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Physical Science Q4 Summative Test

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When does the Earth cast a round shadow on the surface of the Moon?

a)

During solar eclipse

b)

During lunar eclipse

c)

During winter solstice

d)

During summer solstice

2.

Which of these pieces of evidences does not support the Greek's idea of a spherical Earth?

a)

The North Star (Polaris) cannot be seen in the South Pole.

b)

The sail disappears last when a ship sails away over the ocean.

c)

The curvature of the Earth's surface causes the light rays to bend.

d)

The Earth's shadow cast on the surface of the Moon is round during a lunar eclipse.

3.

Where is Polaris located in the night sky when you are standing at the equator?

a)

It's closer to the horizon.

b)

It's 30 degrees above the ground.

c)

It's in the middle of the sky or overhead.

d)

It stays in its position wherever you observe it in the night sky.

4.

How did ancient people make use of their observations in the sky?

a)

They used it to plan for war and conquer new lands.

b)

They used it to entertain themselves during the night.

c)

They used it to predict their future and make stories of heroes.

d)

They used it for telling time, navigation, agriculture, and religious practices.

5.

Which astronomical phenomena was used as the basis of creating ancient calendars?

a)

Phases of the Moon

b)

Occurrence of comets

c)

Appearance of eclipses

d)

Changing positions of the constellations

6.

Which astronomical phenomena signifies incoming catastrophes for ancient people?

a)

Motion of planets

b)

Appearance of comets

c)

Occurrence of eclipses

d)

Phases of the Moon

7.

Which among the following statements is CORRECT about the law of ellipses?

a)

Planets move in a circular orbit with the sun at the center.

b)

Planets move in an elliptical orbit with the sun as one of the foci.

c)

The period and the average distance are related by two-thirds power.

d)

The line joining the sun and the planet sweeps equal areas in equal times as the planet revolves around the sun.

8.

Which law of planetary motion states that planets sweep equal areas of their orbit over equal time intervals?

a)

Law of ellipses

b)

Law of equal areas

c)

Law of periods

d)

Law of gravity

9.

That the square of the orbital period of a planet is proportional to the cube of the mean distance from the sun is the statement of which law of planetary motion?

a)

Law of ellipses

b)

Law of equal areas

c)

Law of periods

d)

Law of gravity

10.

Which law states that an object at rest stays at rest and an object in motion stays in motion with the same speed and direction unless acted upon by an unbalanced force?

a)

Law of Inertia

b)

Law of Interaction

c)

Law of Acceleration

d)

Law of Gravitation

11.

According to Galileo, what would happen to the height of the ball as it rolls down the inclined plane if the external force is removed?

a)

Original height is equal to the initial height.

b)

Original height is lesser than the initial height.

c)

Original height is greater than the initial height.

d)

Original and final height cannot be determined.

12.

What is the subtle difference between Newton's first law of motion and Galileo's assertion that force is not necessary to sustain horizontal motion?

a)

There should be no unbalanced forces acting on an object in horizontal motion.

b)

The net external force acting on an object in horizontal motions must be equal to zero.

c)

Should there be friction acting on an object in horizontal motion, another force is needed to balance it out.

d)

All of the above

13.

Which of the following explains how light is refracted according to the wave model?

a)

when light hits a surface, it bounces off at the same speed and angle.

b)

Light particles are attracted to water particles thus its speed become faster in water.

c)

When light wave travels at two different speeds, it will bend into the second medium.

d)

Light particles are divided when hitting a wall, where some are reflected while the others are refracted.

14.

What will happen when light passes from one medium to another?

a)

Light accelerates

b)

Light bounces off

c)

Light changes direction

d)

Light scatters around

15.

Which of the following models of light supports Einstein's photoelectric effect?

a)

Wave model

b)

Energy model

c)

Particle model

d)

Dual nature model

16.

According to the particle model of light, what happens to light when it passes from air to water?

a)

Water molecules attracts light so light travels faster.

b)

Water molecules hinder light so light travels slower.

c)

Water molecules attracts light so light travels slower.

d)

Water molecules acts as barriers thus bouncing it off.

17.

According to Huygens, how is light propagated?

a)

Light is like a particle that travels very fast.

b)

Light is like a particle that has wave-like properties.

c)

Light is like a ball thrown upward which follows a curve path.

d)

Light is like a tiny wave that spread out in the forward direction.

18.

Which of the following EM radiation carries most energy?

a)

Gamma ray

b)

Infrared

c)

Microwave

d)

Radio wave

19.

What is the relationship between the wavelength of light and the energy it carries?

a)

As the wavelength of light increases, the energy it carries increases.

b)

As the wavelength of light decreases, the energy it carries increases.

c)

As the wavelength of light decreases, the energy it carries decreases.

d)

As the wavelength of light increases, the energy it carries remains the same.

20.

Which of the following will most likely occur to the electrons on the surface of a metal if the incident light has a photon energy less than the work function?

a)

The electrons will stay on the metal.

b)

The electrons will eject from the metal surface.

c)

The electrons will lose the kinetic energy.

d)

The electrons will obtain sufficient energy to eject over time.

21.

Why is red light used in darkrooms instead of white light?

a)

Because red light enhances the color of the photographs.

b)

Because red light is the only color that the films react with.

c)

Because red light has inadequate energy to expose the films.

d)

Because red light has very high energy needed for developing films.

22.

Why do you get sunburn after taking a swim at the beach on a sunny day?

a)

Because the heat from the sun damages the skin.

b)

Because the ultraviolet rays from the sun damage the skin.

c)

Because the light from the sun is too bright that it damages the skin.

d)

Because the salt from the sea reacts with sunlight and damages the skin.

23.

Which of the following phenomena can diffraction of light be observed?

a)

air trapped between two pieces of clear plastic produces rainbow colored patterns

b)

sun radiates light to the clouds and creates silver lining

c)

colors and patterns in the soap film bubbles

d)

oil spill in water produces thin oil films

24.

Which of the following must occur in order to produce a wave that has the same wavelength but twice the amplitude of the two waves that meet?

a)

when two identical parts of two waves meet such as a crest of one wave meets the crest of another wave of the same wavelength

b)

when two opposite parts of two waves meet, for example, a crest of one wave meets the trough of another wave

c)

when a superposing of waves from different sources is observed

25.

How does diffraction differ from interference of light?

a)

Diffraction is the bending of light when it encounters an obstacle or an opening, while interference is the result of the superposing of waves from different sources.

b)

Interference is the bending of light when it encounters an obstacle or an opening, while diffraction is the result of the superposing of waves from different sources.

c)

Diffraction is the absorbing and scattering of light in all directions, while interference is the meeting of waves from different sources.

26.

Which does NOT correctly describe dispersion and scattering of light?

a)

Dispersion occurs when a beam of white light passes through a prism, and splits white light into different components, while scattering is the process in which light gets deflected by the tiny particles in the medium through which light passes.

b)

Dispersion is the splitting up of white light into its seven color components when a refraction or bending of light occurs, while scattering is the ability of particles to absorb light and scatter it in all directions.

c)

Scattering is the splitting up of white light into its seven color components when a refraction or bending of light occurs, while dispersion is the ability of particles to absorb light and scatter it in all directions.

27.

On a rainy day, small oily films on water show brilliant colors. Which property of light explains this observation?

a)

Interference

b)

Polarization

c)

Refraction

d)

Scattering

28.

When you see a "wet spot" mirage on the road in front of you, what are you most likely seeing?

a)

Sky

b)

Hot air

c)

Water

d)

Fragment of your imagination

29.

Which is scattered by very small particles present in the atmosphere?

a)

All wavelengths of light

b)

Medium wavelength of light

c)

Smaller wavelength of light

d)

Larger wavelength of light

30.

Which explains why the sky is blue?

a)

Blue light is not easily scattered by the atmosphere

b)

Blue light is not easily absorbed by the atmosphere

c)

Air molecules scatter blue light more readily than other colors

d)

Blue light is reflected off the world's oceans into the atmosphere

31.

Which explains why sunsets are red?

a)

Air molecules scatter red light more readily than others

b)

Red light is of shorter wavelength than other colors of light

c)

Red light survives the absorption of the particles in the atmosphere

d)

Red light is scattered the least and is transmitted the most in the atmosphere

32.

What do you call the colored spots of light that developed due to the refraction of light through ice crystals?

a)

Halo

b)

Sundog

c)

Sunspot

d)

Rainbow

33.

What cosmic body can distort space-time the most?

a)

Sun

b)

Moon

c)

Earth

d)

Jupiter

34.

What force is explained by general relativity?

a)

Weak nuclear force

b)

Strong nuclear force

c)

Electromagnetic force

d)

Gravitational force

35.

What is the minimum velocity needed for a spacecraft to leave the Earth?

a)

less than Earth's escape velocity

b)

greater than Earth's escape velocity

c)

equivalent to Earth's escape velocity

d)

equivalent to the speed of light

36.

How does special relativity differ from general relativity?

a)

Special relativity applies only to moving frames while general relativity applies only to stationary frames.

b)

Special relativity applies only to stationary frames while general relativity applies only to accelerating frames.

c)

Special relativity applies only to stationary or moving frames while general relativity applies only to accelerating frames.

d)

Special relativity applies only to accelerating frames while general relativity applies only to stationary or moving frames.

37.

Why do GPS clocks need to be corrected using the General Theory of Relativity?

a)

because they are far away from Earth

b)

because they are stationary

c)

because they are orbiting the Earth

d)

because they are affected by the Earth's warping of space-time

38.

At the age of 20, Donna joined a space exploration at the speed of .8c and completed it in 20 years. Identify her age upon his return to Earth.

a)

32

b)

45

c)

51

d)

56

39.

Determine the perceived length of a 5m ship travelling at .637c.

a)

1.25m

b)

2.95m

c)

3.55m

d)

4.35m

40.

Determine the energy equivalent of an object with a mass of 1230 kg.

a)

1.11x1020J

b)

1.36x1018J

c)

2.25x1025J

d)

2.45x1037J