wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

BIO-211/BIO-202 Exam 3 Review

Total questions: 39

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 45-year old male with severe allergies to soy was dining at a new five-star restaurant in Tempe. Unfortunately, the chef made a mistake and put soy sauce in the food. The 45-year old male developed severe angioedema and difficulty breathing. The emergency responders administered epinephrine, but it was not effective. The emergency room physician decided that the best course of treatment would be to perform a tracheostomy, where a tube is placed below the second cartilage in the trachea. What is the name of this cartilage?

a)

Thyroid cartilage

b)

Cricoid cartilage

c)

Epiglottis

d)

Pharynx

2.

SELECT MULTIPLE: which of the following plays a role in the respiratory defense system?

a)

Mucociliary escalator

b)

Mucus containing lysozymes

c)

Red blood cells

d)

Defensins (antimicrobial protein)

3.

A 26-year-old female with asthma is experiencing bronchoconstriction during an attack induced from a run. She feels short of breath and it sounds like her lungs are wheezing. She carries albuterol, a medication that targets specific receptors on the bronchioles to induce bronchodilation. Which type of receptor is primarily responsible for this effect?

a)

Alpha-1 (α1)

b)

Beta-2 (β2)

c)

Muscarinic cholinergic (M3)

d)

Beta-1 (β1)

4.

TRUE OR FALSE: gas exchange occurs in the conducting zone

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

5.

What is the function of type II pneumocytes?

a)

Produce surfactant to decrease surface tension

b)

Transport CO2 out of capillaries

c)

Produce surfactant to increase gas exchange

d)

Transport O2 into capillaries

6.

How does surfactant decrease the surface tension of water?

a)

By increasing hydrogen bonding between water molecules in the alveoli

b)

By disrupting the hydrogen bonds between water molecules, preventing alveolar collapse

c)

By thickening the alveolar walls to reduce water penetration

d)

By actively transporting water out of the alveoli to maintain dryness

7.

TRUE OR FALSE: the diaphragm is relaxed during inhalation.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

8.

What is the primary effect of sympathetic nervous system activation on the bronchioles?

a)

Bronchoconstriction

b)

Bronchodilation

c)

Increased mucus production

d)

Decreased mucus production

9.

A 75-year-old male with a history of chronic anemia and cardiovascular disease visits the Mayo Clinic complaining of fatigue and shortness of breath during mild activity, such as going to the GCU men's basketball games. Blood tests reveal a lower-than-normal hemoglobin concentration and reduced oxygen saturation in systemic tissues. The doctor notes that the patient has a problem with internal respiration. Based on your understanding of internal respiration, which of the following best explains why this patient is experiencing these symptoms?

a)

Decreased hemoglobin levels reduce oxygen transport to tissues, impairing cellular respiration

b)

Reduced surfactant production is preventing efficient oxygen diffusion into the bloodstream

c)

The patient’s trachea is obstructed, limiting airflow to the alveoli

d)

Excess carbon dioxide in the blood is increasing oxygen binding to hemoglobin, reducing oxygen delivery to tissues

10.

Which of the following muscles are involved with QUIET exhalation?

a)

diaphragm

b)

internal intercostals

c)

sternocleidomastoid

d)

none of the above (passive elastic recoil)

11.

A 55-year old female presented to the emergency room following a traumatic bike accident where she fell over the handlebars resulting in four fractured ribs. The rough edge of the ribs punctured the pleura of her lungs. The hole in the pleura resulted in the intrapleural pressure being greater than the intrapulmonary pressure. What lung pathology would you expect and why?

a)

Pneumothorax, because the intrapleural pressure should always be lower than the intrapulmonary pressure.

b)

Pneumonia, because the bacteria from the dirt caused a change in the gas exchange.

c)

Pneumothorax, because the intrapulmonary pressure should always be lower than the intrapleural pressure.

d)

Pneumonia, because the fluid buildup from the bacteria caused a change in the pressure.

12.

TRUE OR FALSE: the intrapleural pressure creates a negative pressure, which pulls the lungs outward, preventing collapse.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

13.

SELECT MULTIPLE: During inspiration, what changes do you expect?

a)

Increased intrapleural pressure

b)

Decreased intrapleural pressure

c)

Increased intrapulmonary pressure

d)

Decreased intrapulmonary pressure

14.

A 21-year-old GCU athlete is practicing deep breathing exercises. As he inhales, his diaphragm contracts and moves downward, increasing the volume of his thoracic cavity. This results in a decrease in intrapulmonary pressure, allowing air to flow into his lungs. Which principle best explains this relationship between lung volume and pressure?

a)

Charles' Law

b)

Dalton's Law

c)

Henry's Law

d)

Boyle's Law

15.

Which muscle is primarily responsible for inhalation?

a)

Diaphragm

b)

Sternocleidomastoid

c)

Internal intercostals

d)

External intercostals

16.

A 77-year old patient is undergoing a pulmonary function test (PFT). The respiratory therapist determines that the patient's respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute and the tidal volume is 500 mL. What is the patient's pulmonary ventilation?

a)

2,000 mL/minute

b)

5,000 mL/minute

c)

10,000 mL/minute

d)

15,000 mL/minute

17.

Which of the following correct describes vital capacity?

a)

Amount of air inhaled and exhaled in one cycle during quiet breathing

b)

Amount of air that can be inhaled and then exhaled with maximum effort

c)

Amount of air in excess of tidal volume that can be exhaled with maximum effort

d)

Maximum amount of air the lungs can contain

18.

Which letter corresponds with expiratory reserve volume?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

19.

SELECT MULTIPLE: describe the movement of gases during external respiration.

a)

CO2 diffuses out of the blood

b)

O2 diffuses into the blood

c)

CO2 diffuses into the blood

d)

O2 diffuses out of the blood

20.

A 52-year-old runner is competing in a marathon. As his muscles work harder, his blood pH decreases due to increased CO₂ production. This causes hemoglobin to release more oxygen to the tissues. What change occurs in the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve to facilitate this increased oxygen delivery and what is the name of this change?

a)

Left shift, the Haldane effect

b)

Right shift, the Haldane effect

c)

Left shift, the Bohr effect

d)

Right shift, the Bohr effect

21.

An 11-year old patient in the medical surgical unit starts hyperventilating. As a nurse on the unit, you think back to your BIO-202 days and remember that this causes a hypocapnic state. What change do you expect to see in the patient's pH and how would the oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curve shift?

a)

The patient's blood pH would increase, resulting in a left-shift

b)

The patient's blood pH would decrease, resulting in a left-shift

c)

The patient's blood pH would decrease, resulting in a right-shift

d)

The patient's blood pH would increase, resulting in a right-shift

22.

What is the Haldane effect?

a)

The release of oxygen from hemoglobin in low oxygen environments

b)

The shift in the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve due to pH changes

c)

The effect of oxygen binding to hemoglobin, which promotes the release of CO₂

d)

The effect of increased CO₂ on oxygen binding to hemoglobin

23.

Which respiratory center in the brain is responsible for quiet breathing?

a)

Ventral respiratory group (VRG)

b)

Dorsal respiratory group (DRG)

c)

Potine respiratory group (PRG)

d)

Medulla respiratory group (MRG)

24.

A 60-year-old patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing difficulty breathing. The physician notes that the patient’s blood oxygen levels are low, which activates receptors in the body to send signals to the brain to increase the breathing rate. Which type of receptors are responsible for sensing these changes and providing feedback to modify the patient's breathing?

a)

Thermoreceptors

b)

Baroreceptors

c)

Chemoreceptors

d)

Photoreceptors

25.

A 45-year-old patient is experiencing indigestion after eating a large meal. As a recently graduated GCU nurse, you explain that when food enters the stomach, the cells in the gastric pits release various enzymes and acids to help break down the food. What term describes the process by which these enzymes and acids are released into the digestive tract?

a)

Ingestion

b)

Secretion

c)

Excretion

d)

Absorption

26.

SELECT MULTIPLE: Which enzymes are NOT released in saliva?

a)

Amylase

b)

Lipase

c)

Trypsin

d)

Pepsin

27.

TRUE OR FALSE: segmentation is the wave of contraction in circular muscles in the esophagus that force a bolus forward.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

28.

A 31-year-old patient presents with symptoms of fatigue, weakness, and pale skin. After conducting blood tests, the patient is diagnosed with pernicious anemia, a condition where the body cannot absorb vitamin B12 due to a lack of intrinsic factor. What is the best explanation for the patient to understand the physiology of their issue?

a)

"Your stomach has specialized-cells which are called parietal cells. Parietal cells usually function to produce HCl and intrinsic factor. In your body, these cells aren't producing intrinsic factor, leading to your anemia symptoms."

b)

"Your stomach has specialized-cells which are called D-cells. D-cells usually function to produce HCl and intrinsic factor. In your body, these cells aren't producing intrinsic factor, leading to your anemia symptoms."

c)

"Your stomach has specialized-cells which are called chief cells. Chief cells usually function to produce HCl and intrinsic factor. In your body, these cells aren't producing intrinsic factor, leading to your anemia symptoms."

d)

"Your stomach has specialized-cells which are called G-cells. G-cells usually function to produce HCl and intrinsic factor. In your body, these cells aren't producing intrinsic factor, leading to your anemia symptoms."

29.

Gastrin is a hormone that functions to help in the digestive process by stimulating acid production and increasing gastric motility. Which of the following specialized cells in the stomach are responsible for secreting gastrin?

a)

Parietal cells

b)

Enterochromaffin-like (ECL) cells

c)

D-cells

d)

G-cells

30.

What converts pepsinogen into its active form and what is the active enzyme called?

a)

HCl (acidic environment) and pepsin

b)

HCO3- (bicarbonate) and pepsin

c)

HCl (acidic environment) and trypsin

d)

Pepsinogen is the active form

31.

SELECT MULTIPLE: Which of the following are brush border enzymes?

a)

Sucrase

b)

Maltase

c)

Enteropeptidase

d)

Lactase

32.

A patient is experiencing digestive issues after eating a large meal, with symptoms including nausea and abdominal discomfort. The doctor suspects that there may be an issue with the secretion of certain digestive hormones. Which hormone, released by the small intestine, plays a key role in stimulating the release of bile and pancreatic enzymes in response to food intake?

a)

Insulin

b)

Gastrin

c)

Cholecystokinin (CCK)

d)

Secretin

33.

Which nervous system innervates the digestive tract to initiate smooth muscle contractions?

a)

Somatic nervous system

b)

Sympathetic nervous system

c)

Enteric nervous system

d)

Central nervous system

34.

A 40-year-old visits her doctor complaining of abdominal pain, especially after eating fatty meals like GCU campus Chick-fil-A nuggies. She also reports nausea and occasional bloating. After a series of tests, including an ultrasound, she is diagnosed with gallstones. Her doctor explains that these stones are blocking the normal flow of bile, leading to her digestive discomfort. What is the primary function of bile in digestion, and how might its blockage contribute to these symptoms?

a)

Bile breaks down carbohydrates, and its blockage results in difficulty digesting sugars.

b)

Bile aids in the digestion and absorption of fats, and its blockage impairs fat digestion, causing pain and bloating.

c)

Bile helps in the absorption of vitamins, and its blockage causes difficulty absorbing nutrients.

d)

Bile neutralizes stomach acid, and its blockage leads to acid reflux.

35.

TRUE or FALSE: enteropeptidase converts trypsin into trypsinogen, the active enzyme.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

36.

Which of the following cells in the pancreas are primarily responsible for secreting digestive enzymes that help break down food in the small intestine?

a)

Alpha cells

b)

Beta cells

c)

Acinar cells

d)

Delta cells

37.

A 32-year-old experiences frequent heartburn and indigestion after eating large meals. His doctor conducts some tests and finds that his stomach acid levels are unusually high. Upon further investigation, the doctor explains that the hormone secretin, is not being secreted adequately. As a result, the stomach continues to produce excess acid, leading to his digestive discomfort. What is the primary role of secretin in the digestive system?

a)

Stimulating the release of digestive enzymes from the pancreas

b)

Stimulating bile production in the liver

c)

Promoting the absorption of nutrients in the small intestine

d)

Increases the secretion of buffers from the liver and pancreas

38.

SELECT MULTIPLE: Which three vitamins are produced in the large intestine?

a)

Vitamin K

b)

Vitamin D

c)

Biotin (B7)

d)

Pantothenic acid (B5)

39.

A 24-year old is hospitalized due to dehydration after experiencing prolonged diarrhea from a bacterial infection. Her doctor explains that the digestive system is efficient at reabsorbing water to maintain proper hydration. However, her intestines were not reabsorbing water effectively due to the rapid transit time of food through the digestive tract. The doctor further explains that, under normal circumstances, 90% of the water from digested food is reabsorbed in a specific part of the digestive system. Where in the digestive system is 90% of water reabsorbed?

a)

Duodenum

b)

Large intestine

c)

Pancreas

d)

Ileum