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CIE The Big A Level Computer Science Quiz!

Total questions: 188

Worksheet time: 2hrs 22mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
How many bits are in a nibble?
a)
2 bits
b)
4 bits
c)
6 bits
d)
8 bits
2.

How many bytes are in a kibibyte?

a)

2

b)

1000

c)

1024

d)

102440

3.

What is the denary value?

(a)  

4.
What is the largest number you can represent with 8 bits?
a)

256

b)

128

c)

200

d)

255

5.

Convert the unsigned binary number 11001100 to decimal

a)

206

b)

104

c)

205

d)

204

6.

What is 6.625 in fixed point binary (4 bits for the whole number / 4 bits for fractional part)?

a)

01101010

b)

10001010

c)

01101100

d)

10001100

e)

01111010

7.

Convert the unsigned binary number 11011.1001 to denary.

a)

27.8125

b)

27.5625

c)

31.5625

d)

31.34375

e)

27.375

8.

Which is NOT a disadvantage of fixed point binary numbers?

a)

cannot represent the range of numbers

b)

cannot represent the accuracy of numbers

c)

easier to process

9.

Why do we carry out normalisation on floating point binary numbers?

a)

To convert the number into a negative number

b)

To round a decimal number down

c)

To provide the maximum level of precision

d)

To round a decimal number up

10.

What is the two's complement of 01100010 ?

a)

10011101

b)

11011101

c)

10011110

d)

10011111

11.

In normalised floating point form, a positive number always has what beginning?

a)

01

b)

10

c)

001

d)

101

12.

In normalised floating point form, a negative number always has what beginning?

a)

01

b)

10

c)

110

d)

010

13.

What is the normalised form of 0.0000111 0111

a)

1.0110000 0011

b)

1.0110000 0111

c)

0.1110000 0111

d)

0.1110000 0011

14.

Convert 88 to normalised floating point binary.

a)

0.1011000 0101

b)

1.0011000 0111

c)

0.1011000 0111

d)

0.1011000 0110

15.
What would an XOR mask of
11110111
do to
010101010
a)
010101010
b)
11110111
c)
00000111
d)
10100010
16.
What would a NOT mask do to
010101010
a)
shift it to the left
b)
shift it to the right
c)
flip the bits
d)
make the bits match
17.

Who uses Hexadecimal?

a)

Computers

b)

Humans

c)

Robots

18.

A logic gate with 4 inputs would have how many different rows on the truth table? (how many possibilities are there)

(a)  

19.

Characteristics of OOP.. (Tick all)

a)

Data types

b)

Encapsulation

c)

Inheritance

d)

Polymorphism

e)

algorithm

20.

A single object can also be referred to as an...

a)

Object

b)

Singular Object

c)

Instance

d)

Singular

21.

The ​ (a)   layer is used to provide ​ (b)   for applications that want to ​ (c)   across a ​ (d)   , often the Internet.

Choose from the below words
application
services
communicate
network
22.

SMTP (for e-mail), FTP (for file transfer) and HTTP (for web browsing) all operate on which layer?

a)

Internet

b)

Transport

c)

Application

d)

Link

23.

The ​ (a)   layer is used to provide ​ (b)   for applications that want to ​ (c)   across a ​ (d)   , often the Internet.

Choose from the below words
application
services
communicate
network
24.

SMTP (for e-mail), FTP (for file transfer) and HTTP (for web browsing) all operate on which layer?

a)

Internet

b)

Transport

c)

Application

d)

Link

25.

The transport layer uses the ​ (a)   to establish an ​ (b)   with the recipient computer. It ​ (c)   into packets and ​ (d)   them sequentially. Adds the ​ (e)   to be used based on the HTTP protocol.

Choose from the below words
Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
end‐to‐end connection
splits data
numbers
port number
26.

Reorder the following (1 being the first layer, 4 being the last)

a)

Application

b)

Transport

c)

Link

d)

Internet

1)
2)
3)
4)
27.

The ​ (a)   layer uses the ​ (b)   to address packets with the source and ​ (c)   IP addresses. A router forwards each packet to an endpoint called a ​ (d)   defined by the combination of IP address and ​ (e)   .

Choose from the below words
network
Internet Protocol (IP)
destination
socket
port number
28.

This layer operates across a physical connection.

a)

Application layer

b)

Link layer

c)

Network layer

d)

Transport layer

29.

When receiving data at the destination:

The Link Layer removes the ​ (a)   from each packet and passes it to the Network Layer. The Network Layer removes the ​ (b)   from each packet and passes it to the ​ (c)   Layer. The Transport Layer removes the ​ (d)   from each packet, reassembles the packets in the correct order and passes them to the Application Layer. The ​ ​ (e)   Layer presents the data for the user in a browser.

Choose from the below words
MAC address
IP address
Transport
port number
Application
30.

A ​ (a)   uniquely identifies a ​ (b)   device with a Network Interface Card (NIC). This may be the ​ (c)   computer, or a ​ (d)   in transit. Packets move up and down the lower layers of the stack as they hop across routers, changing their source and ​ (e)   MAC addresses as they go

Choose from the below words
MAC address
physical
destination
router
31.

Match the following port number with the protocol...

a)

20

1.

FTP

b)

80

2.

HTTP

c)

143

3.

IMAP

d)

443

4.

HTTPS

e)

22

5.

SSH

32.

File Transfer Protocol is an ​ (a)   level protocol used to ​ (b)   across a network. FTP uses the ​ (c)   model with separate data and control ​ (d)   operating on ports 20 and 21. Usernames and passwords are frequently used to protect access to files and to identify users. Access can also be provided ​ (e)   where any user can access the FTP site.

Choose from the below words
application
move files
client server
channels
anonymously
33.

Which protocol is an encryption protocol that allows secure communication between nodes across a network.

a)

FTP

b)

SSH

c)

HTTPS

d)

SSS

34.

SSH can be used to create a (a)   through a network.

35.

​ (a)   Used to send emails and forward them between mail servers to their destination. ​ (b)   Downloads email stored on a ​ (c)   to a local client (removed after download). ​ (d)   Manages emails on a server so ​ (e)   clients can access the same email account in synchronicity.

Choose from the below words
SMTP:
POP3:
remote server
IMAP:
multiple
36.

Match the following

a)

SMTP

1.

Used to send emails and forward them between mail servers to their destination

b)

IMAP

2.

holds mail on the server so that multiple devices can access all mail

c)

POP

3.

downloads mail to a local device and removes it from the server

37.

What is the output Y of this logic cricuit if A = 1, B = 1, and C = 1

a)

0

b)

1

38.

What type of logic is this table showing:

a)

AND

b)

OR

c)

NOT

d)

XOR

39.

Use the logic condition to find the value of W:


A & ~(B | C)

a)

True

b)

False

40.

If the input values are A = 1, B = 0, C = 1, what would be the result at output D and G, respectively?

a)

Output D = 0, Output G = 0

b)

Output D = 0, Output G = 1

c)

Output D = 1, Output G = 0

d)

Output D = 1, Output G = 1

41.

Commutative Law states that..

a)

Expressions can be simplified by removing like terms

b)

The order of variables in an operation does not matter

c)

Expressions can be factorised, or multiplied out

d)

A variable AND itself is the same as the variable.

42.

Which of the following are correct expressions of De Morgan's Theorum?

a)

¬A.¬B = ¬(A.B)

b)

¬A.B = ¬B+A

c)

¬(A.B) = ¬A+¬B

d)

A.B = ¬(¬A+¬B)

e)

A+B = ¬A.¬B

43.

Which law tells us that we can factorise or multiply out expressions?

a)

Associative law

b)

Distributive law

c)

De Morgan's law

d)

Commutative law

44.

Absorptive Law states that..

a)

Expressions can be simplified by removing like terms

b)

The order of variables in an operation does not matter

c)

Expressions can be factorised, or multiplied out

d)

A variable AND itself is the same as the variable.

45.

Which law states that AND and OR can replace each other in the right circumstances?

a)

De Morgan's Law

b)

Associative Law

c)

Distributive Law

d)

Cole's Law

e)

Identity

46.

Select all equivalent expressions

a)

Q is neither A nor B

b)

Q is not A or B

c)

Q = ¬B + ¬A

d)

Q = ¬A.¬B

e)

Q = ¬(A+B)

47.
A memory unit that can store one bit.
a)
FLIP FLOP
b)
Logic circuit
c)
Boolean expressions
d)
Logic Gates
e)
NOT
48.
A circuit that performs addition using inputs from A and B only.
a)
Half adder
b)
Arithmetic Logic Unit
c)
Clock
d)
Edge triggered d type flip flop
e)
FLIP FLOP
49.
In the context of Boolean algebra, what does the first De Morgan’s theorem state?
a)
The negation of a conjunction is the disjunction of the negations
b)
The negation of a disjunction is the conjunction of the negations
c)
The result is always true
d)
The theorem only applies to three variables
50.
Which of the following applications can flip-flops be used for?
a)
Memory storage
b)
Data counters
c)
Arithmetic operations
d)
Network routing
51.
What is the truth table for a JK Flip-Flop when both J and K are 1?
a)
The output toggles
b)
The output is set to 0
c)
The output is set to 1
d)
The output remains unchanged
52.
What are the two main inputs for an SR Flip-Flop?
a)
Set and Reset
b)
Clock and Reset
c)
Set and Toggle
d)
Set and Clear
53.
How does a JK Flip-Flop differ from an SR Flip-Flop?
a)
JK Flip-Flop can toggle states
b)
JK Flip-Flop has asynchronous inputs
c)
JK Flip-Flop avoids indeterminate states
d)
JK Flip-Flop has only one input
54.
Which of the following statements correctly describes De Morgan’s Laws?
a)
They transform AND into OR operations
b)
They simplify Boolean expressions
c)
They require three inputs to function
d)
They are only applicable in digital circuits
55.
What is the output of a JK Flip-Flop when J=1 and K=0?
a)
Output Q will remain unchanged
b)
Output Q will be set to 0
c)
Output Q will toggle
d)
Output Q will be set to 1
56.
What happens when both inputs of an SR Flip-Flop are high?
a)
It sets the output to 1
b)
It maintains the previous state
c)
It resets the output to 0
d)
It enters an indeterminate state
57.
How do De Morgan’s Laws assist in simplifying complex logic expressions?
a)
They convert AND operations to OR operations
b)
They allow for negation of inputs and outputs
c)
They make expressions more complex
d)
They require additional variables
58.
What is the output of a JK Flip-Flop when J=0 and K=1?
a)
Output Q will be reset to 0
b)
Output Q will toggle
c)
Output Q will be set to 1
d)
Output Q will remain unchanged
59.
Which of the following statements accurately describes the operation of an SR Flip-Flop?
a)
It has two inputs: Set (S) and Reset (R) and can maintain its state when both inputs are low.
b)
It can toggle its state when both inputs are high, leading to an indeterminate state.
c)
It has only one input and cannot maintain a state.
d)
It operates only with synchronous inputs, unlike the JK Flip-Flop.
60.
Which of the following statements about the operation of flip-flops is correct?
a)
An SR Flip-Flop can enter an indeterminate state when both inputs are high.
b)
A JK Flip-Flop can toggle its state based on the inputs J and K.
c)
An SR Flip-Flop has only one input for setting the state.
d)
De Morgan’s Laws are not applicable to flip-flop operations.
61.
What are the key characteristics of a JK Flip-Flop compared to an SR Flip-Flop?
a)
It can toggle its state based on inputs J and K.
b)
It has only two states: Set and Reset.
c)
It can enter an indeterminate state when both inputs are high.
d)
It has both Set and Reset inputs, avoiding indeterminate states.
62.
What are the characteristics and functions of an SR Flip-Flop?
a)
It has two inputs: Set (S) and Reset (R).
b)
It can only maintain its state when both inputs are high.
c)
It can enter an indeterminate state if both inputs are high.
d)
It is used primarily for counting purposes in digital circuits.
63.
Which statements about the operation of a JK Flip-Flop are correct?
a)
It can toggle its output state when both inputs are high.
b)
It has two inputs, J and K, that determine the output state.
c)
It maintains its previous state when both inputs are low.
d)
It can only be used in synchronous circuits.
64.
What is a key characteristic of a JK Flip-Flop compared to an SR Flip-Flop?
a)
It can toggle its state based on inputs.
b)
It has only one input for setting the state.
c)
It can enter an indeterminate state.
d)
It has both Set and Reset inputs.
65.
Which of the following statements accurately describes the operation of De Morgan's Laws in Boolean algebra?
a)
They allow the transformation of AND operations into OR operations by negating inputs and outputs.
b)
They are used to create truth tables for flip-flops.
c)
They can only simplify expressions involving two variables.
d)
They provide a method for converting logic gates into their equivalent forms.
66.
What are the key characteristics of an SR Flip-Flop?
a)
It has two inputs: Set and Reset.
b)
It can toggle its output with both inputs high.
c)
It maintains its state when both inputs are low.
d)
It operates synchronously with a clock signal.
67.
Which of the following correctly describes the operation of an SR Flip-Flop?
a)
It has two inputs: Set (S) and Reset (R).
b)
It can toggle its state based on J and K inputs.
c)
It maintains its previous state when both inputs are low.
d)
It requires a clock signal to operate correctly.
68.
What are the primary characteristics of a JK Flip-Flop compared to an SR Flip-Flop?
a)
It can toggle its state based on the inputs.
b)
It has asynchronous inputs that can lead to an indeterminate state.
c)
It requires a clock signal to operate.
d)
It has only one input for setting the state.
69.

What is Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) primarily used for?

a)

Increasing the speed of data transmission

b)

Ensuring secure communication by distributing encryption keys

c)

Generating random numbers for lottery systems

d)

Enhancing the graphical quality of video games

70.

Which principle of quantum mechanics is Quantum Key Distribution based on?

a)

Newton's laws of motion

b)

The uncertainty principle

c)

Quantum entanglement

d)

The theory of relativity

71.

In Quantum Key Generation, what role does the observer effect play?

a)

It has no role in quantum key generation

b)

It ensures that any attempt to eavesdrop on the key generation process will alter the key, thus alerting the communicating parties

c)

It increases the speed of key generation

d)

It decreases the security of the generated keys

72.

What is the main advantage of using Quantum Key Distribution over traditional key distribution methods?

a)

It is cheaper to implement

b)

It can distribute keys at a faster rate

c)

It provides unconditional security based on the laws of quantum physics

d)

It uses less energy

73.

What happens if an eavesdropper tries to intercept a quantum key distribution process?

a)

The eavesdropper can easily copy the key without being detected

b)

The key is automatically encrypted, making it useless to the eavesdropper

c)

The presence of the eavesdropper changes the state of the qubits, alerting the communicating parties

d)

The eavesdropper is granted access to the communication channel

74.

Which of these are correct advantages of quantum cryptography?

a)

Instantaneous communication across vast distances

b)

Immediate detection of eavesdropping

c)

Longer keys can be exchanged

d)

Works in any environment, even with high interference

75.

Which of these are correct disadvantages of quantum crytography?

a)

Quantum key exchange only works with quantum computers

b)

Keys can only be sent over a limited range

c)

Requires a dedicated fibre

d)

High cost of implementation

e)

Quantum key exchange is completely impractical for real-world use

76.

Polarised light

a)

Can change direction if the distances are large

b)

Never changes direction

c)

Requires filters to send and receive

d)

Is composed of photons

77.

Quantum key distribution is used to

a)

Send symmetrical keys

b)

Send assymetric keys

78.

What is the purpose of encryption?

a)

To convert plaintext into ciphertext for security

b)

To convert binary code into text

c)

To execute secure programs

d)

To compress files for faster transfer

79.

Which of the following best describes symmetric key encryption?

a)

The same key is used for both encryption and decryption

b)

A public key encrypts and a private key decrypts

c)

Different keys are used for encryption and decryption

d)

No key is required for decryption

80.

Which encryption method uses two keys: one for encryption and one for decryption?

a)

Asymmetric encryption

b)

Symmetric encryption

c)

Hashing

d)

Digital certificates

81.

Which of the following is a key advantage of asymmetric encryption?

a)

It allows secure communication without sharing a secret key

b)

It encrypts data faster than symmetric encryption

c)

It does not require a public key

d)

It does not require decryption

82.

In asymmetric encryption, what does a sender use to encrypt a private message to a recipient?

a)

The recipient’s public key

b)

The sender’s private key

c)

The recipient’s private key

d)

A symmetric key

83.

What is the main disadvantage of symmetric key encryption?

a)

The key must be securely shared between sender and recipient

b)

It requires a long key length to be effective

c)

It cannot encrypt large amounts of data

d)

It does not work with digital certificates

84.

Which of the following statements about a public key is true?

a)

It is shared openly and used for encryption

b)

It must be kept secret and used for decryption

c)

It is only used in symmetric encryption

d)

It is used to decrypt messages

85.

What is the purpose of quantum cryptography?

a)

To provide unbreakable encryption using quantum principles

b)

To speed up traditional encryption methods

c)

To replace SSL/TLS protocols

d)

To reduce key size in symmetric encryption

86.

Which of the following is a benefit of quantum cryptography?

a)

It is theoretically immune to decryption by conventional computers

b)

It requires less processing power than traditional encryption

c)

It eliminates the need for public and private keys

d)

It works without any physical hardware

87.

What is a major drawback of quantum cryptography?

a)

It requires specialized quantum hardware

b)

It cannot be used over long distances

c)

It does not support asymmetric encryption

d)

It is less secure than traditional encryption

88.

Which protocol ensures secure communication between a web browser and a server?

a)

SSL/TLS

b)

HTTP

c)

FTP

d)

IP

89.

What is the main function of TLS (Transport Layer Security)?

a)

To provide encryption and authentication for network communications

b)

To establish an unencrypted connection between two devices

c)

To convert plaintext into ASCII characters

d)

To optimize data transfer speeds

90.

Which of the following situations would require the use of SSL/TLS?

a)

Online banking transactions

b)

File storage on a local hard drive

c)

Viewing a non-secure website

d)

Running a program on an offline computer

91.

What is a digital certificate used for?

a)

To verify the identity of a website or entity

b)

To encrypt all internet traffic

c)

To compress data for transmission

d)

To convert ciphertext into plaintext

92.

Who issues digital certificates?

a)

Certificate Authorities (CAs)

b)

Internet Service Providers (ISPs)

c)

Web browsers

d)

Operating systems

93.

How does a digital certificate help in secure communication?

a)

It ensures that a public key belongs to a verified entity

b)

It replaces the need for encryption

c)

It eliminates the need for passwords

d)

It encrypts the entire internet

94.

Which component is included in a digital certificate?

a)

The public key of the entity it belongs to

b)

The private key of the entity it belongs to

c)

A symmetric key for encryption

d)

The entire SSL/TLS protocol

95.

What is a digital signature?

a)

A cryptographic method for verifying authenticity

b)

A physical signature scanned into a computer

c)

A public key used for encryption

d)

A password for accessing encrypted files

96.

What does hashing do in encryption?

a)

It converts data into a fixed-size unique value

b)

It encrypts data using a private key

c)

It enables direct decryption of ciphertext

d)

It replaces encryption entirely

97.

Which of the following best describes how digital signatures ensure integrity?

a)

They use cryptographic hashing to detect changes in a message

b)

They encrypt the entire document using a private key

c)

They store private keys securely in a certificate

d)

They replace the need for SSL/TLS

98.

Which file access method stores data in a specific, logical order, allowing for efficient searching and sorting?

a)

Sequential access

b)

Serial access

c)

Direct access

d)

None of the above

99.

A bank has 3 databases. Match the organisation types with the file descriptions

a)

A file containing encrypted PIN numbers used for cash machine withdrwals

1.

Random Organisation

b)

A file containing name account numbers for each customer

2.

Sequential Organisation

c)

A file containing transactions for each customer.

3.

Serial Organisation

100.

Which of these are true about the serial access method?

a)

uses hashing algorithm

b)

data is stored in chronological order

c)

collisions can occur

d)

least efficient for a very large number of records

e)

most efficient for a very large number of records

101.

What are advantages of serial file organisation?

a)

No need to re sort every time a new record is added

b)

Records can be searched and found quickly

c)

New records can easily be appended

d)

It uses storage efficiently

e)

Reuires minimal processing power

102.

What is a disadvantage of using sequential access for large databases?

a)

It is difficult to maintain data integrity

b)

It requires more storage space

c)

It can be slow to retrieve specific records

d)

None of the above

103.

Which type of file organisation uses a temporary file when adding new records?

a)

serial

b)

sequential

c)

direct

104.

Which user defiined data type best describes a data structure consisting of several fields.

a)

Pointers

b)

Sets

c)

Enumerated

d)

Classes and Objects

e)

Record

105.

Whichof these data types can be used in a record data type?

a)

integer

b)

string

c)

array

d)

boolean

e)

real

106.

Which user defiined data type best describes a list of unordered items from which one or more items may be chosen?

a)

Pointers

b)

Sets

c)

Enumerated

d)

Classes and Objects

e)

Record

107.

Which user-defined data type best describes a list of ordered items from which one or more items may be chosen?

a)

Pointers

b)

Sets

c)

Enumerated

d)

Classes and Objects

e)

Record

108.

Which user-defined data type is referenced using a ^ (caret) symbol?

a)

Pointers

b)

Sets

c)

Enumerated

d)

Classes and Objects

e)

Record

109.

Which user-defined data type(s) has states and behaviours?

a)

Pointers

b)

Sets

c)

Enumerated

d)

Classes and Objects

e)

Record

110.

Which of these are primitive data types?

a)

integer

b)

set

c)

string

d)

class

e)

real

111.

Which of these is the correct way to declare an enumerated data type that consists of the 4 suites used in a set of playing cards?

a)

DECLARE TCardSuits = (Clubs, Diamonds, Hearts, Spades)

b)

DEFINE TCardSuits = (Clubs, Diamonds, Hearts, Spades)

c)

TYPE TCardSuits = (Clubs, Diamonds, Hearts, Spades)

d)

TCardSuits = (Clubs, Diamonds, Hearts, Spades)

112.

Which of these pseudocodes could be used to define an enumerated data type for days of the week?

a)

b)

c)

d)

113.

Using Dijkstra Algorithm, that is the shortest path of C?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

E

d)

D

114.

Select all correct applications of a shortest-path algorithm

a)

Navigation

b)

NPC control in gaming

c)

Sending data packets

d)

Buying Crypto

e)

Targeted advertising

115.

Optimisation algorithms are designed to find the (a)   path from a start node to any other node

116.

Starting at node S, what is the minimum cost to reach node G?

a)

S-A-B-F-G

b)

S-A-B-C-G

c)

S-A-B-C-H-G

d)

S-A-B-C-E-H-G

117.

Starting at node S, what is the value of the shortest path to node G?

(a)  

118.

Consider the directed graph shown in the figure below. There are multiple shortest paths between vertices S and T. Which one will be reported by Dijstra?s shortest path algorithm? Assume that, in any iteration, the shortest path to a vertex v is updated only when a strictly shorter path to v is discovered.

a)

SDT

b)

SBDT

c)

SACDT

d)

SACET

119.

Dijkstra’s single source shortest path algorithm when run from vertex a in the below graph, computes the correct shortest path distance to

a)

only vertex a

b)

only vertices a,e,f,g,h

c)

only vertices a,b,c,d

d)

all the vertices

120.

The A* algorithm requires a (a)   , which is the maximum estimate of the distance between two points.

121.

Assume that the numbers in orange are the heuristic values. What is the total cost of getting from a to c?

(a)  

122.

What is the Dijkstra's algorithm cost for traveling from A to C

(a)  

123.

How do you spell this guy's surname (no Googling!)

(a)  

124.

2. Regarding neural networks: the job of which of the ______ layer is to acquire data and feed it to the neural network?

a)

Input

b)

Hidden

c)

Output

d)

Last

125.

5. What kind of datasets are primarily used by neural networks for solving problems?

a)

Mentioned

b)

Visual

c)

Continuous

d)

Large

126.

7. In machine learning classification, you teach the machine to perform with what kind of data?

a)

Labelled

b)

Large

c)

Complex

d)

Continuous

127.

8. In neural networks, which layer is present in between input and output layers?

a)

Middle

b)

Next

c)

Process

d)

Hidden

128.

13. Which one of the following is the full form of ANN?

a)

Absolute Neural Network

b)

Amplified Neural Network

c)

Artificial Neural Network

d)

None of these

129.

15. In neural networks, which layer receives processed data by the hidden layers?

a)

Input layer

b)

Output layer

c)

Next layer

d)

Process layer

130.

Which of these are advantages of quantum cryptography?

a)

data cannot be intercepted

b)

data can be sent further

c)

the key cannot be copied

d)

denial of service attacks are less likely

e)

longer keys can be used

131.

Which of these are disadvantages of quantum cryptography?

a)

can be attacked using other quantum computers

b)

It is an expensive method

c)

 It can be affected by electromagnetic interference.

d)

It is difficutl to maintain quantum computers

e)

It can only send data over short distances

132.

Quantum Cryptography uses

a)

dilithium crystals

b)

polarised light

c)

lasers

d)

radioactive isotopes

133.

Which of these is an example of a non-composite data type?

a)

Enumeration

b)

Set

c)

Class

d)

Record

134.

Which of the following are advantages of sequential file organization and access?

a)

Sorting makes it easy to access records.

b)

Sequential file is best use of storage space.

c)

Sequential file is a time consuming process.

d)

It supports modern technologies that require fast access to stored records.

135.

A disk device in which a computer can go directly to the desired record on the disk is called a(n) __________.

a)

sequential file access

b)

index-sequential file access

c)

direct-access storage

d)

indirect-access storage

136.

Given the inputs [4322, 1334, 1471, 9679, 1989, 6171, 6173, 4199] and the hash function x mod 10, which of the following statements are true? (Choose all that apply.)

a)

9679, 1989, 4199 hash to the same value

b)

1471, 6171 hash to the same value

c)

All elements hash to the same value

d)

Each element hashes to a different value

137.

0.3125 × 2120.3125\ \times\ 2^{12}  

What would be the mantissa and exponent of this number when stored in binary floating point representation?

a)

Mantissa: 0.0101000
Exponent: 00000011

b)

Mantissa: 0.1001000
Exponent: 00001010

c)

Mantissa: 0.0101000
Exponent: 00001100

d)

Mantissa: 0.1010000
Exponent: 00001100

138.

To improve the accuracy of a floating-point number stored in memory, you should...

a)

Add more bits for Mantissa

b)

Reduce bits for Mantissa

c)

Add more bits for Exponent

d)

Reduce bits for Exponent

139.

To improve the range of a floating-point number stored in memory, you should...

a)

Add more bits for Mantissa

b)

Reduce bits for Mantissa

c)

Add more bits for Exponent

d)

Reduce bits for Exponent

140.

Look at the attached image. What is the denary (decimal) value of the binary floating-point number shown?

a)

1332×2−4\frac{13}{32}\times2^{-4}

b)

−1732×2252-\frac{17}{32}\times2^{252}

c)

1732×2−3\frac{17}{32}\times2^{-3}

d)

−1332×2−4-\frac{13}{32}\times2^{-4}

141.

Are the numbers 12×22\frac{1}{2}\times2^2 and 132×26\frac{1}{32}\times2^6 the same?

a)

Their value is the same, but they are represented differently in a computer

b)

Their value is the same, and they are represented the same way in a computer

c)

Their value is not the same, but they are represented the same way in a computer

d)

Not enough information given

142.

Which of these is NOT the name of a TCP/IP protocol layer?

a)
Transport Layer
b)

Internet (Network) Layer

c)
Application Layer
d)

Network Configuration Layer

143.

Which of these are Application-level protocols?

a)
HTTP
b)
IP
c)
TCP
d)
SMTP
e)
FTP
144.
What type of certificate is used for HTTPS?
a)
SSL
b)
FTP
c)
TCP
d)
DNS
145.

Which of the following is true about the CSMA/CD algorithm?

a)

The algorithm never allows collisions to occur.

b)

Collisions can happen, but the algorithm defines how the computers should notice a collision and how to recover.

c)

The algorithm works with only two devices on the same Ethernet.

d)

None of the other answers is correct.

146.

Ethernet uses the ________ address to make sure messages are received by the correct device.

a)

MAC

b)

IP

c)

Binary

d)

Switch

147.
Which best describes a peer to peer network?
a)
To peers connected together
b)
Devices connected together - without a server
c)
To piers connected together
d)
Two devices connected together - without a client
148.

List all ITEMS a TCP/IP packet switching network packet contains

a)

Source and Destination IP Address

b)

Packet number / sequence

c)

Error detection codes

d)

Payload

e)

The encryption key

149.

What is the purpose of the sequence number in a data packet?

a)

Allows lost packets to be deleted

b)

Checks for errors

c)

Allows the packets to be reassembled in the correct order on receipt

d)

Allows receipt to be acknowledged.

150.
In which switching method can packets be routed around  congestion?
a)

Packet switching

b)

Circuit switching

c)

Public switched networks

d)

Frame switching 

151.
Which switching method offers a a dedicated transmission channel? 
a)

Packet switching

b)

Circuit switching 

c)

Virtual-circuit packet switching

d)

Datagram packet switching

152.

RIP stands for..and using _______ as its metric?

a)

Real Inside protocol, Link state advertisements from neighbors

b)

Routing Information Protocol, Hop Count

c)

Routing Interior Protocol, Pinging the shorts route

d)

Real Information Protocol, the gateway of last resort

153.

Several CISC instructions may be equivalent to a single RISC instruction

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

154.

CISC aims to use as few lines of assembly code as possible, even if more clock cycles are needed as a result.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

155.

RISC aims to improve processing speed by simplifying instructions so that one line takes one clock cycle.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

156.

Pipelining means...

a)

Running the fetch-decode-execute cycle more efficiently

b)

Waiting for a full fetch-decode-execute cycle to complete before starting the next

c)

Fetches the next instruction while the previous instruction is still decoding

d)

CISC processors can run more efficiently

e)

RISC processors can run more efficiently

157.

Parallel processing is...

a)

instructions which are done one after the other to complete a task

b)

instructions which are run concurrently to complete a task

c)

Always possible

d)

Not always possible

158.
A unit which addes together two inputs
a)
Half Adder
b)
Full Adder
159.
A unit which addes two inputs and a carry bit together
a)
Half Adder
b)
Full Adder
160.

What is double negation?

a)

Multiplying by 2

b)

If you reverse something twice you end up back where you started

c)

A negative number

161.

Which law says 'Break the line, change the sign'?

a)

De Morgans

b)

Association

c)

Commutative

d)

Distirbutative

162.

X AND (Y OR Z) =

a)

X OR Y OR X AND Z

b)

X OR Y OR X OR Z

c)

X AND Y OR X OR Z

d)

X AND Y OR X AND Z

163.

What is the following expression an example of?


3 + 4

a)

Infix expression

b)

Postfix expression

c)

Afterfix expression

d)

Between expression

164.

What is the infix equivalent for the following postfix expression?


3 5 6 + *

a)

5 + 6 * 3

b)

5 + (3 * 6)

c)

(5 + 6) * 3

d)

5 (+ 6 * 3)

165.

What data structure can be used with postfix expressions?

a)

Queue

b)

Hash Table

c)

Vector

d)

Stack

166.

What is the postfix equivalent for the following infix expression?


(2/4)*(5-6)

a)

2 4 5 6 / - *

b)

2 4 / 5 6 - *

c)

2 4 / * 5 - 6

d)

2 4 / 5 - 6 *

167.

The prefix form of an infix expression (p + q) – (r * t) is?

a)

a) + pq – *rt

b)

b) – +pqr * t

c)

c) – +pq * rt

d)

d) – + * pqrt

168.

The type of expression in which operator succeeds its operands is?

a)

a) Infix Expression

b)

b) Prefix Expression

c)

c) Postfix Expression

d)

d) Both Prefix and Postfix Expressions

169.

Which of the following translation software translates code line by line during execution?

a)

Interpreter

b)

Compiler

c)

Assembler

d)

Linker

170.

Which translation software converts an entire source code file before execution?

a)

Compiler

b)

Interpreter

c)

Assembler

d)

Loader

171.

What is the first stage in the compilation process?

a)

Lexical Analysis

b)

Syntax Analysis

c)

Code Generation

d)

Optimisation

172.

What is the main purpose of lexical analysis?

a)

Convert source code into tokens

b)

Check for syntax errors

c)

Generate machine code

d)

Execute the program immediately

173.

Which compilation stage checks the structure of the code against grammar rules?

a)

Syntax Analysis

b)

Lexical Analysis

c)

Code Generation

d)

Optimisation

174.

Which component removes unnecessary or redundant code to improve efficiency?

a)

Optimisation

b)

Code Generation

c)

Lexical Analysis

d)

Syntax Analysis

175.

What does a linker do in program translation?

a)

Combines multiple object files into a single executable

b)

Converts assembly code into machine code

c)

Detects syntax errors in code

d)

Optimises the program for faster execution

176.

Which of the following is NOT a role of an interpreter?

a)

Producing an executable file

b)

Running code line by line

c)

Detecting errors at runtime

d)

Allowing immediate execution

177.

What is a key advantage of an interpreter over a compiler?

a)

It allows immediate code execution without waiting for compilation.

b)

It runs programs faster than compiled code.

c)

It produces an executable file.

d)

It optimises code for performance.

178.

Which of the following is a key feature of a compiler?

a)

It translates the entire source code into machine code before execution.

b)

It translates one line at a time.

c)

It detects runtime errors during execution.

d)

It eliminates the need for machine code.

179.

Which notation removes the need for parentheses in mathematical expressions?

a)

Reverse Polish Notation (RPN)

b)

Infix Notation

c)

Prefix Notation

d)

Backus-Naur Form (BNF)

180.

Which statement about Reverse Polish Notation (RPN) is true?

a)

Operands appear before operators.

b)

Operators appear before operands.

c)

It requires parentheses to determine order.

d)

It is less efficient than infix notation.

181.

What is the purpose of Backus-Naur Form (BNF)?

a)

Define the syntax of programming languages.

b)

Convert source code into machine code.

c)

Execute programs line by line.

d)

Provide an alternative to programming languages.

182.

Which of the following statements about syntax diagrams is true?

a)

They visually represent the grammar of a language.

b)

They execute programs using flowcharts.

c)

They translate code into machine language.

d)

They detect logic errors in source code.

183.

What is the primary role of an assembler?

a)

Convert assembly language into machine code.

b)

Translate high-level code into intermediate code.

c)

Execute code directly without translation.

d)

Optimise compiled programs.

184.

Which of the following best describes an advantage of Reverse Polish Notation (RPN)?

a)

It eliminates the need for parentheses.

b)

It simplifies the source code syntax.

c)

It is easier for humans to understand.

d)

It speeds up the compilation process.

185.

Which error would be detected during lexical analysis?

a)

An invalid variable name

b)

A missing semicolon

c)

A division by zero

d)

A logical mistake in an algorithm

186.

Which error would be detected during syntax analysis?

a)

A missing parenthesis in an expression

b)

A variable being used before declaration

c)

An infinite loop in the program

d)

An unused variable in the code

187.

Which error would be detected only during program execution?

a)

Runtime Error

b)

Syntax Error

c)

Lexical Error

d)

Compilation Error

188.

What is the key benefit of using BNF in programming language design?

a)

It provides a formal way to define language syntax.

b)

It improves program execution speed.

c)

It converts high-level code into assembly language.

d)

It replaces the need for interpreters and compilers.

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