

Altitude

d)

Specific Heat

46.

Why do coastal areas tend to have a more constant climate?

a)

They receive less sunlight throughout the year.

b)

Water has a high specific heat, which regulates temperature.

c)

Ocean currents block extreme temperature changes.

d)

Wind speeds are lower near water bodies.

47.

What is air pressure?

a)

The amount of humidity in the atmosphere

b)

The movement of air caused by the Sun’s radiation

c)

The weight of air molecules pressed down by gravity

d)

The speed of wind in a specific location

48.

Which of the following conditions is associated with low air pressure?

a)

Cold temperatures

b)

Hot temperatures

c)

Increased snowfall

d)

High humidity

49.

How are clouds formed?

a)

When cold air sinks and warms up near the surface

b)

When warm air with water vapor rises and condenses on air particles

c)

When wind speed increases and pushes water droplets together

d)

When air pressure increases significantly

50.

Which of the following statements about precipitation is TRUE?

a)

It only occurs in tropical climates.

b)

It is driven by energy from the Sun.

c)

It does not occur in dry climates.

d)

It is independent of the hydrosphere.

51.

How does latitude influence climate?

a)

It determines the type of clouds that form.

b)

It influences the amount of precipitation a region receives.

c)

It determines the angle of incoming sunlight, affecting temperature.

d)

It has no impact on climate.

52.

Why do equatorial regions generally have warmer climates year-round?

a)

They are closer to the Sun.

b)

They receive sunlight at a higher angle, leading to more direct heating.

c)

They have more ocean currents than other regions.

d)

They experience more cloud cover, which traps heat.

53.

How does altitude affect climate?

a)

Higher altitudes experience warmer temperatures.

b)

Lower altitudes are colder due to increased air pressure.

c)

Higher altitudes generally have colder temperatures.

d)

Altitude has no impact on temperature.

54.

What happens when there is more snow and ice on Earth’s surface?

a)

The Earth absorbs more heat.

b)

The Earth reflects more sunlight, leading to colder temperatures.

c)

The greenhouse effect increases.

d)

Precipitation levels rise significantly.

55.

What is specific heat?

a)

The amount of heat needed to change water from liquid to vapor

b)

The measure of how much sunlight an object reflects

c)

The amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of a substance by 1°C

d)

The amount of energy stored in ocean currents

56.

Why do coastal areas tend to be more humid?

a)

They have lower air pressure.

b)

More water evaporates into the air from nearby bodies of water.

c)

They have fewer clouds to block moisture.

d)

Wind speeds are higher, bringing moisture inland.

57.

Weather is ______ term.

a)

short

b)

long

58.
A front is
a)
where warm air is cooling at earth's surface
b)
a line where hot and cold air are separating
c)
a line where two different air masses meet
d)
where cold air is rising and forming rain clouds
59.
Which type of front is pictured?
a)
Cold front
b)
Warm front
c)
Occluded front
d)
Stationary front
60.
What symbol is this?
a)
warm front
b)
cold front
c)
stationary front
d)
occluded front
61.
Which type of front is associated with purple humps and triangles facing the same direction?
a)
Cold
b)
Warm
c)
Stationary
d)
Occluded
62.
How are fronts formed?
a)
When two air masses meet
b)
when two winds meet
c)
when two clouds meet
63.

What type of front is shown?

a)

Warm Front

b)

Cold Front

c)

Occluded Front

d)

Stationary Front

64.
When a cold front or a warm front stays in place for several days without invading another front, it is called a ______. 
a)
stationary front 
b)
 cold front 
c)
occluded front
d)
warm front 
65.
This is the symbol for which type of front?
a)
cold front
b)
warm front
c)
stationary front
d)
occluded front
66.

This is the symbol for a _____________ weather front.

a)

Cold

b)

Warm

c)

Stationary

d)

Occluded

67.

A _____________ weather front occurs when a cold air mass moves forward, pushing the warm air mass up.

a)

Cold

b)

Warm

c)

Stationary

d)

Occluded

68.

A _____________ weather front occurs two cold air masses meet and push/force the warm air in the middle upwards.

a)

Cold

b)

Warm

c)

Stationary

d)

Occluded

69.

Why does warm air rise above cold air?

a)

Warm air is less dense

b)

Warm air is more dense

c)

Cold air is stronger than warm air

70.

Which type of weather front can produce foggy weather that can last for several days?

a)

Cold

b)

Warm

c)

Stationary

d)

Occluded

71.

Which type of weather front can produce precipitation (rain or snow)?

a)

Cold

b)

Warm

c)

Stationary

d)

Occluded

e)

All of the above

72.

What type of weather will you see along a cold front?

a)

Thunderstorms

b)

Sunny skies

c)

Gentle rain

d)

No weather

73.

What type of front is over Texas?

a)

warm front

b)

cold front

c)

stationary front

d)

occluded front

74.

What type of front is over Ohio?

a)

Warm front

b)

Cold front

c)

Occluded front

d)

Stationary Front

75.
What fuels a hurricane's strength?
a)
Wind
b)
Sunlight
c)
Warm Water
d)
Cold Water
76.
Where do most hurricanes develop?
a)
Middle of the United States
b)
Near the Equator
c)
Near Canada and Alaska
d)
Antarctica
77.

The name of the system that causes the winds to spin in a hurricane

a)

The Coriolis Effect

b)

The Corleone Affect

c)

The Circular Wind Phenomenon

d)

The East-West Effect

78.

Who is the scientist who proposed Continental Drift Theory?

a)
Albert Einstein
b)
Alfred Wegener
c)
Isaac Newton
d)
John Dalton
79.

Alfred Wegener named his single supercontinent ____________, which means "all Earth" in ancient Greek.

a)

Pandora

b)

Gandowandaland

c)

Pangea

d)

Percia

80.
What was Wegener's hypothesis called?
a)

The Theory of Pangea 

b)

The Theory of Moving Continents

c)

The Theory of Continental Drift

d)

The Theory of Techtonic Plates

81.

What type of fossils were noticed by Wegener to be found on two different continents?

a)
Leaves and flowers
b)
Ice and mountains
c)
Plants and animals
d)
Dinosaurs and reptiles
82.

True or False: The continental plates move so quickly that we can feel them.

a)

True

b)

False

83.

Most geologists think that the movement of Earth's tectonic plates is caused by

a)

the rotation of the Earth.

b)

the Earth's magnetic field.

c)

subduction.

d)

convection currents.

84.

When plates collide we get ________.

a)

crumbles

b)

volcanos

c)

trenches

d)

mountain ranges

85.
Associated with transform boundaries.
a)
Volcanoes
b)
mountains
c)
trenches
d)
earthquakes
86.
A location where two tectonic plates collide is known as a _________ boundary.
a)
Convergent
b)
Divergent
c)
Transform
d)
Spreading
87.

Which layer of Earth flows slowly and causes the crust to move?

a)

Crust

b)

Mantle

c)

Inner Core

d)

Outer core

88.

What is the correct order (starting from the surface) of Earth’s layers?

a)

crust, outer core, inner core, mantle

b)

mantle, outer core, inner core, crust

c)

crust, mantle, outer core, inner core

d)

outer core, inner core, crust, mantle

89.
What is an earthquake?
a)
When the earth causes an upward thrust in the epicenter.
b)
When the earth moves up and down along the ocean floor.
c)

When tectonic plates slide against each other causing the earth to move. 

d)
None of the above
90.

Subduction means.....

a)

one plate goes under another plate

b)

two plates slide past each other

c)

two plate collide and form folded mountains

91.

Sea-floor spreading explains how.....

a)

new crust is created at a divergent boundary

b)

volcanoes are formed on continents

c)

deep sea trenches are formed

92.

An opening on the Earth's crust through which hot molten rock flows out from deep inside the Earth.

a)

Volcano

b)

Fault line

c)

Fold

d)

Crater

93.
Mountains form from....
a)
Plates sliding past one another
b)
collision of plates
c)
plates moving away from each other
d)
none of these
94.
Earth's plates are....
a)
Constantly moving and changing the face of the Earth
b)
Never moved
c)
Move seldom and very fast
d)
move when they feel like it
95.
What was the name given to all the continents when they were joined as one super continent?
a)
Supreme Continent
b)
Eurasia
c)
Plate tectonics
d)
Pangea
96.

Describe the most likely relationship between these mountains and nearby tectonic plates.

a)

The mountains are probably formed by earthquakes

b)

The mountains are probably formed by the movement of glaciers

c)

The mountains are probably located near the edge of 2 tectonic plates.

d)

The mountains are probably formed by running water.

97.

Is there a pattern to the locations of earthquakes and volcanoes around the globe?

a)

No, earthquakes and volcanoes are random.

b)

Yes, earthquakes and volcanoes usually occur near the boundaries of tectonic plates.

c)

yes, earthquakes and volcanoes usually occur in the middle of tectonic plates.

d)

No, earthquakes and volcanoes usually occur under water.

98.

Most earthquakes tend to occur at which location?

a)

The central regions of very large continents

b)

Groups of islands farthest from any continents

c)

The boundaries between continents and oceans

d)

The steep slopes of the very oldest mountains

99.

A map is provided that presents information on a certain region of the Earth. Based on the information on the map, at which location are mountains most likely to form?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

100.

The Ring of Fire is an area where a large number of earthquakes and volcanic eruptions occur. What claim can be made about the Ring of Fire from this information?

a)

It is the only place on Earth where earthquakes can happen.

b)

The edges of the tectonic plates are moving in this area.

c)

It represents the areas where tectonic plates are the thickest.

d)

It has been getting larger since Earth first formed.

101.

Tectonic plates:

a)

can move towards each other

b)

can move away from each other

c)

can slide past each other

d)

All of the above

102.

What happens at a divergent boundary?

a)

Crust is destroyed

b)

Crust is created

c)

Crust is neither created nor destroyed

103.
The circular arrows inside the Earth's Mantle represent what type of motion, that drives ALL plate movement?  
a)
Convergent Boundary
b)
Ocean Currents
c)
Convection Currents
d)
Transform Boundary
104.
Look at the arrows in the Lithosphere, according to the plate movement, what type of boundary is this?  
a)
Convergent
b)
Subduction Zone
c)
Convection Current
d)
Transform
105.
A Subduction Zone occurs, when one more dense plate subductions under a less dense plate, what type of boundary could this be considered?  
a)
Convection Current
b)
Convergent Boundary
c)
Transform Boundary
d)
Divergent Boundary
106.
This layer of Earth is the thickest part
a)
crust
b)
outer core
c)
mantle
d)
inner core
107.
What is Pangaea?
a)
The name of a German Scientist
b)
the name of the supercontinent that existed millions of years ago
c)
another name for continental drift
d)
the name of an ancient fossil
108.
Name the boundary
a)
convergent boundary
b)
divergent boundary
c)
transform boundary
d)
sergent boundary
109.
A subduction zone is formed...
a)
when one tectonic plate sinks below another
b)
at every type of convergent plate boundary
c)
at every type of divergent plate boundary
d)
at transform boundaries
110.
Whenever a subduction zone is formed a ______ is formed.
a)
Mountain
b)
Island Arc
c)
Rift
d)
Volcano
111.
Plate movement is caused by ______________.
a)
the rotation of the Earth
b)
ocean tides
c)
convection currents in the mantle
d)
the moon's gravity
112.
Who is the person credited with developing the theory of continental drift?
a)
Harry Hess
b)
Galileo
c)
Alfred Wegener
d)
Newton
113.
What is created when two continental plates converge together?  
a)
Mountains
b)
Tsunami
c)
Earthquake
d)
Volcano
114.
What is created when one continental and one oceanic plate converge?  
a)
Volcano
b)
Mountain
c)
Tsunami
d)
Earthquake
115.
What was Pangea?
a)
An ancient Mountain Range that divided Africa
b)
A large valley where civilization began.
c)
A supercontinent where all Earth's land masses were joined.
d)
A large meteor that hit Earth and destroyed all of the dinosaurs
116.
Mr. Jones, an archeologist, travels to study land animal fossils from millions of years ago.  He has found fossils of the smae land animals in eastern South America and western Africa.  Which conclusion best supports Mr. Jones' findings? 
a)
The 2 continents were once joined together as part of a larger continent.  
b)
Land animals found from fossils collected from the west coast of Africa are similar to the ones found on the east coast of South America
c)
Early Europeans became Zombies as a Result of the Rock coming to save the world in the movie San Andreas
d)
The animals developed on the two continents at the exact same time
117.
Andrew found warm-weather plant fossils while on an expedition to Antarctica.  Which conclusion best supports his find?  
a)
The seeds of plants were carried by flying dinosaurs that escaped Jurrassic Park
b)
The island was once closer to the equator, but has since drifted to its current location
c)
Ancient Mariners transported the plants to the island.  
d)
The plants drifted on the ocean currents to the island.  
118.
What is the result of the collision of (crashing) of continental tectonic plates?
a)
Beach erosion
b)
Convection Currents
c)
Mountain Building
d)
Faults
119.
What forms when an oceanic plate and a continental plate converge?
a)
Trench
b)
Ocean
c)
Continent
d)
Mountains
120.

Water sinking into the Earth's surface

a)

runoff

b)

discharge

c)

infiltration

d)

capillary action

121.

When water moves over the Earth's surface (streams/puddles)

a)

runoff

b)

permeability

c)

infiltration

d)

porosity

122.
Where is most fresh water found on Earth?
a)
oceans
b)
atmosphere
c)
glaciers, polar ice caps
d)
lakes and rivers
123.
What percent of water on earth is FRESH WATER?
a)
97.5%
b)
2.5%
124.
An underground layer of rock or soil through which water easily moves.
a)
runoff
b)
water reclamation
c)
aqueduct
d)
aqueifer
125.
A hole dug or drilled into the ground to provide a supply of water.
a)
watershed
b)
desalination
c)
groundwater
d)
well
126.

The land area that supplies water to a river system

a)
Watershed
b)
Riverbank
c)
Floodplain
d)
Delta
127.

Most incidents of pollution are deliberately caused by______.

a)

humans

b)

machines

c)

animals

128.

_____________________ is the contamination of air, land, and water.

a)

Conservation

b)

Ecology

c)

Pollution

129.

Sludge run off from factories and industries is an example of _______ pollution.

a)

air

b)

land

c)

water

130.

Exhaust from vehicles is one of the largest forms of air pollution. What can communities do to reduce air pollution from vehicles?

a)

Fine people that own cars.

b)

Encourage people to walk, ride a bike, or carpool.

c)

Charge more money to buy a car.

131.

Coral reefs are endangered by...

a)

climate change

b)

pollution

c)

overfishing

d)

all of the above

132.

What causes coral bleaching?

a)

oil spills

b)

overfishing

c)

warmer water temperatures

d)

red tide

133.

What causes coral bleaching?

a)

oil spills

b)

overfishing

c)

warmer water temperatures

d)

red tide

134.

An algal bloom is the rapid growth of a population of

a)

fungi

b)

protozoans

c)

algae

135.

In general, algal blooms occur when

a)

toxins accumulate in shellfish.

b)

nutrients decrease in the water.

c)

nutrients increase in the water.

136.

Eutrophication is

a)

too few nutrients in a body of water.

b)

too many nutrients in a body of water.

c)

high acid levels in a body of water.

d)

high alkalinity levels in a body of water.

137.

An area in the ocean that becomes contaminated with fertilizer, over grows algae, becomes oxygen depleted, and causes many marine life to die-

a)

deadzone

b)

end zone

c)

gulf

d)

runoff

138.

The water that drains or flows off, such as rain that flows off from the land into streams and eventually the ocean...

a)

runoff

b)

overfishing

c)

invasive species

d)

marine algae

139.

How do the oceans contribute to the amount of Oxygen in the Earth's atmosphere?

a)

Fish in the ocean produce oxygen.

b)

Phytoplankton in the ocean produce oxygen through the process of respiration.

c)

Phytoplankton in the ocean produce oxygen through the process of phtosynthesis.

d)

There is no oxygen production in the ocean.

140.

Which of the following is NOT a source of pollution in the ocean?

a)

Fertilizers used on land.

b)

Sand drifting along the bottom of the ocean floor.

c)

Oils found on city streets.

d)

Emissions from gas-burning vehicles.

141.

Review the graph showing marine fishing rates.If the fishing rate in Asia continues to grow, what will most likely happen as a result?

a)

The fish population will continue to rise.

b)

A wide range in ocean temperatures will be seen worldwide.

c)

The U.S. human population will decline.

d)

The overfishing will cause an imbalance in marine ecosystems.

142.

What is one way humans are trying to positively impact the ocean?

a)

Fishing

b)

Drilling for oil and natural gas

c)

Creating artificial reefs

d)

Transporting goods in ocean vessels

143.

An artificial reef is a man made structure that may mimic some of the characteristics of a natural reef.

a)

True

b)

False

144.

Which process is responsible for carrying fertilizers that have been applied to crops into bodies of water, such as a river?

a)

Runoff

b)

Evaporation

c)

Ocean Currents

d)

Tectonic Plate Movement

145.

What do we depend on the ocean for?

a)

Food

b)

Oxygen

c)

Transportation

d)

All of the above

146.

What are some positive things that we can do to help ocean ecosystems?

a)

Over-fishig

b)

creating artificial reefs

c)

Recycle

d)

Both B and C

147.

The process of taking fish out of the ocean before they have a chance to reproduce is called?

a)

Invasive species

b)

Over-fishing

c)

Artificial reefs

d)

Recycling

148.

A species that enters an area from somewhere else and causes disruptions to the native ecosystem?

a)

Over-fishing

b)

Artificial reefs

c)

Invasive species

d)

Runoff

149.

Humans depend on the ocean for:

a)

Transportation

b)

Oxygen

c)

Food

d)

Weather

e)

All of the Above

150.

Coral reefs are endangered by

a)

climate change

b)

overfishing

c)

pollution

d)

all of the above

151.

Some areas of an ocean are known as dead zones. These zones form when excess organic material decomposes. This increased decomposition uses up the oxygen from the water.

Which human activity is most affected by the increasing number of dead zones in the ocean?

a)

Offshore oil drilling, because water in dead zones is toxic

b)

Commercial fishing, because fish cannot survive without oxygen

c)

Commercial shipping, because dead zones change the course of ocean currents

d)

Sand mining, because oxygen is not available to form the sands on ocean beaches

152.

A costal area that once supported a thriving fishing industry is overfished. The number of species found living in the marine ecosystem decreases.

a)

Building artificial reefs and limiting fishing activity

b)

Introducing non-native species to fill unoccupied habitats and banning fishing

c)

Building artificial reefs and increasing fishing activity

d)

Eliminating non-native species and encouraging fishing for large predatory fish

153.

Which of these human activities is most likely to cause the excessive growth of phytoplankton in the world's oceans?

a)

The use of chemical fertilizers that are carried by runoff into rivers

b)

The logging of old-growth forests, which results in erosion

c)

The spraying of chemical herbicides that reduce carbon dioxide in the air

d)

The mining of fossil fuels, which requires digging underground tunnels

154.

Biotic factors are...

a)

living things

b)

non-living things

c)

undead things

155.

Abiotic factors are...

a)

living things

b)

non-living things

c)

undead things

156.

Some examples of biotic factors would be

a)

trees

b)

insects

c)

bacteria

d)

all of the above

157.

Which of these is NOT an abiotic factor?

a)

water

b)

temperature

c)

grass

d)

soil

158.

What might living organisms compete for?

a)

shelter

b)

food

c)

water

d)

all of the above

159.

Which of the following is an abiotic factor that plants depend on?

a)

seed-eating birds

b)

insect pollinators

c)

ants building their nests in trees

d)

nutrients in the soil

160.

Which of the following is a biotic factor?

a)

humans

b)

bridges

c)

roads

d)

water

161.

Which of the following is an abiotic factor that could be used for shelter?

a)

a tree

b)

a bush

c)

a bridge

d)

a field of corn

162.

What makes up an environment?

a)

only biotic factors

b)

only abiotic factors

c)

both biotic and abiotic factors

d)

neither biotic nor abiotic factors

163.

Which choice is an example of a relationship between an abiotic factor and a biotic factor?

a)

sun shining on a tree

b)

bacteria infecting an organism

c)

a lion eating a zebra

d)

a bird eating seeds

164.
living or once living components of a community; for example organisms, such as animals and plants
a)
Abiotic factors
b)
Biotic factor
c)
Abiotic
d)
Biotic
165.

In the food chain pictured, what type of organism is the bird? (a)  

Choose from the below words
producer
primary consumer
secondary consumer
tertiary consumer
166.

Which of the following has the largest population in the Indian River Lagoon system?

a)

Crab

b)

Egret

c)

Flounder

d)

Phytoplankton

167.

What is the primary source of energy for the ecosystem pictured above?

a)

Grass and Green plants

b)

Hawks and Deer

c)

Tadpoles and Fish

d)

Sun

168.

How much energy is available to be passed on to the next level in a food web? (a)  

Choose from the below words
100%
10%
50%
75%
169.

The diagram below shows a desert food web.


How will a large decrease in the number of rats impact the food web shown above?

a)

There will be an increase in the number of ants, tarantulas, and snakes.

b)

There will be an increase in the number of snakes, coyotes, and hawks.

c)

There will be a decrease in the number of snakes, coyotes, and hawks.

d)

There will be a decrease in the number of cacti and sagebrush plants.

170.

Analyze the food web above. Which animal receives the most energy originally produced by the plants in the food web?

a)

rabbit

b)

frog

c)

owl

d)

snake

171.

Which of the following statements best describes the flow of energy in the energy pyramid above?

a)

As you go higher in the pyramid, the amount of energy increases.

b)

There is less energy in a producer level than a consumer level.

c)

There is no energy above the level of producers in the system.

d)

Each group receives only a small amount of the energy from the level below it.

172.

Only (a)   of energy is given to the next trophic level.   (b)   is eliminated as waste heat.

Choose from the below words
10%, 90%
90%, 10%
25%, 75%
75%, 25%
173.

fly → frog → snake → alligator

The arrows indicate the direction of the flow of

a)

energy.

b)

water

c)

oxygen

d)

carbon dioxide

174.
In the energy pyramid below, which organism has the least amount of energy available?
a)
Producers
b)
Herbivores
c)
Carnivores
d)
Top Predator
175.
a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

176.

Which takes longer, primary or secondary succession?

a)

Primary Succession

b)

Secondary Succession

177.

What are the species called that appear first during primary succession?

a)

Pioneer Species

b)

New Species

c)

Alpha Species

d)

Mature Species

178.

True or false: humans can be the cause of secondary succession

a)

True

b)

False

179.

After a volcano destroys the land, ________________ succession takes place.

a)

Secondary

b)

Primary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Important

180.

A pattern of change after existing ecosystem is destroyed, such as clearing for farming.

a)

Evolution

b)

Secondary Succession

c)

Primary Succession

181.

Primary succession takes ____________ time than secondary succession.

a)

More

b)

Less

c)

Same

182.

A new island is formed after a volcano erupts.

What is the order that things would grow?

a)

Tree, grass, moss

b)

Lichen, Grass, Shrub, Tree

c)

Lichen, Shrub, Moss, Tree

d)

Shrub, grass, moss, tree

183.

What type of organism would typically grow on bare rock?

a)

Moss and lichen

b)

Grass

c)

Oak trees

d)

Shrubs

184.

Primary succession occurs in an area that has:

a)

soil

b)

no soil

c)

some soil

d)

none of these

185.

___ are the first organisms to colonize an area and begin the process of ecological succession.

a)

foundational organisms

b)

introductory organisms

c)

primary organisms

d)

pioneer species

186.

What is the main difference between primary and secondary ecological succession?

a)

Primary begins WITHOUT soil; Secondary begins WITH soil

b)

Primary is the first state and secondary is the second stage

c)

Primary builds plant community; secondary builds animal community

d)

Primary begins WITH soil; Secondary begins WITHOUT soil

187.

What is an example of a disturbance that could bring about secondary succession?

a)

Humans cut down many trees in a small region

b)

A volcanic eruption covers a village in lava.

188.
Which is the correct order in primary succession?
a)
Rocks, Lichens & Mosses, Bushes & Shrubs, Trees
b)
Lichens & Mosses, Rocks, Trees, Bushes & Shrubs 
c)
Trees, Bushes and Shrubs, Lichens & Mosses, Lichens & Mosses
d)
Rocks, Grass, Trees, Bushes & Shrubs
189.

During a forest fire most vegetation (plants) burn. Which ecological succession will take place after a forest fire?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

190.
What is the order of succession shown in this figure?
a)
A, B, C, D
b)
B, A, D, C
c)
C, D, A, B
d)
D, A, B, C
191.

When lichens die what happens to them?

a)

They are blown away by the wind

b)

They float down the river

c)

They decompose adding small amounts of organic matter to the rock to make soil

d)

They made flowers and animals

192.
 Which biome is more likely to survive a change in the environment?
a)
High (rich) biodiversity
b)
Low (poor) biodiversity
193.
What does biodiversity mean?
a)
Only one species in an area.
b)
The different amount of species in an area
c)
All abiotic life
d)
Nitrogen fixation
194.

An ecosystem with a large number of individuals can have a low biodiversity.

a)

True

b)

False

195.

Why is biodiversity in an ecosystem so important?

a)

Because it can help humans where to determine good places to develop farm land.

b)

Because places that have a healthy biodiversity are unaffected by major disturbances.

c)

Because having a high biodiversity allows for fewer opportunities of competition for similar resources.

d)

Because having a high biodiversity allows ecosystems to withstand disturbances (major changes).

196.

When there is higher biodiversity...

a)

more organisms are likely to die because they can't adapt to environmental changes.

b)

there is more diversity and higher sustainability of life.

c)

there is less diversity.

d)

there is more diversity and lower sustainability of life

197.

A small marine area has phytoplankton as its only producer. Should the marine biologist be concerned about this ecosystem?

a)

No the fish do not need the phytoplankton. Since there are so many fish, there is high biodiversity.

b)

Yes, this system has high biodiversity; however the fish can adapt and get food from another source.

c)

Yes, this ecosystem has low biodiversity. Without a producer the herbivores will die out leaving no food.

d)

Yes, the fish will overate to get all of the phytoplankton that is left, then they will die.

198.

Which do you think has a higher species diversity biodiversity, a food chain or a food web?

a)

Food Chain

b)

Food Web

199.

Which of the following terms describes an ecosystems ability to survive or rebound from a major change?

a)

Disturbance

b)

Adaptations

c)

Resiliency

d)

Biodiversity

200.

Which of the following terms describes any major changes that may occur to an ecosystem?

a)

Disturbance

b)

Adaptations

c)

Resiliency

d)

Biodiversity