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PSY443 exam 2 study guide

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the 3-term contingency?

a)
The 3-term contingency consists of a discriminative stimulus, a response, and a consequence.
b)
A response, a reward, and a behavior.
c)
A stimulus, a reaction, and a feedback.
d)
A cue, an action, and a trigger.
2.

What does stimulus control mean?

a)
Stimulus control refers to the process of reinforcing a behavior.
b)
Stimulus control is the ability to ignore all stimuli in the environment.
c)
Stimulus control is the influence of specific stimuli on the occurrence of a behavior.
d)
Stimulus control means controlling the environment to eliminate all distractions.
3.

What do the terms SD and S-delta mean in relation to discrimination learning?

a)
SD and S-delta both indicate reinforcement availability.
b)
SD indicates no reinforcement; S-delta indicates reinforcement availability.
c)
SD indicates punishment availability; S-delta indicates no punishment.
d)
SD indicates reinforcement availability; S-delta indicates no reinforcement.
4.

What is stimulus discrimination?

a)
Stimulus discrimination is the inability to recognize any stimuli.
b)
Stimulus discrimination is the ability to distinguish between different stimuli and respond appropriately.
c)
Stimulus discrimination refers to the process of ignoring all stimuli.
d)
Stimulus discrimination is the same as generalization of stimuli.
5.

What is stimulus discrimination training, and what is the outcome?

a)
The organism learns to ignore all stimuli regardless of their differences.
b)
The outcome of stimulus discrimination training is that the organism becomes able to differentiate between similar stimuli and respond appropriately to each.
c)
Stimulus discrimination training leads to a complete inability to respond to stimuli.
d)
The outcome is that the organism becomes confused by similar stimuli.
6.

How is stimulus control used to teach new behaviors or modify problematic behaviors?

a)
Stimulus control is used to teach new behaviors by associating them with specific cues and reinforcing them, while modifying problematic behaviors by removing reinforcement in the absence of those cues.
b)
Stimulus control is only effective for modifying existing behaviors, not teaching new ones.
c)
Stimulus control involves ignoring all cues to change behavior.
d)
Stimulus control is used to teach behaviors by punishing unwanted actions.
7.

What is an unconditioned stimulus and a conditioned stimulus?

a)
An unconditioned stimulus triggers a natural response, while a conditioned stimulus is learned through association with the unconditioned stimulus.
b)
A conditioned stimulus is a natural response, while an unconditioned stimulus is learned through experience.
c)
An unconditioned stimulus is always harmful, while a conditioned stimulus is always beneficial.
d)
Both unconditioned and conditioned stimuli are the same and do not trigger any responses.
8.

How does a neutral stimulus (NS) become a conditioned stimulus?

a)
A neutral stimulus can only become a conditioned stimulus if it is presented alone.
b)
A neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus through repeated pairing with an unconditioned stimulus.
c)
A neutral stimulus is always a conditioned stimulus.
d)
A neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus through random exposure.
9.

What is higher-order conditioning?

a)
Higher-order conditioning is a learning process where a neutral stimulus gains the ability to elicit a conditioned response after being associated with a conditioned stimulus.
b)
A type of conditioning that does not involve any stimuli.
c)
A method of learning that involves only unconditioned stimuli.
d)
A process where a conditioned stimulus loses its ability to elicit a response.
10.

Which is an example of higher-order conditioning?

a)
A bell that has been paired with food that causes salivation in a dog.
b)
A light that causes a dog to bark when paired with a whistle.
c)
A sound that has been paired with a light that causes a dog to sit.
d)
A light that has been paired with a bell that causes salivation in a dog.
11.

What is spontaneous recovery of respondent behavior?

a)
Spontaneous recovery is the process of reinforcing a conditioned response to strengthen it.
b)
Spontaneous recovery is the reappearance of a conditioned response after a rest period following extinction.
c)
Spontaneous recovery is the permanent loss of a conditioned response.
d)
Spontaneous recovery occurs immediately after conditioning without any rest period.
12.

How is generalization of respondent behavior developed?

a)
Generalization is developed by avoiding any stimuli exposure.
b)
Generalization occurs when stimuli are presented in isolation.
c)
Generalization is achieved through a single exposure to stimuli.
d)
Generalization occurs through repeated pairings of stimuli.
13.

Which is an example of generalization of respondent behavior?

a)
A dog salivating at a sound similar to a bell.
b)
A child crying when they see a cookie jar.
c)
A cat meowing at the sound of a can opener.
d)
A bird singing when it sees a tree.
14.

What is the role of reinforcement in operant conditioning?

a)

Reinforcement is used to decrease the likelihood of a behavior.

b)

Reinforcement is used to increase the likelihood of a behavior.

c)

Reinforcement is used to eliminate all behaviors.

d)

Reinforcement has no effect on behavior.

15.

How does extinction occur in classical conditioning?

a)

Extinction occurs when both the conditioned and unconditioned stimuli are presented together.

b)

Extinction occurs when the conditioned response is reinforced.

c)

Extinction occurs when the unconditioned stimulus is presented without the conditioned stimulus.

d)

Extinction occurs when the conditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented without the unconditioned stimulus.

16.

What is the difference between positive and negative reinforcement?

a)

Positive reinforcement decreases behavior, while negative reinforcement increases behavior.

b)

Positive reinforcement involves adding a stimulus to increase behavior, while negative reinforcement involves removing a stimulus to increase behavior.

c)

Positive reinforcement involves removing a stimulus, while negative reinforcement involves adding a stimulus.

d)

There is no difference between positive and negative reinforcement.

17.

A group of ranchers attempts to discourage coyotes from attacking their sheep by placing a substance on the wool of the sheep that makes coyotes violently ill if they eat it. Very quickly, the coyotes avoid the sheep entirely. In this scenario, what are the UCS, CS, and CR, respectively?

a)

 The substance, the sheep’s wool, aversion to the sheep

b)

The sheep’s wool, the substance, aversion to sheep

c)

Aversion to sheep, the substance, the sheep’s wool

18.
After Tim refused to clean his room, his mother took away his PS4 gaming system, Tim's mom is making use of
a)
positive reinforcement
b)
negative reinforcement
c)
positive punishment
d)
negative punishment
19.

An employee exhibits bad behavior at work and the boss criticizes him. This would be an example of

a)

Positive Reinforcement

b)

Negative Reinforcement

c)

Positive Punishment

d)

Negative Punishment

20.

A teacher complimenting students when they answer correctly would be an example of

a)

Positive Reinforcement

b)

Negative Reinforcement

c)

Positive Punishment

d)

Negative Punishment

21.

Sarah trashes her sister's room and her mom tells her she cannot go camping with her friends next weekend. This would be an example of

a)

Positive Reinforcement

b)

Negative Reinforcement

c)

Positive Punishment

d)

Negative Punishment

22.

What does the term 'operant conditioning' refer to?

a)

The process of learning through association

b)

The process of learning through reinforcement and punishment

c)

The process of learning through observation and imitation

d)

The process of learning through trial and error

23.
Emiko’s cat often meows for food. Emiko decides to eliminate the behavior by feeding the cat only when it does not meow. Over the next few weeks, she sometimes ignores the cat when it meows. Other times, she feeds the cat when it meows. Which of the following is the most reasonable prediction to make about the cat’s meowing for food?
a)
It will disappear due to extinction
b)
It will decrease overall but not extinguish.
c)
It will remain unchanged due to a continuous schedule of reinforcement.
d)
It will increase due to a variable schedule of reinforcement.
e)
It will increase due to positive punishment
24.

How is shaping defined?

a)
Shaping is a technique used in cooking to enhance flavors.
b)
Shaping is a method for physical fitness training.
c)

The process of reinforcing successive approximations of a target behavior

d)

Manipulation

25.

When would you use shaping?

a)
You would use shaping for simple tasks that can be taught in one step.
b)
Shaping is used only for physical skills like sports.
c)
You would use shaping when teaching complex behaviors that require gradual development.
d)
You should use shaping when the behavior is already well established.
26.

What two behavioral principles are involved in shaping?

a)
Extinction and observation
b)
Reinforcement and modeling
c)
Reinforcement and extinction
d)
Punishment and reinforcement
27.

What are the steps in using shaping?

a)

Identify the final behavior first, break it down, reinforce complex steps, gradually increase complexity, and achieve the final behavior

b)
Identify the target behavior, break it down, reinforce simple steps, gradually increase complexity, and achieve the final behavior.
c)

Reinforce complex steps immediately, reinforce simple steps, and achieve the final behavior

d)

Identify the target behavior, break it down into complex steps, and achieve the final behavior

28.

When should shaping be used and not used?

a)
Use shaping only for tasks the learner already knows
b)
Do not use shaping for any behaviors at all
c)
Use shaping for all tasks regardless of complexity
d)
Use shaping for complex behaviors; do not use it for simple tasks or when the learner already knows the behavior.
29.

What are the two basic characteristics of the starting behavior in shaping?

a)
The behavior must be complex and difficult to achieve.
b)
The behavior should be already performed and similar to the desired behavior.
c)
The behavior should be performed only by the trainer and not the learner.
d)
The behavior must be completely new and unrelated to the desired behavior.
30.

What are the two major types of prompting?

a)
Visual prompting and auditory prompting
b)
Physical prompting and digital prompting
c)
Written prompting and tactile prompting
d)

Response prompting and stimulus prompting

31.

What are response prompts?

a)
Response prompts are random statements without purpose.
b)
Response prompts are irrelevant questions posed to users.
c)
Response prompts are cues or instructions that elicit specific responses from users.
d)
Response prompts are only used in programming languages.
32.

What are stimulus prompts?

a)
Stimulus prompts are rewards for good behavior.
b)
Stimulus prompts are physical objects used in therapy.
c)
Stimulus prompts are cues used to elicit responses or behaviors.
d)
Stimulus prompts are a type of medication.
33.

How does fading work?

a)

Gradual removal of prompts to transfer control to natural stimuli.

b)
Fading is caused by electromagnetic interference only.
c)

Fading occurs only in natural stimuli are not present.

d)
Fading increases signal strength over distance.
34.

Why are prompting and fading helpful techniques for learning?

a)
Prompting and fading hinder skill development.
b)
Prompting and fading are helpful techniques for learning because they support skill acquisition by providing guidance and gradually promoting independence.
c)
They are only useful for advanced learners.
d)
These techniques are primarily for memorization.
35.

How is a stimulus-response chain defined?

a)
A stimulus-response chain is a random sequence of events.
b)
A stimulus-response chain involves multiple stimuli leading to one response.
c)
A stimulus-response chain is defined by a response that occurs without any stimulus.
d)

A sequence of behaviors where each response produces a stimulus for the next step.

36.

What is a task analysis?

a)
A task analysis is a way to evaluate employee performance.
b)
A task analysis is a tool for measuring productivity levels.
c)
A task analysis is a method for brainstorming new ideas.
d)

Breaking a complex skill into smaller teachable steps.

37.

What are the steps involved in a task analysis?

a)

Identifying the main goal and identifying the tasks needed to complete this goal.

b)
Ignoring the sequence of steps
c)

Identify the task, break it into steps, validate with expert input, and test with learners.

d)

Documenting by writing a sequence of steps and then testing the learners.

38.

What is forward chaining?

a)

Teach steps in order from beginning to end.

b)
Forward chaining is a method for data storage.
c)
Forward chaining only works with incomplete data.
d)
Forward chaining is a backward reasoning technique.
39.

What is backward chaining?

a)
A method that starts with facts and works forward to a conclusion.
b)
A strategy for memorizing information without understanding.
c)

Teach last step first, then work backward.

d)
Backward chaining is a method of reasoning that starts with a goal and works backward to find supporting facts.
40.

What is total task presentation?

a)
Total task presentation refers to the time allocated for each task.
b)

Total task presentation is to teach all steps together.

c)
Total task presentation is a summary of completed tasks only.
d)
Total task presentation is a method for prioritizing tasks.
41.

What are behavioral skills training (BST) procedures used for?

a)
BST procedures are used for developing physical fitness routines.
b)
BST procedures are used for teaching and improving specific behavioral skills.
c)
BST procedures are used for diagnosing mental health disorders.
d)
BST procedures are used for enhancing artistic creativity.
42.

What are the steps in BST?

a)

Instructions, Modeling, Rehearsal, and Feedback.

b)
Traversing the tree in reverse order
c)

Balancing the behavior after every inspection

d)

Instruction, Rehearsal, Shadowing, and Feedback

43.

How is differential reinforcement used with antecedent control procedures?

a)

Reinforcing desired behaviors while withholding reinforcement for undesired behaviors.

b)
Differential reinforcement is unrelated to behavior modification techniques.
c)
It involves ignoring all antecedent cues in the environment.
d)
Differential reinforcement is only used for punishing behaviors.
44.

What is manipulated in antecedent control procedures?

a)
Antecedents or stimuli that precede a behavior.
b)
The environment where the behavior occurs.
c)
The behavior itself being observed.
d)
Consequences that follow a behavior.
45.

What are establishing operations (EOs)?

a)
Establishing operations (EOs) are methods to decrease the effectiveness of a reinforcer.
b)
Establishing operations (EOs) are only applicable in animal training contexts.
c)
Establishing operations (EOs) are unrelated to behavior modification techniques.
d)
Establishing operations (EOs) are conditions that increase the value of a reinforcer or punisher, affecting behavior.
46.

What are the components of a behavioral contract?

a)
Goals, strategies, evaluations
b)
General guidelines, rewards, feedback
c)
Participants, duration, methods
d)
Specific behaviors, context, consequences, timeline
47.

What does rule-governed behavior mean?

a)
Behavior that is influenced by emotions
b)
Actions that are spontaneous and unplanned
c)
Conduct that is based solely on instincts
d)
Rule-governed behavior is behavior that is controlled by verbal or written rules.
48.

What is a one-party contract?

a)
A one-party contract is an agreement that is unenforceable.
b)
A one-party contract requires multiple parties to perform.
c)
A one-party contract is an agreement where only one party is bound to perform.
d)
A one-party contract involves a mutual exchange of promises.
49.

What is an In Situ assessment

a)
An In Situ assessment is a theoretical analysis conducted remotely.
b)
An In Situ assessment is a laboratory-based evaluation.
c)

An In Situ assessment is an evaluation conducted in the natural environment of the subject.

d)
An In Situ assessment is a type of survey conducted online.
50.
Emiko’s cat often meows for food. Emiko decides to eliminate the behavior by feeding the cat only when it does not meow. Over the next few weeks, she sometimes ignores the cat when it meows. Other times, she feeds the cat when it meows. Which of the following is the most reasonable prediction to make about the cat’s meowing for food?
a)
It will disappear due to extinction
b)
It will decrease overall but not extinguish.
c)
It will remain unchanged due to a continuous schedule of reinforcement.
d)
It will increase due to a variable schedule of reinforcement.
e)
It will increase due to positive punishment
51.

What is the purpose of a discriminative stimulus (SD) in operant conditioning?

a)

To signal the availability of reinforcement for a specific behavior.

b)

To prevent any behavior from occurring.

c)

To indicate that a behavior will be punished.

d)

To serve as a neutral stimulus with no effect on behavior.

52.

How does extinction differ from punishment in behavior modification?

a)

Extinction and punishment both increase the likelihood of a behavior.

b)

Extinction involves adding a stimulus, while punishment involves removing a stimulus.

c)

Extinction increases behavior, while punishment decreases behavior.

d)

Extinction involves removing reinforcement, while punishment involves adding an aversive stimulus.

53.

What is the role of a conditioned reinforcer in operant conditioning?

a)

A conditioned reinforcer is used to decrease the likelihood of a behavior.

b)

A conditioned reinforcer is a natural stimulus that requires no learning.

c)

A conditioned reinforcer is a stimulus that has acquired reinforcing properties through association with a primary reinforcer.

d)

A conditioned reinforcer is used to eliminate all behaviors.

54.

What is the purpose of a discriminative stimulus in operant conditioning?

a)

To eliminate all responses.

b)

To randomly reinforce any behavior.

c)

To signal the availability of reinforcement for a specific behavior.

d)

To punish unwanted behaviors.

55.

How does extinction occur in operant conditioning?

a)

By punishing the behavior every time it occurs.

b)

By introducing a new stimulus to the environment.

c)

By removing the reinforcement that maintains a behavior.

d)

By continuously reinforcing a behavior.

56.

What is the difference between stimulus generalization and stimulus discrimination?

a)

Stimulus generalization involves responding to one specific stimulus, while stimulus discrimination involves responding to multiple stimuli.

b)

Stimulus generalization involves responding to similar stimuli, while stimulus discrimination involves differentiating between stimuli.

c)

Stimulus generalization involves ignoring all stimuli, while stimulus discrimination involves responding to all stimuli.

d)

Stimulus generalization and stimulus discrimination are the same.

57.

Which of the following is an example of a fixed-ratio schedule of reinforcement?

a)

A worker receives a paycheck every two weeks.

b)

A student receives a sticker for every five books read.

c)

A child gets a toy after an unpredictable number of chores completed.

d)

A dog receives a treat every time it sits on command.

58.

What is the difference between classical and operant conditioning?

a)

Classical conditioning involves voluntary behaviors, while operant conditioning involves involuntary responses.

b)

Classical conditioning involves associating a neutral stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus, while operant conditioning involves reinforcement or punishment after a behavior.

c)

There is no difference between classical and operant conditioning.

d)

Classical conditioning is based on reinforcement, while operant conditioning is based on association.

59.

What is the role of reinforcement in operant conditioning?

a)

Reinforcement is used to decrease the likelihood of a behavior.

b)

Reinforcement is used to increase the likelihood of a behavior.

c)

Reinforcement has no effect on behavior.

d)

Reinforcement is used to eliminate all behaviors.

60.

How does negative punishment differ from positive punishment?

a)

Negative punishment increases behavior, while positive punishment decreases behavior.

b)

Negative punishment involves removing a stimulus to decrease behavior, while positive punishment involves adding a stimulus to decrease behavior.

c)

There is no difference between negative and positive punishment.

d)

Negative punishment involves adding a stimulus to decrease behavior, while positive punishment involves removing a stimulus.

61.

What is the purpose of using a variable ratio schedule in operant conditioning?

a)

To increase the unpredictability of reinforcement, leading to a high rate of response

b)

To establish a fixed pattern of behavior

c)

To ensure reinforcement is given after a set number of responses

d)

To decrease the frequency of a behavior

62.

What is the role of a discriminative stimulus in operant conditioning?

a)

A discriminative stimulus decreases the likelihood of a behavior occurring

b)

A discriminative stimulus is used to punish unwanted behaviors

c)

A discriminative stimulus is irrelevant to behavior modification

d)

A discriminative stimulus signals the availability of reinforcement for a particular behavior

63.

What is the role of a discriminative stimulus in operant conditioning?

a)

A discriminative stimulus is used to punish unwanted behaviors.

b)

A discriminative stimulus signals the availability of reinforcement for a particular behavior.

c)

A discriminative stimulus is unrelated to behavior modification.

d)

A discriminative stimulus is used to eliminate all stimuli in the environment.

64.

What is the role of a discriminative stimulus (SD) in operant conditioning?

a)

An SD is unrelated to the behavior being conditioned.

b)

An SD is a stimulus that always leads to punishment.

c)

An SD signals the availability of reinforcement for a particular behavior.

d)

An SD is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior.

65.

What is the purpose of a fixed-ratio schedule in operant conditioning?

a)

To provide reinforcement after a variable number of responses.

b)

To provide reinforcement after a fixed amount of time.

c)

To provide reinforcement after a fixed number of responses.

d)

To provide reinforcement continuously without any schedule.

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