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Cumulative Disorders

Total questions: 92

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which are symptoms of mononucleosis?

a)

fever, fatigue, swollen lymph nodes, elevated leukocytes

b)

fever, painless swollen lymph nodes and weak blood pressure

c)

fatigue, butterfly rash across the face, hardening of the skin

d)

elevated blood pressure, rash, sore throat

2.

Receiving a vaccine for measles is an example of this type of immunity:

a)

artificially acquired active

b)

artificially acquired passive

c)

naturally acquired active

d)

naturally acquired passive

3.
Getting a disease like chickenpox, gives you this type of immunity:
a)

naturally acquired active

b)

artificially acquired

c)

Passive acquired

d)

innate immunity

4.

An example of passive immunity is when:

a)

a mother's breast milk provides antibodies to the child

b)

a child gets sick with chicken pox

c)

you take an antibiotic

d)

you are vaccinated

5.

What happens when you are exposed to a virus or bacteria?

a)

your body produces lymphocytes

b)

your body produces erythrocytes

c)

your body produces interstitial fluid

d)

your body produces thrombocytes

6.

A bacteria enters your body through a cut in your hand. Neutrophils attack the antigens and release cytokines that are:

a)

a type of white blood cell

b)

extra fluid

c)

chemicals that attract other white blood cells and initiate inflammation

d)

chemicals that attract platelets to stimulate inflammation and blood clotting

7.

What is an example of artificial active immunity?

a)

antibodies passed from mom to baby through the placenta

b)

immunoglobulin shots

c)

developing antibodies after getting vaccinated

d)

developing antibodies while becoming sick with a virus

8.

Which are symptoms of scleroderma?

a)

hardening of facial muscles

b)

stiffening or hardening of the skin, difficulty breathing, high blood pressure

c)

hardening of the skin and swollen lymph nodes

d)

hardening of the lymph nodes and facial swelling

9.

Healthcare workers must practice Standard Precautions. This means they:

a)

handle body fluids as if they are contaminated and wear proper PPE

b)

they test all body fluids for bloodborne pathogens to see if they need to wear PPE

c)

they assume all body fluids are clear of blood borne pathogens

d)

they treat all patients with respect.

10.

When a foreign invader enters the body, the immune system responds by detecting the antigen on the foreign invader. It then produces a chemical that will alert other white blood cells. What are the chemicals called?

a)

edema

b)

nephron

c)

cytokines

d)

phagocytes

11.

Cytokines released by neutrophils not only attract other white blood cells to the pathogen but it also:

a)

helps develops a clot

b)

increases blood flow to the area

c)

produces extra collagen

d)

stimulates inflammation

12.

What lymphatic function is impaired when a patient has edema in their lower legs?

a)

immunity

b)

filtration

c)

lymphocyte production

d)

fluid balance

13.

Which hormones circulate in the female body during the ovulation stage of menstruation?

a)

testosterone, LH and estrogen

b)

estrogen, progesterone and FSH

c)

estrogen, FSH and LH

d)

FSH, progesterone and LH

14.

A female that has not had a menstrual cycle for 3 or more months has:

a)

PID

b)

amenorrhea

c)

dysmenorrhea

d)

mennorhagia

15.

Fred has frequent urination and can only urination a small amount each time. He most likely has:

a)

testicular cancer

b)

BPH(benign prostatic hypertrophy)

c)

epididymitis

d)

PID (pelvic Inflammatory Disease)

16.

excessive bleeding, abdominal pain are symptoms of:

a)

endometriosis

b)

PID

c)

cervical cancer

d)

mastitis

17.

What gland secretes a fluid that helps with sperm motility?

a)

testes

b)

prostate

c)

seminal vesicles

d)

bulbourethral

18.

The middle layer of the uterus is:

a)

muscular layer

b)

epithelial layer

c)

subcutaneous layer

d)

connective tissue

19.

What is the test to check for breast cancer?

a)

pap smear

b)

mammogram

c)

PSA

d)

Ishihara

20.

What is menarche?

a)

bacterial infection

b)

no menstruation for 3 or more months

c)

heavy or prolonged menstrual flow

d)

a female's first menstruation

21.

What can cause a female to go through early menopause before the age of 45?

a)

Endometriosis

b)

epididymitis

c)

HPV

d)

hysterectomy and/or oophorectomy

22.

Where is sperm stored after it is produced in the testes?

a)

prostate

b)

scrotum

c)

epididymis

d)

vas deferens

23.

Which hormone is secreted during the corpus luteum stage of menstruation?

a)

progesterone

b)

prolactin

c)

estrogen

d)

FSH

24.

The fluid secreted by the seminal vesicles :

a)

helps with sperm motility

b)

nourishes sperm

c)

neutralizes the urethra

d)

help to mature sperm

25.

What two structures does the vas deferens connect?

a)

urethra and prostate

b)

epididymis and testes

c)

prostate and oviduct

d)

epididymis and ejaculatory duct

26.

Scrotal heaviness, back pain and breast development are all symptoms of:

a)

testicular cancer

b)

epididymitis

c)

prostate cancer

d)

toxic shock syndrome

27.

Bob is having problems urinating. He may have:

a)

testicular cancer

b)

epididymitis

c)

prostate cancer

d)

erectile dysfunction

28.

Inflammation of the fallopian tubes is:

a)

vaginitis

b)

salpingitis

c)

mastitis

d)

epididymitis

29.

What is included in oral contraceptives?

a)

synthetic testosterone

b)

synthetic estrogen and prolactin

c)

synthetic estrogen and progesterone

d)

synthetic FSH and estrogen

30.

What can cause a yeast infection in females?

a)

oral contraceptives

b)

gonorrhea and chlamydia

c)

antibiotic treatment for a bacterial infection

d)

tampon use

31.

What is the medical term for painful menstruation?

a)

amenorrhea

b)

dysmenorrhea

c)

mennorhagia

d)

ectopic

32.

A baby is diagnosed with cryptorchidism which is:

a)

a testicle that has not descending down into the scrotum

b)

missing a testicle

c)

an uncircumcised prepuce

d)

infection of the epididymis

33.

1. The optic disc is located on the:

a)

cornea

b)

lens

c)

retina

d)

sclera

34.

Which structure is part of the middle ear?

a)

Auditory canal

b)

Incus

c)

Semicircular canals

d)

Tympanic membrane

35.

Maggie works with loud machines and does not wear appropriate hearing protection at work. She started having a ringing sound in her ears. What sensory disorder is she experiencing?

a)

Meniere's disease

b)

Otitis media

c)

Tinnitus

d)

Vertigo

36.

Bob has difficulty driving at night. What eye structure is impaired?

a)

Cones

b)

Optic disk

c)

Optic nerve

d)

Rods

37.

When a patient develops white patches on their tongue after taking a long course of antibiotics, they have:

a)

Glossectomy

b)

Glossitis

c)

Strawberry tongue

d)

Thrush

38.

What structure is impaired if you have a difficult time matching colors?

a)

Cones

b)

Optic disk

c)

Optic nerve

d)

Rods

39.

The doctor is examining a 2-year-old toddler with an upper respiratory infection. He is pulling at his ears. His symptoms include pain, fever, and fluid draining from his right ear. Which sensory disorder is Jacob experiencing?

a)

Meniere's disease

b)

Otitis media

c)

Tinnitus

d)

Vertigo

40.

Joe is having difficulty hearing because of impacted ear wax in his right ear. What sensory disorder does he have?

a)

Conductive hearing loss

b)

Sensorineural hearing loss

c)

Tinnitus

d)

Vertigo

41.

Which eye structure that is sensitive to dim light and helps us to see at night?

a)

Rod

b)

Cone

c)

Optic Disk

d)

sclera

42.

Medical term for nearsightedness?

a)

Myopia

b)

Hyperopia

c)

presbyopia

d)

astigmatism

43.

Medical term for farsightedness

a)

Myopia

b)

Hyperopia

c)

presbyopia

d)

otosclerosis

44.

Hardening of the stapes that causes hearing loss

a)

otosclerosis

b)

sensorineural hearing loss

c)

conductive hearing loss

d)

otitis media

45.

What separates the outer and the middle ear?

a)

tympanic membrane

b)

ossicles

c)

auditory canal

d)

cochlea

46.

Frank has had some problems hearing since his 80th birthday and will need hearing aids. What sensory disorder does he have?

a)

presbyopia

b)

presbycusis

c)

astigmatism

d)

glossitis

47.

Intraocular pressure in the eye that causes halos around light and loss of peripheral vision.

a)

diabetic retinopathy

b)

glaucoma

c)

cataracts

d)

detached retina

48.

What are the signs and symptoms of Meniere's Disease?

a)

pain to the outer ear and drainage

b)

difficulty focusing on objects far away and up close

c)

decreased peripheral vision

d)

vertigo, nausea/vomiting and tinnitus

49.

A myringotomy is done with a patient who has:

a)

conductive hearing loss

b)

otosclerosis

c)

cataracts

d)

reoccurring otitis media

50.

Which is the correct pathway of hearing?

a)

auricle/pinna, tympanic membrane, eardrum, auditory canal, inner ear, brain

b)

Auricle/pinna, auditory canal, tympanic membrane, ossicles, cochlea, auditory nerve

c)

auditory canal, pinna, eardrum, ossicles, cochlea, auditory nerve, brain

d)

tympanic membrane, auricle/pinna, stapes, cochlea, auditory nerve, brain

51.

What structure helps us focus on objects up close?

a)

pupil

b)

cornea

c)

retina

d)

lens

52.

This structure produces enzymes to help break down fats, carbs and protein in the small intestine.

a)

liver

b)

kidneys

c)

gall bladder

d)

pancreas

53.

Gastric juices in the stomach digest food into a thick semi- liquid that is called:

a)

amylase

b)

chyme

c)

Vit K

d)

e-coli

54.

What accessory organ stores bile that is produced by the liver?

a)

Colon

b)

Gall Bladder

c)

Small Intestine

d)

pancreas

55.

This accessory organ produces bile that breaks down fats.

a)

liver

b)

gall bladder

c)

stomach

d)

large intestine

56.

Food travels down your esophagus through a wavelike motion called ____.

a)

gravity

b)

falling

c)

peristalsis

d)

squeezing

57.

Where does both mechanical digestion and chemical digestion occur?

a)

liver

b)

mouth

c)

gallbladder

d)

stomach

58.

Which shows the correct order of digestion?

a)

mouth, pharynx, stomach, small intestines, esophagus

b)

pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestines, large intestines

c)

mouth, esophagus, large intestines, stomach, small intestines,

d)

stomach, large intestines, esophagus, small intestines

59.

Where does the completion of digestion occur?

a)

stomach

b)

large intestine

c)

rectum

d)

small intestine

60.

Wesley has had increased stress with school and has been taking ibuprofen for a knee injury. He started waking up with epigastric pain that will go away after eating breakfast. His doctor feels he has:

a)

a peptic ulcer

b)

Hepatitis A

c)

gastroenteritis

d)

cirrhosis

61.

What does a high protein diet help the body do?

a)

wound healing

b)

blood clotting

c)

muscle movement

d)

maintain a normal blood sugar

62.

Which of the following diet will help with blood clotting?

a)

diet high in sodium

b)

diet high in potassium

c)

diet high in protein

d)

diet high in calcium

63.

Sam has epigastric pain after eating a greasy burger. He probably has:

a)

peptic ulcer

b)

cholelithiasis

c)

hepatitis

d)

IBS

(irritable bowel syndrome)

64.

Timmy has abdominal pain, bloating, diarrhea and constipation. He was diagnosed with:

a)

peptic ulcer

b)

cholelithiasis

c)

hepatitis

d)

IBS

(irritable bowel syndrome)

65.

Someone who drinks excessive alcohol or takes excessive Tylenol (acetaminophen) may develop:

a)

peptic ulcer

b)

Hepatitis B

c)

gastroenteritis

d)

cirrhosis

66.

A medical term referring to the Inflammation of the GI tract that can cause diarrhea:

a)

Gastroenteritis

b)

Colic

c)

Foreign Body

d)

Intussusception

67.

Trisha has epigastric pain that is worse when she lies flat. Her doctor has diagnosed her with:

a)

GERD

b)

gastritis

c)

IBS

d)

cholelithiasis

68.

What is the function of the teeth and tongue

a)

chemical digestion

b)

break down food

c)

mechanical digestion

d)

they only chew food

69.

Which organ is responsible for absorbing water from digested food?

a)

small intestine

b)

stomach

c)

large intestine

d)

mouth

70.

What is the alimentary canal?

a)

The digestive system

b)

the sections of the small intestine

c)

the liver, pancreas and gallbladder

d)

the mouth

71.

Fecal formation and defecation happen in the:

a)

small intestine

b)

ileum

c)

large intestine

d)

stomach

72.

Which are the sections of the small intestine?

a)

duodenum, iliac, jasmine

b)

duodenum, jejunum, ileum,

c)

distal intestine, jejunum, cecum

d)

cecum, jejunum, rectum

73.

The sections of the large intestines are:

a)

ascending colon, transverse colon, anus

b)

ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon

c)

mucosal colon, transverse colon, descending colon

d)

duodenum, transverse, cecum

74.

What is the functional unit of the kidney?

a)

Urethra

b)

medulla

c)

Nephron

d)

renal pyramid

75.

The outermost region of the kidney is the:

a)

cortex

b)

medulla

c)

renal pelvis

d)

nephron

76.

Where does filtration take place in the nephron?

a)

Glomerulus

b)

proximal convoluted tubule

c)

Loop of Henle

d)

Collecting Duct

77.

Which patient will need hemodialysis?

a)

A young man who was electrocuted and now has anuria

b)

An older woman who had a stroke and now has incontinence

c)

A 3 year old with food allergies and enuresis

d)

An older man with vomiting and a urinary output of 1000ml per day

78.

Mr. Williams has recently suffered a stroke. He has difficulty speaking, trouble moving his right arm and has:

a)

oliguria

b)

polyuria

c)

incontinence

d)

renal calculi

79.

Where are nephrons located in the kidney?

a)

Renal pelvis

b)

Renal artery

c)

Renal medulla

d)

Renal capsule

80.

What is mostly reabsorbed from the filtrate in the descending loop of Henle?

a)

red blood cells

b)

glucose

c)

electrolytes

d)

water

81.

What urinary function does ADH(anti-diurectic hormone) and Aldosterone affect?

a)

filtration

b)

excretion

c)

urine elimination

d)

reabsorption

82.

How are excess substances such as drugs, potassium and sodium eliminated in the urinary system?

a)

Reabsorption

b)

Secretion

c)

Filtration

d)

Circulation

83.

What procedure replaces the urinary function filtration?

a)

urostomy

b)

lithotripsy

c)

urinalysis

d)

dialysis

84.

Which are structures of the nephron?

a)

renal pyramids, Bowman's capsule, Loop of Henle

b)

Glomerulus, Distal convolute tubule, Loop of Henle, renal artery

c)

Renal Columns, Bowman's capsule, glomerulus

d)

Bowman's capsule, Proximal convoluted tubule, Loop of Henle

85.

What structure of the urinary system can be blocked by a kidney stone?

a)

loop of Henle

b)

ureter

c)

renal artery

d)

renal pelvis

86.

Hilda has acute glomerulonephritis. Her doctor feels this was caused by:

a)

kidney stones

b)

hydronephrosis

c)

drinking too much sweet tea

d)

not properly taking care of her urinary tract infections

87.

Which disorder affects filtration in the kidney?

a)

kidney stones

b)

glomerulonephritis

c)

cystitis

d)

glucosuria

88.

Which is a sign that there is something wrong with filtration in the process of urine formation?

a)

hematuria

b)

polyuria

c)

incontinence

d)

enuresis

89.

What filters the blood in a dialysis machine?

a)

water

b)

sand

c)

semi-permeable membrane

d)

cleaning solution

90.

What type of medication can lower your blood pressure and cause polyuria?

a)

ADH and aldosterone

b)

antibiotics

c)

vasoconstrictor

d)

diuretic

91.

Dehydration can cause decreased urination. What urinary function is affected in?

a)

reabsorption

b)

secretion

c)

filtration

d)

uremia

92.

Which condition may lead to kidney failure?

a)

Chronic glomerulonephritis

b)

renal stones

c)

polyuria

d)

cystitis

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