WorksheetsReview _Objectives: Pt1
Total questions: 81
Worksheet time: 41mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following is the correct syntax to remote connect to network device?
a)
ssh -a admin01 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
b)
ssh -al admin01 255.255.255.0
c)
ssh -l admin01 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
d)
ssh -l admin01 192.168.1.1
2.
You are configuring a small remote office router with only one possible path to the main office. What type of routing should be used?
a)
OSPF
b)
EIGRP
c)
Static
d)
BGP
3.
Your network has routes to the same destination via RIP and OSPF. RIP has a longer prefix length, but OSPF has a lower administrative distance. Which route is selected?
a)
RIP
b)
OSPF
c)
Both
d)
Whichever was learned last
4.
A company with multiple ISPs needs a protocol that supports policy-based routing across autonomous systems. Which should they use?
a)
OSPF
b)
RIP
c)
EIGRP
d)
BGP
5.
Which statement is true about wireless channel bandwidth in 802.11 WLAN standards?
a)
Narrower bandwidth increases speed and reduces interference
b)
Wider bandwidth increases speed but may cause more interference
c)
Channel width is fixed at 20 MHz for all standards
d)
Channel bandwidth does not affect performance
6.
Which fire class is associated with electrical equipment and requires non-conductive, gas-based extinguishers?
a)
Class A: Ordinary combustibles like wood and paper
b)
Class B: Flammable liquids
c)
Class C: Electrical fires
d)
Class D: Combustible metals
7.
You notice packets being routed through an inefficient path. The routing table shows multiple routes to the destination. What determines which path is chosen?
a)
IP address
b)
MAC address
c)
Administrative Distance
d)
TTL value
8.
In an IPv4 NAT environment, which technique allows multiple devices to share one public IP address?
a)
Dynamic NAT
b)
PAT
c)
Static NAT
d)
Split tunneling
9.
You're implementing a Cisco-first environment and need a routing protocol that allows unequal path load balancing. What should you choose?
a)
RIP
b)
EIGRP
c)
OSPF
d)
BGP
10.
You want to ensure internal IPs are not exposed to the internet. Which configuration would you use?
a)
EIGRP
b)
STP
c)
NAT
d)
ICMP
11.
A host is unable to reach a backup gateway after the primary router fails. What protocol should be implemented to fix this?
a)
OSPF
b)
NAT
c)
FHRP
d)
VLAN
12.
What is a primary benefit of implementing VLANs in a network?
a)
Reduces physical cable requirements
b)
Improves printer compatibility
c)
Enhances security and traffic management
d)
Increases wireless range
13.
How is a path chosen when a dynamic routing protocol has identical network addresses and different subnet mask?
a)
Shortest administrative distance
b)
Most trusted protocol
c)
Longest prefix match
d)
Interface speed
14.
What protocol would be used to prioritize routing based on business rules over shortest path?
a)
RIP
b)
EIGRP
c)
OSPF
d)
BGP
15.
You need to separate VoIP traffic on a switch for prioritization. Which VLAN type would you configure?
a)
Native VLAN
b)
Management VLAN
c)
Voice VLAN
d)
Trunk VLAN
16.
A network admin wants to allow traffic from multiple VLANs over a single switch port. What must be configured?
a)
Port security
b)
802.1Q trunking
c)
Spanning Tree
d)
Port mirroring
17.
You have two switches with redundant connections. Which protocol ensures no Layer 2 loops occur?
a)
RIP
b)
STP
c)
NAT
d)
OSPF
18.
What must be configured on a router for inter-VLAN communication?
a)
Loopback interface
b)
Static route
c)
Subinterfaces
d)
Management VLAN
19.
A switch is receiving untagged traffic on a trunk port. Where will this traffic be placed?
a)
Management VLAN
b)
Voice VLAN
c)
Native VLAN
d)
Data VLAN
20.
Which frame type exceeds 1500 bytes but remains within allowed limits of up to 9000 bytes?
a)
Runt
b)
MTU
c)
Giant
d)
Jumbo
21.
A user reports one-way communication on a switch port. What mismatch could cause this?
a)
VLAN ID
b)
Subnet
c)
Duplex settings
d)
MTU size
22.
What does the VLAN database typically store?
a)
Routing protocols and firewall rules
b)
VLAN names, IDs, and assignments
c)
IP addresses of client devices
d)
DHCP lease information
23.
You’re deploying wireless in a dense office space. Which 2.4 GHz channels should be used to avoid overlap?
a)
2, 5, 8
b)
1, 6, 11
c)
1, 2, 3
d)
9, 10, 11
24.
What is the standard width of an equipment rack according to EIA specifications?
a)
17 inches
b)
19 inches
c)
23 inches
d)
25 inches
25.
Which technology pushes clients to connect to a faster, less congested 5 GHz band?
a)
Bandwidth bonding
b)
Channel isolation
c)
Band steering
d)
802.11h
26.
A guest needs internet access in a hotel without accessing the corporate LAN. What should be implemented?
a)
NAT
b)
Captive portal
c)
Guest isolation
d)
Mesh networking
27.
You're configuring a network with centralized AP control. Which component is required?
a)
Autonomous AP
b)
Wireless controller
c)
Patch panel
d)
Network load balancer
28.
A user can see the SSID but cannot access the internet until a login page appears. What is this setup called?
a)
BYOD
b)
BSSID
c)
Captive portal
d)
Mesh SSID
29.
You are setting up directional antennas for a long-range wireless bridge. What antenna should you use?
a)
Omnidirectional
b)
Dipole
c)
Yagi
d)
Ceiling-mount
30.
Which security mode provides centralized authentication for enterprise Wi-Fi environments?
a)
WPA3-Personal
b)
PSK
c)
WPA2-Enterprise
d)
Open Auth
31.
Which location in a building act as the main link between the WAN and all other distribution points?
a)
IDF
b)
MDF
c)
Server closet
d)
Patch room
32.
What is the function of a patch panel?
a)
Extends Wi-Fi range
b)
Encrypts VLANs
c)
Organizes and connects network cables
d)
Supplies power
33.
Your data center racks use front-to-back cooling. What should be implemented to maintain airflow efficiency?
a)
Vertical mounting
b)
Hot/cold aisle layout
c)
VLAN tagging
d)
UPS bypass
34.
Which device provides backup power and surge protection for network equipment?
a)
PDU
b)
Switch
c)
UPS
d)
Power inverter
35.
Humidity levels in your server room drop below 20%. What issue may occur?
a)
Equipment corrosion
b)
Signal interference
c)
Static discharge damage
d)
Low power load
36.
Which fire suppression method is safe for people and leaves no residue?
a)
CO₂
b)
Wet pipe sprinkler
c)
Clean agent
d)
Dry chemical
37.
Which of the following is the primary function of a router in a network?
a)
Connecting multiple networks and directing traffic between them
b)
Forwarding data based on MAC addresses
c)
Assigning IP addresses dynamically
d)
Blocking unauthorized network traffic
38.
Sam is experimenting with audio transmissions and would like the transmissions to reach several specific devices simultaneously over the IP network. The user requests assistance from a network technician to configure the appropriate features within the SOHO. Which of the following should the technician configure to meet the requirements?
a)
Unicast
b)
Multicast
c)
Anycast
d)
Broadcast
39.
Berty, the network technician is attempting to increase throughput by configuring link aggregation between a Gigabit Ethernet distribution switch and a Fast Ethernet access switch. Which of the following is the BEST choice concerning speed and duplex for all interfaces that are participating in the link aggregation?
a)
Half duplex and 1GB speed
b)
Full duplex and 1GB speed
c)
Half duplex and 100MB speed
d)
Full duplex and 100MB speed
40.
An IT organization needs to optimize speeds for global content distribution and wants to reduce latency in high-density user locations. Which of the following technologies BEST meets the organization's requirements?
a)
Load balancing
b)
Geofencing
c)
Public cloud
d)
Content Delivery Network
41.
Which of the following BEST describes a network appliance that warns of unapproved devices that are accessing the network?
a)
Firewall
b)
AP
c)
Proxy server
d)
IDS
42.
A technician is installing a cable modem in a SOHO. Which of the following cable types will the technician MOST likely use to connect a modem to the ISP?
a)
Coaxial
b)
Single Mode Fiber
c)
Multi Mode Fiber
d)
Cat 5e
43.
A network technician is reviewing the interface counters on a router interface. The technician is attempting to confirm a cable issue. Given the following information:
a)
Multicasts
b)
CRCs
c)
# of packes input
d)
# of packets outpur
44.
A company has two branch offices in different cities. The IT team needs to connect both offices securely over the internet while ensuring employees can access internal resources. Which network device should be used to establish this connection?
a)
Router
b)
Switch
c)
Firewall
d)
NAS
45.
What is the primary role of a network switch in a local area network (LAN)?
a)
Forwarding data based on MAC addresses
b)
Forwarding data based on IP addresses
c)
Filtering network traffic from the internet
d)
Assigning dynamic IP addresses
46.
A company's IT department is upgrading its network to handle increased traffic and faster data transfer between departments. The department decides to replace old hubs with a more efficient device. Which network device should they install?
a)
Switch
b)
Router
c)
Firewall
d)
Load balancer
47.
What is the primary function of a firewall in a network?
a)
Filtering and controlling incoming and outgoing network traffic
b)
Encrypting data for secure transmission
c)
Assigning IP addresses dynamically
d)
Managing VLANs and segmenting networks
48.
An organization experiences frequent cyberattacks targeting its internal network. The IT team wants to block unauthorized external access while allowing legitimate traffic. Which device should be deployed at the network perimeter to enforce security policies?
a)
Firewall
b)
Router
c)
Switch
d)
Proxy
49.
What is the main function of an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?
a)
Detecting and alerting administrators about suspicious activities
b)
Preventing malicious traffic from entering the network
c)
Encrypting sensitive network traffic
d)
Providing VPN access for remote users
50.
A company wants to monitor its network for potential security breaches but does not want to block traffic automatically. Which device should they install?
a)
IDS
b)
Firewall
c)
IPS
d)
Load balancer
51.
What is the key difference between an IPS and an IDS?
a)
IDS detects threats, while IPS detects and prevents them
b)
IDS blocks malicious traffic, while IPS only logs attacks
c)
IDS works at Layer 7, while IPS works at Layer 2
d)
IDS encrypts network traffic, while IPS decrypts it
52.
An online retailer wants to prevent DDoS attacks on its e-commerce website by blocking malicious traffic in real time. Which security solution should they implement?
a)
IPS
b)
IDS
c)
Proxy
d)
NAS
53.
What is the primary role of a load balancer?
a)
Distributing network traffic across multiple servers
b)
Filtering and blocking malicious traffic
c)
Encrypting data for secure communication
d)
Assigning IP addresses to network devices
54.
A video streaming platform experiences high traffic and server overload. To ensure smooth performance, they need to distribute traffic across multiple servers. Which solution should they deploy?
a)
Load Balancer
b)
Firewall
c)
IDS
d)
NAS
55.
Which of the following best describes the purpose of a Network Attached Storage (NAS) device?
a)
Centralized file storage and allows network users to access shared files
b)
Provides high-speed block-level storage for enterprise applications
c)
Manages dynamic IP address allocation for network devices
d)
Enhances network security by filtering incoming traffic
56.
A small business needs a cost-effective solution to share files between employees and allow remote access to important documents. Which storage solution should they implement?
a)
NAS
b)
SAN
c)
Fibre Channel
d)
Load Balancer
57.
What is the primary function of a Storage Area Network (SAN)?
a)
Provides high-speed block-level storage for applications and servers
b)
Distributes network traffic across multiple servers
c)
Encrypts network traffic for secure communication
d)
Filters network traffic to prevent cyberattacks
58.
A large financial institution needs high-speed, scalable storage for its database servers to support real-time transactions. Which storage solution should they deploy?
a)
SAN
b)
NAS
c)
IDS
d)
VPN
59.
What is the primary purpose of Fibre Channel (FC) in networking?
a)
Provides high-speed, low-latency data transfer in storage networks
b)
Improves wireless network coverage in enterprise environments
c)
Encrypts data for secure transmission over a public network
d)
Distributes load across multiple servers
60.
A data center requires a high-speed storage connection for its SAN infrastructure to support virtualization and high-demand workloads. Which technology should be used?
a)
Fibre Channel
b)
Ethernet
c)
Wi-Fi
d)
VPN
61.
What is the primary function of a wireless access point (AP)?
a)
Provides a bridge between wired and wireless networks
b)
Connects wired devices to a LAN
c)
Encrypts internet traffic for security
d)
Assigns IP addresses to connected devices
62.
A company wants to provide Wi-Fi access in a large office without relying on multiple routers. Which device should they install?
a)
Access Point
b)
Firewall
c)
Switch
d)
IDS
63.
What is the main function of a Wireless LAN Controller (WLC)?
a)
Centrally manages multiple wireless access points
b)
Encrypts wireless traffic for security
c)
Routes data between different networks
d)
Assigns IP addresses to connected devices
64.
A university needs to manage hundreds of Wi-Fi access points across campus efficiently. Which device should be used?
a)
Wireless LAN Controller
b)
Switch
c)
Firewall
d)
Load Balancer
65.
What is the primary function of a Content Delivery Network (CDN)?
a)
Distributes web content across multiple locations for faster access
b)
Encrypts network traffic for security
c)
Filters network traffic to prevent cyberattacks
d)
Assigns IP addresses to connected devices
66.
A global e-commerce website wants to improve page load times for customers in different regions. Which solution should they implement?
a)
CDN
b)
VPN
c)
NAS
d)
IDS
67.
What is the main function of a VPN?
a)
Provides secure remote access to a private network over the internet
b)
Balances traffic across multiple network paths
c)
Assigns dynamic IP addresses
d)
Blocks unauthorized network traffic
68.
A company wants employees to securely access internal files while working remotely. Which solution should they use?
a)
VPN
b)
Firewall
c)
Load Balancer
d)
QoS
69.
What is the main function of Quality of Service (QoS)?
a)
Prioritizes network traffic based on type or importance
b)
Encrypts network data for security
c)
Blocks malicious network traffic
d)
Assigns MAC addresses dynamically
70.
A company needs to prioritize video conferencing traffic over web browsing. Which feature should they implement?
a)
QoS
b)
VPN
c)
IDS
d)
CDN
71.
What is the primary purpose of Time to Live (TTL) in networking?
a)
It limits the lifespan of a data packet to prevent infinite looping
b)
It ensures encrypted communication between devices
c)
It assigns IP addresses dynamically to devices
d)
It prioritizes network traffic for VoIP and streaming
72.
A network administrator is troubleshooting connectivity issues using the traceroute command. They notice that some packets fail to reach their destination and receive a "Time Exceeded" error. What is the most likely cause of this issue?
a)
The TTL value expired before reaching the destination
b)
The DNS server is incorrectly configured
c)
The firewall is blocking all incoming packets
d)
The network switch is malfunctioning
73.
With the information provided with the show commands it is possible to create a map of a network
a)
True
b)
False
74.
Which show command will display interface and IP Addresses?
a)
show ip interface brief
b)
show interface f0/1
c)
show cdp
d)
show lldp neighbors
e)
show lldp neighbors detail
75.
Which of the following will display status of CDP?
a)
show cdp run
b)
show ip interface brief
c)
show interface f0/1
d)
show lldp neighbors
e)
show lldp neighbors detail
76.
Which of the following will disable CDP?
a)
no cdp run
b)
show ip interface brief
c)
show interface f0/1
d)
show cdp run
e)
show lldp neighbors
77.
To complete the mapping of a network is it best practice to randomly look for network devices and interface information.
a)
True
b)
False
78.
Which of the following commands will enable LLDP?
a)
lldp run
b)
show ip interface brief
c)
show interface f0/1
d)
show cdp run
e)
show lldp neighbors
79.
Which of the following commands will display connected device information?
a)
show lldp neighbors
b)
show ip interface brief
c)
show interface f0/1
d)
show cdp run
e)
show lldp neighbors detail
80.
Which of the following commands will display specific interface information?
a)
show lldp neighbors detail
b)
show ip interface brief
c)
show interface f0/1
d)
show cdp run
e)
show lldp neighbors
81.
Which of the following will display details about single interface?
a)
show interface g0/0
b)
show ip interface brief
c)
show cdp
d)
show lldp neighbors
e)
show lldp neighbors detail
100 %
