Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Software Development Quiz

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which model is best suited for projects with unclear or evolving requirements?

a)

Waterfall

b)

Spiral

c)

V-Model

d)

Agile

2.

What is the cyclomatic complexity of a program with 10 decision points and 15 edges?

a)

5

b)

6

c)

15

d)

10

3.

Which COCOMO model is used for embedded software projects?

a)

Organic

b)

Semi-Detached

c)

Embedded

d)

Component-Based

4.

In a project network, the critical path is the sequence of activities with:

a)

Shortest duration

b)

Longest duration

c)

Least slack

d)

Most resources

5.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good SRS?

a)

Unambiguous

b)

Traceable

c)

Implementation-specific

d)

Complete

6.

Equivalence Partitioning is a technique used in:

a)

Unit Testing

b)

Integration Testing

c)

System Testing

d)

Black-Box Testing

7.

Which type of maintenance involves modifying a system to accommodate new requirements?

a)

Corrective

b)

Adaptive

c)

Perfective

d)

Preventive

8.

The Open-Closed Principle states that software entities should be:

a)

Open for modification, closed for extension

b)

Open for extension, closed for modification

c)

Closed for both modification and extension

d)

Open for both modification and extension

9.

Which phase of risk management involves prioritizing risks based on their impact and likelihood?

a)

Risk Identification

b)

Risk Analysis

c)

Risk Mitigation

d)

Risk Monitoring

10.

Which metric is NOT used in Function Point Analysis?

a)

External Inputs

b)

External Outputs

c)

Lines of Code (LOC)

d)

Internal Logical Files

11.

Which tool is used to manage changes to source code over time?

a)

Jenkins

b)

Git

c)

Jira

d)

SonarQube

12.

High cohesion and low coupling are indicators of:

a)

Poor modular design

b)

Good modular design

c)

Tightly coupled modules

d)

High code redundancy

13.

In a use case diagram, an actor represents:

a)

A system function

b)

A user role or external system

c)

A database table

d)

A test case

14.

Which metric measures the probability of failure-free operation over a specific time?

a)

MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures)

b)

MTTR (Mean Time To Repair)

c)

MTTF (Mean Time To Failure)

d)

Failure Rate

15.

Which technique uses work breakdown structure (WBS) for task estimation?

a)

PERT

b)

CPM

c)

COCOMO

d)

Gantt Chart

16.

Which model emphasizes risk analysis at each iteration?

a)

Waterfall

b)

Spiral

c)

V-Model

d)

Agile

17.

Which pattern ensures a class has only one instance?

a)

Factory Method

b)

Singleton

c)

Observer

d)

Adapter

18.

Boundary Value Analysis is most effective for detecting errors in:

a)

Input ranges

b)

Control flow

c)

Database queries

d)

Memory leaks

19.

Which metric measures the ratio of code comments to code lines?

a)

Cyclomatic Complexity

b)

Comment Density

c)

Halstead Volume

d)

Function Points

20.

Which diagram shows object interactions over time?

a)

Class Diagram

b)

Sequence Diagram

c)

Use Case Diagram

d)

Deployment Diagram

21.

The formula Effort = a × (KLOC)^b is used in:

a)

Function Point Analysis

b)

COCOMO

c)

PERT

d)

Critical Path Method

22.

In Scrum, the Product Owner is responsible for:

a)

Managing the team

b)

Prioritizing the backlog

c)

Writing code

d)

Testing

23.

Which CMMI level represents quantitatively managed processes?

a)

Level 2

b)

Level 3

c)

Level 4

d)

Level 5

24.

Which strategy involves accepting the consequences of a risk?

a)

Mitigation

b)

Avoidance

c)

Transfer

d)

Acceptance

25.

Which technique ensures all code paths are executed?

a)

Equivalence Partitioning

b)

Statement Coverage

c)

Boundary Value Analysis

d)

Decision Coverage

26.

Which technique involves role-playing user scenarios?

a)

Interviews

b)

Prototyping

c)

Use Cases

d)

Workshops

27.

Refactoring aims to improve:

a)

Functionality

b)

Performance

c)

Code readability

d)

User interface

28.

Which term refers to a stable version of software?

a)

Baseline

b)

Branch

c)

Fork

d)

Build

29.

"Are we building the product right?" refers to:

a)

Verification

b)

Validation

c)

Testing

d)

Debugging

30.

Which tool is used for continuous integration?

a)

Docker

b)

Jenkins

c)

Kubernetes

d)

Ansible

31.

If a project has 5 developers and takes 60 days, what is the effort in person-months?

a)

5

b)

10

c)

12

d)

15

32.

The Liskov Substitution Principle states that:

a)

Subclasses must be substitutable for base classes

b)

Code should depend on abstractions

c)

Classes should have single responsibilities

d)

Interfaces should be client-specific

33.

Which approach tests top-level modules first?

a)

Big-Bang

b)

Top-Down

c)

Bottom-Up

d)

Sandwich

34.

Fixing a security flaw is an example of:

a)

Corrective Maintenance

b)

Adaptive Maintenance

c)

Perfective Maintenance

d)

Preventive Maintenance

35.

A "has-a" relationship is represented by:

a)

Inheritance

b)

Association

c)

Aggregation

d)

Composition

36.

Which component is counted as an External Inquiry (EQ)?

a)

User login

b)

Database table

c)

Report generation

d)

Input form

37.

Which license allows modification and redistribution?

a)

MIT

b)

Proprietary

c)

GNU GPL

d)

Apache 2.0

38.

The MVC pattern separates:

a)

Data, network, and UI

b)

Data, logic, and presentation

c)

Modules, views, and controllers

d)

Input, processing, and output

39.

If MTTF = 100 hours and MTTR = 10 hours, what is MTBF?

a)

90

b)

100

c)

110

d)

120

40.

ISO 9126 defines standards for:

a)

Risk management

b)

Software quality

c)

Project management

d)

Testing

41.

Which testing level focuses on end-to-end processes?

a)

Unit

b)

Integration

c)

System

d)

Acceptance

42.

IaaS provides:

a)

Virtual machines

b)

Application hosting

c)

Serverless functions

d)

Databases

43.

A burndown chart tracks:

a)

Defects over time

b)

Remaining work vs time

c)

Resource allocation

d)

Budget expenditure

44.

Which technique reduces loop overhead?

a)

Loop Unrolling

b)

Dead Code Elimination

c)

Inlining

d)

Constant Folding

45.

A developer discovers a security flaw in a client's system. Ethically, they should:

a)

Ignore it

b)

Exploit it

c)

Report it privately

d)

Post it publicly

46.

Which architecture style emphasizes independent, loosely coupled services?

a)

Monolithic

b)

Microservices

c)

Layered

d)

Client-Server

47.

The Strategy Pattern is used to:

a)

Encapsulate interchangeable algorithms

b)

Create families of related objects

c)

Notify dependents of state changes

d)

Adapt incompatible interfaces

48.

State Transition Testing is ideal for systems with:

a)

Complex input ranges

b)

Finite states and transitions

c)

High cyclomatic complexity

d)

Database interactions

49.

Halstead's Difficulty Metric measures:

a)

Code readability

b)

Effort required to understand code

c)

Number of bugs per module

d)

Execution time

50.

In PERT, the expected time for an activity with optimistic (O)=2, most likely (M)=4, pessimistic (P)=6 is:

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

51.

Which vulnerability arises from unsanitized user input in web apps?

a)

SQL Injection

b)

Buffer Overflow

c)

Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)

d)

Race Condition

52.

Which tool is used for container orchestration?

a)

Docker

b)

Jenkins

c)

Kubernetes

d)

Ansible

53.

Which framework uses timeboxed iterations called "Sprints"?

a)

Kanban

b)

Scrum

c)

XP (Extreme Programming)

d)

Lean

54.

Which diagram models concurrent system behavior?

a)

Class Diagram

b)

Activity Diagram

c)

State Diagram

d)

Sequence Diagram

55.

A developer discovers a colleague plagiarizing code. Ethically, they should:

a)

Report it to management

b)

Ignore it

c)

Publicly shame the colleague

d)

Copy the code themselves

56.

If a system has a failure rate (λ) of 0.001 per hour, its MTTF is:

a)

100 hours

b)

1000 hours

c)

10,000 hours

d)

1 hour

57.

The Interface Segregation Principle states that:

a)

Clients shouldn't depend on unused interfaces

b)

Subclasses should replace base classes

c)

Code should be open for extension

d)

Classes should have single responsibilities

58.

Which service model provides serverless computing?

a)

IaaS

b)

PaaS

c)

SaaS

d)

FaaS

59.

Which license requires derivative works to be open-source?

a)

MIT

b)

Apache 2.0

c)

GNU GPL

d)

BSD

60.

Which code smell involves a class doing too much?

a)

God Class

b)

Spaghetti Code

c)

Dead Code

d)

Magic Numbers

61.

Which technique tests interactions between modules?

a)

Unit Testing

b)

Integration Testing

c)

Regression Testing

d)

Smoke Testing

62.

A risk with high probability and low impact is managed by:

a)

Mitigation

b)

Avoidance

c)

Transfer

d)

Acceptance

63.

Which term refers to managing parallel development streams?

a)

Branching

b)

Tagging

c)

Merging

d)

Committing

64.

Which component is an External Interface File (EIF)?

a)

A database table

b)

A report generated by the system

c)

A file maintained by another system

d)

An input form

65.

Which type of maintenance involves optimizing code efficiency?

a)

Corrective

b)

Adaptive

c)

Perfective

d)

Preventive

66.

A "is-a" relationship is represented by:

a)

Inheritance

b)

Association

c)

Aggregation

d)

Dependency

67.

A project with 1000 Function Points and a productivity rate of 10 FP per person-month requires how many person-months?

a)

10

b)

100

c)

1000

d)

10,000

68.

Which technique replaces repeated calculations with precomputed values?

a)

Loop Unrolling

b)

Memoization

c)

Dead Code Elimination

d)

Inlining

69.

ISO/IEC 25010 focuses on:

a)

Software quality models

b)

Risk management

c)

Project management

d)

Testing

70.

ISO/IEC 25010 focuses on:

a)

Software quality models

b)

Risk management

c)

Project lifecycle

d)

Testing processes

71.

A Gantt Chart visually represents:

a)

Task dependencies and timelines

b)

Risk impact vs. probability

c)

Code complexity

d)

Test coverage

72.

A developer is asked to collect user data without consent. Ethically, they should:

a)

Comply

b)

Refuse and report the request

c)

Collect anonymized data

d)

Ignore privacy laws

73.

The Observer Pattern is used for:

a)

One-to-many dependency between objects

b)

Creating objects without specifying classes

c)

Encapsulating requests as objects

d)

Simplifying complex interfaces

74.

Which term describes a unique identifier for a software version?

a)

Baseline

b)

Build

c)

Release

d)

Tag

75.

Smoke Testing is also known as:

a)

Sanity Testing

b)

Regression Testing

c)

Load Testing

d)

Alpha Testing

76.

Velocity measures:

a)

Work completed per sprint

b)

Defect density

c)

Team productivity over time

d)

Code coverage

77.

The Hexagonal Architecture prioritizes:

a)

Tight coupling between layers

b)

Separation of core logic from external services

c)

Centralized database management

d)

Monolithic deployment

78.

The Decorator Pattern is used to:

a)

Add responsibilities to objects dynamically

b)

Encapsulate object creation

c)

Notify dependents of state changes

d)

Define a family of algorithms

79.

Mutation Testing evaluates:

a)

Test coverage

b)

The quality of test cases

c)

Performance under load

d)

Security vulnerabilities

80.

Code Churn measures:

a)

Frequency of code changes

b)

Cyclomatic complexity

c)

Comment density

d)

Test coverage

81.

Which practice ensures infrastructure configuration is version-controlled?

a)

Infrastructure as Code (IaC)

b)

Continuous Deployment

c)

Blue-Green Deployment

d)

Canary Releases

82.

Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) exploits:

a)

User authentication tokens

b)

Trusted user sessions

c)

Database connections

d)

Input validation flaws

83.

Story Points estimate:

a)

Time to complete a task

b)

Effort and complexity of a user story

c)

Team velocity

d)

Budget allocation

84.

Which diagram shows component dependencies?

a)

Component Diagram

b)

Object Diagram

c)

Deployment Diagram

d)

Package Diagram

85.

A client asks for a feature violating GDPR. Ethically, you should:

a)

Build it secretly

b)

Refuse and explain the legal risks

c)

Ignore regulations

d)

Charge extra for compliance

86.

PaaS provides:

a)

Virtual machines

b)

Development frameworks and tools

c)

Serverless functions

d)

Network infrastructure

87.

The N-Version Programming technique aims to:

a)

Reduce bugs through redundancy

b)

Simplify code

c)

Improve performance

d)

Enhance user interfaces

88.

The Dependency Inversion Principle states:

a)

High-level modules should depend on low-level modules

b)

Abstractions should not depend on details

c)

Code should be open for extension

d)

Classes should have single responsibilities

89.

A Risk Burn Down Chart tracks:

a)

Mitigation progress over time

b)

Defect density

c)

Resource allocation

d)

Budget expenditure

90.

Trunk-Based Development emphasizes:

a)

Long-lived feature branches

b)

Frequent commits to the main branch

c)

Delayed integration

d)

Manual merges

91.

Fuzz Testing involves:

a)

Sending random inputs to crash software

b)

Validating UI workflows

c)

Checking code coverage

d)

Simulating user behavior

92.

Feature Envy refers to code that:

a)

Accesses data of another class excessively

b)

Contains duplicate logic

c)

Uses global variables

d)

Lacks comments

93.

The Wideband Delphi method relies on:

a)

Historical data

b)

Expert consensus

c)

Lines of code

d)

Function points

94.

Dead Code Elimination improves:

a)

Readability and performance

b)

Security

c)

Test coverage

d)

User experience

95.

ISO/IEC 27001 focuses on:

a)

Software quality

b)

Risk management

c)

Information security

d)

Project lifecycle

96.

The MoSCoW Method prioritizes tasks as:

a)

Must-have, Should-have, Could-have, Won't-have

b)

High, Medium, Low

c)

Critical, Major, Minor

d)

Urgent, Important, Later

97.

The Chain of Responsibility Pattern is used to:

a)

Decouple senders and receivers of requests

b)

Create object families

c)

Encapsulate algorithms

d)

Manage state transitions

98.

Blue-Green Deployment reduces risk by:

a)

Running two identical environments

b)

Gradually rolling out updates

c)

Testing in production

d)

Using feature toggles

99.

Code Stagnation refers to:

a)

Frequent refactoring

b)

Lack of updates leading to obsolescence

c)

High test coverage

d)

Over-documented code

100.

Shift-Left Testing emphasizes:

a)

Testing early in the SDLC

b)

Delaying testing until deployment

c)

Outsourcing QA

d)

Manual testing only

Similar Resources on Wayground

SEMAT

97 questions

SEMAT

quiz

Worksheet

•

University - Professi...

Ujian Tengah Semester Rekayasa Perangkat Lunak

100 questions

Ujian Tengah Semester Rekayasa Perangkat Lunak

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

TES TULIS UKK RPL 2022

100 questions

TES TULIS UKK RPL 2022

quiz

Worksheet

•

12th Grade - University

Quizz Cyber 2ème année

100 questions

Quizz Cyber 2ème année

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Logika Algoritma

102 questions

Logika Algoritma

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

SQL: GROUP Functions

97 questions

SQL: GROUP Functions

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th Grade - Professio...

Python Quiz - Till Basic String

100 questions

Python Quiz - Till Basic String

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Computer Architecture Year 7 EOU Test

100 questions

Computer Architecture Year 7 EOU Test

quiz

Worksheet

•

6th Grade - University