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CKD MBD

Total questions: 25

Worksheet time: 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 55-year-old male with CKD G4 (eGFR 25 mL/min/1.73 m²) has a history of two fragility fractures in the past year. His serum phosphate is elevated, and PTH is progressively rising.
Question: Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in managing his bone disease?

a)

Perform a bone biopsy to assess renal osteodystrophy.

b)

B. Initiate bisphosphonate therapy without further testing.

c)

Perform dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA) to assess fracture risk.

d)

Start calcitriol therapy to lower PTH levels.

2.

A 60-year-old female with CKD G5D (on hemodialysis) has a serum phosphate level of 6.5 mg/dL. She is currently on calcium-based phosphate binders.

Question: What is the most appropriate next step in managing her hyperphosphatemia?

a)

Increase the dose of calcium-based phosphate binders.

b)

Switch to a non-calcium-based phosphate binder.

c)

Initiate calcitriol therapy to lower PTH levels.

d)

Perform a bone biopsy to assess bone turnover.

3.

A 45-year-old male with CKD G4 (eGFR 22 mL/min/1.73 m²) has a PTH level of 250 pg/mL (upper limit of normal for the assay is 65 pg/mL). His serum calcium and phosphate levels are within normal limits.

Question: What is the most appropriate management for his elevated PTH?

a)

Start calcitriol therapy immediately.

b)

Monitor PTH trends and evaluate for modifiable factors like vitamin D deficiency.

c)

Initiate cinacalcet therapy to lower PTH.

d)

Perform a parathyroidectomy.

4.

A 50-year-old female with CKD G5D (on hemodialysis) has persistent hypercalcemia (serum calcium 10.8 mg/dL) and elevated PTH levels.

Question: What is the most appropriate dialysate calcium concentration for her?

a)

1.00 mmol/L (2.0mEq/L).

b)

1.25 mmol/L (2.5 mEq/L).

c)

1.75 mmol/L (3.5 mEq/L).

d)

2.00 mmol/L (4.0 mEq/L).

5.

A 65-year-old male with CKD G5D (on hemodialysis) has low bone mineral density (BMD) and a history of fragility fractures. His PTH levels are persistently low.

Question: What is the most appropriate next step in managing his bone disease?

a)

Initiate bisphosphonate therapy without a bone biopsy.

b)

Perform a bone biopsy to assess bone turnover.

c)

Start calcitriol therapy to increase PTH levels.

d)

Increase dietary phosphate intake.

6.

A 70-year-old male with CKD G4 (eGFR 28 mL/min/1.73 m²) has a serum phosphate level of 5.2 mg/dL. He consumes a diet high in processed foods.

Question: What is the most appropriate dietary recommendation for him?

a)

Increase intake of animal-based proteins.

b)

Limit dietary phosphate intake and focus on fresh, homemade foods.

c)

Start calcium-based phosphate binders.

d)

Increase intake of plant-based proteins.

7.

A 58-year-old female with CKD G5D (on hemodialysis) has a serum calcium 8.0 mg/dL while on cinacalcet therapy.

Question: What is the most appropriate management for her hypocalcemia?

a)

Increase dialysate calcium concentration to 1.75 mmol/L.

b)

Administer intravenous calcium gluconate.

c)

Monitor if asymptomatic.

d)

Discontinue cinacalcet therapy.

8.

A 52-year-old male with CKD G4 (eGFR 24 mL/min/1.73 m²) has a PTH level of 300 pg/mL. He has not been on Vitamin D Therapy.

Question: What is the most appropriate management for his vitamin D deficiency?

a)

Start calcitriol therapy.

b)

Correct vitamin D deficiency as for the general population.

c)

Initiate paricalcitol therapy.

d)

Perform a bone biopsy to assess bone turnover.

9.

A 60-year-old male with CKD G5D (on hemodialysis) has a PTH level of 800 pg/mL. His serum calcium is 9.5 mg/dL, and phosphate is 5.8 mg/dL.

Question: What is the most appropriate PTH-lowering therapy for him?

a)

Start Calcitriol

b)

Start Cinacalcet

c)

Start cinacalcet and calcitriol.

d)

Parathyroidectomy.

10.

A 45-year-old female, 6 months post-kidney transplant, has an eGFR of 40 mL/min/1.73 m² and a history of osteoporosis.
Question: What is the most appropriate management for her bone disease?

a)

Perform a bone biopsy to assess bone turnover.

b)

Initiate bisphosphonate therapy without further testing.

c)

Measure BMD to assess fracture risk.

d)

Start calcitriol therapy to prevent bone loss.

11.

A 65-year-old male with CKD G5D (on hemodialysis) has been on aluminum-containing phosphate binders for 6 months.
Question: What is the most appropriate management for his phosphate control?

a)

Continue aluminum-containing phosphate binders.

b)

Switch to calcium-based phosphate binders.

c)

Switch to non-calcium-based phosphate binders.

d)

Start Cinacalcet

12.

A 70-year-old male with CKD G4 (eGFR 26 mL/min/1.73 m²) has vascular calcification on a lateral abdominal radiograph.

Question: What is the most appropriate next step in managing his cardiovascular risk?

a)

Initiate calcitriol therapy.

b)

Perform a bone biopsy.

c)

Check iPTH

d)

Start bisphosphonate therapy.

13.

A 50-year-old female with CKD G3b (eGFR 35 mL/min/1.73 m²) has stable serum calcium and phosphate levels but a progressively rising PTH.
Question: What is the most appropriate monitoring frequency for her PTH levels?

a)

Every 3 months.

b)

Every 6 months.

c)

Every 12 months.

d)

Only if symptoms develop.

14.

A 60-year-old male with CKD G5D (on hemodialysis) has a serum calcium of 9.5 mg/dL and phosphate of 5.5 mg/dL.

Question: What is the most appropriate approach to managing his calcium-phosphate product?

a)

Use the Ca-PO4 product to guide therapy.

b)

Use levels of Calcum and PO4 to guide therapy

c)

Get a DEXA Scan

d)

Perform a bone biopsy.

15.

A 55-year-old female with CKD G5D (on hemodialysis) is currently on a combination of Calcitriol, Cal Acetate and Cinacalcet. Her most recent Intact PTH is 1200 pg/mL and Calcium and Phosphate levels aer still unoptimal.

Question: What is the most appropriate next step in managing her hyperparathyroidism?

a)

Increase the dose of cinacalcet.

b)

Perform a parathyroidectomy.

c)

Start Aluminum containing phosphate binder.

d)

Switch to a non-calcium-based phosphate binder.

16.

A 65-year-old male with CKD G4 (eGFR 24 mL/min/1.73 m²) has low bone mineral density and a history of fractures.

Question: What is the most appropriate use of bone turnover markers in his management?

a)

Routinely measure bone-derived turnover markers.

b)

Use bone-specific alkaline phosphatase to assess bone turnover.

c)

Perform a bone biopsy instead of using markers.

d)

Avoid using bone turnover markers.

17.

A 70-year-old female with CKD G3b (eGFR 38 mL/min/1.73 m²) has osteoporosis and a high risk of fracture.

Question: What is the most appropriate management for her osteoporosis?

a)

Initiate bisphosphonate therapy.

b)

Perform a bone biopsy before starting treatment.

c)

Start calcitriol therapy.

d)

Monitor

18.

A 22-year-old male with CKD G4 (eGFR 30 mL/min/1.73 m²) has hyperphosphatemia and normal serum calcium levels.

Question: What is the most appropriate phosphate-lowering therapy for him?

a)

Calcium-based phosphate binders.

b)

Non-calcium-based phosphate binders.

c)

Dietary phosphate restriction alone.

d)

Initiate calcitriol therapy.

19.

A 65-year-old female with CKD G5D (on hemodialysis) has low PTH levels and adynamic bone disease on bone biopsy.

Question: What is the most appropriate management for her bone disease?

a)

Initiate bisphosphonate therapy.

b)

Start calcitriol therapy.

c)

Avoid antiresorptive therapies

d)

Perform a parathyroidectomy.

20.

A 50-year-old male, 3 months post-kidney transplant, has an eGFR of 45 mL/min/1.73 m² and low bone mineral density.

Question: What is the most appropriate management for his bone disease?

a)

Initiate bisphosphonate therapy.

b)

Start calcitriol therapy.

c)

Perform a bone biopsy.

d)

Monitor without treatment.

21.

A 60-year-old male with CKD G5D (on hemodialysis) has hyperphosphatemia and arterial calcification.

Question: What is the most appropriate phosphate-lowering therapy for him?

a)

Calcium-based phosphate binders.

b)

Non-calcium-based phosphate binders.

c)

Dietary phosphate restriction alone.

d)

Initiate calcitriol therapy.

22.

A 55-year-old female with CKD G5D (on hemodialysis) has severe hyperparathyroidism (PTH 1500 pg/mL) and hypercalcemia.

Question: What is the most appropriate management for her hyperparathyroidism?

a)

Start calcitriol therapy.

b)

Initiate cinacalcet therapy.

c)

Perform a parathyroidectomy.

d)

Increase dialysate calcium concentration.

23.

A 55-year-old female with CKD G5D (on hemodialysis) has hypophosphatemia (serum phosphate 2.0 mg/dL) and low PTH levels.

Question: What is the most appropriate management for her hypophosphatemia?

a)

Increase dietary phosphate intake.

b)

Start calcitriol therapy.

c)

Perform a bone biopsy.

d)

Monitor without treatment.

24.

What is the role of fibroblast growth factor 23 (FGF23) in CKD-MBD?

a)

It increases phosphate levels

b)

It decreases phosphate levels

c)

It increases calcium levels

d)

It has no role in CKD-MBD

25.

A 65-year-old male with Stage 4 CKD presents with hyperphosphatemia (serum phosphate 6.2 mg/dL). His dietary phosphate intake is already restricted. What is the most appropriate next step in managing his hyperphosphatemia?

a)

Initiate high-dose vitamin D supplementation

b)

Start a non-calcium-based phosphate binder

c)

Increase calcium acetate dose to 3 times daily

d)

Begin intravenous iron therapy