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Worksheets

اختبارات مادة التوجيه والتبديل

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What character is used to enable the filtering of commands?

a)

pipe

b)

comma

c)

colon

d)

semi colon

2.

What advantage does SSH offer over Telnet?

a)

connection-oriented services

b)

more connection lines

c)

encryption

d)

username and password authentication

3.

What is the first action in the boot sequence when a switch is powered on?

a)

load a power-on self-test program

b)

low-level CPU initialization

c)

load boot loader software

d)

load the default Cisco IOS software

4.

Which action can change the state of the line protocol to up?

a)

Connect a host to an interface associated with VLAN 99.

b)

Configure a default gateway.

c)

Configure a transport input method on the vty lines.

d)

Remove all access ports from VLAN 99.

5.

What must an administrator have in order to reset a lost password on a router?

a)

a TFTP server

b)

a crossover cable

c)

access to another router

d)

physical access to the router

6.

Which filtering expression will show all output lines starting from the line matching the filtering expression?

a)

Section

b)

Begin

c)

Include

d)

exclude

7.

What does the term 'port density' represent for an Ethernet switch?

a)

the number of available ports

b)

the speed of each port

c)

the memory space that is allocated to each switch port

d)

the numbers of hosts that are connected to each switch port

8.

Which device separates broadcast domains?

a)

access point

b)

hub

c)

router

d)

switch

9.

Which port speed will be autonegotiated between a host with a 1 Gbps NIC connecting to a Cisco Catalyst 2960 switch with a 100 Mbps port?

a)

10 Mbps

b)

100 Mbps

c)

1 Gbps

d)

10 Gbps

10.

Which two statements are true about half-duplex and full-duplex communications? (Choose two.)

a)

Half duplex has only one channel.

b)

Full duplex increases the effective bandwidth.

c)

All modern NICs support both half-duplex and full-duplex communication.

d)

Full duplex offers 100 percent potential use of the bandwidth.

e)

Full duplex allows both ends to transmit and receive simultaneously.

11.

What is the purpose of frame buffers on a switch?

a)

They provide temporary storage of the frame checksum.

b)

They execute checksum values before transmission.

c)

They hold traffic, thus alleviating network congestion.

d)

They provide a basic security scan on received frames.

12.

What type of Ethernet cable would be used to connect one switch to another switch when neither switch supports the auto-MDIX feature?

a)

auto-MDIX

b)

straight-through

c)

rollover

d)

coaxial

e)

crossover

13.

What is one function of a Layer 2 switch?

a)

learns the port assigned to a host by examining the destination MAC address

b)

determines which interface is used to forward a frame based on the destination MAC address

c)

duplicates the electrical signal of each frame to every port

d)

forwards data based on logical addressing

14.

An IPv6-enabled interface is required to have which type of address?

a)

Loopback

b)

Global unicast

c)

link-local

d)

static

15.

Which command will display a summary of all IPv6-enabled interfaces on a router that includes the IPv6 address and operational status?

a)

show ip interface brief

b)

show ipv6 route

c)

show running-config interface

d)

show ipv6 interface brief

16.

Which type of address does a switch use to build the MAC address table?

a)

source MAC address

b)

destination MAC address

c)

destination IP address

d)

source IP address

17.

Which network device can be used to eliminate collisions on an Ethernet network?

a)

Router

b)

Hub

c)

Firewall

d)

Switch

18.

Which statement is true about broadcast and collision domains?

a)

Adding a router to a network will increase the size of the collision domain.

b)

The size of the collision domain can be reduced by adding hubs to a network.

c)

Adding a switch to a network will increase the size of the broadcast domain.

d)

The more interfaces a router has the larger the resulting broadcast domain.

19.

Which command will display packet flow counts, collisions, and buffer failures on an interface?

a)

show interface

b)

show ip interface

c)

show running-config interface

d)

show startup-config interface

20.

Which switching method makes use of the FCS value?

a)

cut-through

b)

large frame buffer

c)

store-and-forward

d)

broadcast

21.

What will a Cisco LAN switch do if it receives an incoming frame and the destination MAC address is not listed in the MAC address table?

a)

Use ARP to resolve the port that is related to the frame.

b)

Send the frame to the default gateway address

c)

Drop the frame.

d)

Forward the frame out all ports except the port where the frame is received

22.

Which statement describes the system LED operation on Cisco Catalyst switches?

4 lines
23.

Which switch characteristic helps alleviate network congestion when a 10 Gbps port is forwarding data to a 1 Gbps port?

a)

high port density

b)

fast port speed

c)

fast internal switching

d)

frame buffering

24.

Which two special characteristics do LAN switches use to alleviate network congestion? (Choose two.)

a)

fast port speeds

b)

fast internal switching

c)

low port densities

d)

small frame buffers

25.

Which information does a switch use to keep the MAC address table information current?

a)

the destination MAC address and the outgoing port

b)

the source MAC address and the incoming port

c)

the source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port

d)

the source MAC address and the outgoing port

e)

the destination MAC address and the incoming port

26.

When configuring a switch for SSH access, what other command that is associated with the login local command is required to be entered on the switch?

a)

enable secret password

b)

login block-for seconds attempts number within seconds

c)

username username secret secret

d)

password password

27.

What is the significant difference between a hub and a Layer 2 LAN switch?

a)

A switch creates many smaller collision domains, and a hub increases the size of a single collision domain.

b)

A hub divides collision domains, and a switch divides broadcast domains.

c)

Each port of a hub is a collision domain, and each port of a switch is a broadcast domain.

d)

A hub forwards frames, and a switch forwards only packets.

28.

Which router bootup sequence is correct?

a)

- perform the POST and load the startup configuration file

b)

- locate and load the Cisco IOS software

c)

- locate and load the startup configuration file or enter setup mode

d)

1 - perform the POST and load the bootstrap program

e)

- locate and load the bootstrap program

29.

Without STP on the Ethernet LAN, which two types of frames could cause a catastrophic loop in the network? (Choose two.)

a)

Unicast

b)

Unknown unicast

c)

Fullduplex cast

d)

Broadcast

30.

When EtherChannel is implemented, multiple physical interfaces are bundled into which type of logical connection?

a)

port channel

b)

VLAN interface

c)

interface range

d)

loopback

31.

What value determines the root bridge when all switches connected by trunk links have default STP configurations?

a)

MAC address

b)

bridge priority

c)

STP

d)

extended system ID

e)

VLAN ID

32.

The root bridge will be the switch with the:

a)

Lowest bridge ID

b)

Highest bridge ID

c)

Lowest port priority

d)

Highest port priority

33.

Which technology solves the problem of a device being unable to get an IPv4 address from a DHCP server due to STP forwarding delay timers?

a)

PortFast

b)

BPDU guard

c)

PVST

d)

MSTP

34.

By default (without any configuration on a switch), what will determine which switch is the root bridge?

a)

The bridge priority

b)

The extended system ID

c)

The MAC address of the switch

d)

The bridge ID

35.

Which statement describes STP?

a)

STP is a Layer 2 routing protocol.

b)

STP is a Layer 3 routing protocol for Ethernet LANs.

c)

STP is a Layer 2 loop prevention protocol for Ethernet LANs.

d)

STP is a Layer 3 loop prevention protocol for IP networks.

36.

During the implementation of Spanning Tree Protocol, all switches are rebooted by the network administrator. What is the first step of the spanningtree election process?

a)

Each switch with a lower root ID than its neighbor will not send BPDUs.

b)

Each switch determines the best path to forward traffic.

c)

Each switch determines what port to block to prevent a loop from occurring.

d)

All the switches send out BPDUs advertising themselves as the root bridge.

37.

After the election of the root bridge has been completed, how will switches find the best paths to the root bridge?

a)

Each switch will analyze the BID of all neighbors to reach the root and use the path through the lowest BID neighbors.

b)

Each switch will analyze the port states of all neighbors and use the designated ports to forward traffic to the root.

c)

Each switch will analyze the sum of all port costs to reach the root and use the path with the lowest cost.

d)

Each switch will analyze the sum of the hops to reach the root and use the path with the fewest hops.

38.

An administrator is troubleshooting a switch and wants to verify if it is a root bridge. What command can be used to do this?

a)

show running-config

b)

show startup-config

c)

show spanning-tree

d)

show vlan

39.

How often does a switch send a BPDU?

(a)  

40.

How often does a switch send a BPDU?

a)

Every 2 seconds

b)

Every 15 seconds

c)

Every 20 seconds

d)

Only when there is a change in the topology

41.

Which protocol was designed to bring faster convergence to STP?

a)

PortFast

b)

RSTP

c)

PVST

d)

MSTP

42.

An EtherChannel link using LACP was formed between two switches, S1 and S2. While verifying the configuration, which mode combination could be utilized on both switches?

a)

S1-on and S2-active

b)

S1-on and S2-passive

c)

S1-passive and S2-passive

d)

S1-passive and S2-active

43.

Which three STP port states are merged into the RSTP discarding port state? (Choose three.)

a)

Disabled

b)

Blocking

c)

Listening

d)

Learning

e)

Forwarding

44.

True or False? FastEthernet and GigabitEthernet links can be combined into a single EtherChannel.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

The sum of individual port costs along the path from the switch to the root bridge is known as the:

a)

Least cost path

b)

Shortest path cost

c)

Best path cost

d)

Root path cost

46.

When PVST is running over a switched network, which port state can participate in BPDU frame forwarding based on BPDUs received, but does not forward data frames?

a)

Listening

b)

Forwarding

c)

Disabled

d)

Blocking

47.

True or False? PAgP and LACP are both Cisco proprietary link aggregation protocols.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel, which mode will configure PAgP so that it initiates the EtherChannel negotiation?

a)

Passive

b)

Desirable

c)

Auto

d)

Active

49.

Which three port states are used by Rapid PVST+? (Choose three.)

a)

Trunking

b)

Learning

c)

Forwarding

d)

Blocking

e)

Discarding

50.

What is the meaning of the number 10 in the encapsulation dot1Q 10 native router subinterface command?

a)

the subnet number

b)

the interface number

c)

the VLAN ID

d)

the subinterface number

51.

You are troubleshooting an inter-VLAN issue on a switch and need to check the list of VLANs and their assigned ports. Which inter-VLAN routing troubleshooting command would you use to do this?

a)

show interfaces

b)

show interfaces interface-id switchport

c)

show ip interface brief

d)

show ip route

e)

show vlan

52.

True or false? DTP is an open standard IEEE protocol that specifies auto negotiation of switch trunk links.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

What happens to a port that is associated with VLAN 10 when the administrator deletes VLAN 10 from the switch?

a)

The port becomes inactive.

b)

The port automatically associates itself with the native VLAN.

c)

The port creates the VLAN again.

d)

The port goes back to the default VLAN.

54.

How is traffic routed between multiple VLANs on a multilayer switch?

a)

Traffic is routed via subinterfaces.

b)

Traffic is routed via internal VLAN interfaces.

c)

Traffic is broadcast out all physical interfaces.

d)

Traffic is routed via physical interfaces.

e)

Traffic is routed via switched virtual interfaces.

55.

True or False? VLANs improve network performance by segmenting broadcast domains.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

What is the default switchport mode for Cisco Catalyst switches?

a)

Access

b)

Trunk

c)

dynamic auto

d)

dynamic desirable

57.

Which scalable method must be implemented in order to provide inter-VLAN routing on a switched network with more than 1000 VLANs?

a)

connecting a router interface to a switch port that is configured in trunk mode to route packets between VLANs, with each VLAN assigned to a router subinterface

b)

connecting each physical router interface to a different physical switch port, with each switch port assigned to a different VLAN

c)

routing traffic internally to a Layer 3 switch device

d)

configuring static routes on a Layer 2 switch device

58.

A Cisco switch currently allows traffic tagged with VLANs 10 and 20 across trunk port Fa0/5. What is the effect of issuing a switchport trunk allowed vlan 30 command on Fa0/5?

a)

It allows VLANs 1 to 30 on Fa0/5.

b)

It allows a native VLAN of 30 to be implemented on Fa0/5.

c)

It allows only VLAN 30 on Fa0/5.

d)

It allows VLANs 10, 20, and 30 on Fa0/5.

59.

In which location are the normal range VLANs stored on a Cisco switch by default?

a)

running-config

b)

startup-config

c)

RAM

d)

flash memory

60.

What is needed to enable communication between these two VLANs while using legacy inter-VLAN routing?

4 lines
61.

True or False? VLANs can improve security by isolating sensitive data from the rest of the network.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

Which type of inter-VLAN communication design requires the configuration of multiple subinterfaces?

a)

routing via a multilayer switch

b)

routing for the management VLAN

c)

router on a stick

d)

legacy inter-VLAN routing

63.

True or false? Two switchports on a link both configured as dynamic auto will successfully negotiate a trunk.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

If an organization is changing to include Cisco IP phones in its network, what design feature must be considered to ensure voice quality?

a)

Voice traffic needs to be tagged with the native VLAN.

b)

A separate VLAN is needed for voice traffic.

c)

Additional switch ports that are dedicated to Cisco IP phones are required.

d)

Voice traffic and data traffic require separate trunk links between switches.

65.

What is a probable cause for this issue?

a)

Switches from other vendors do not support DTP.

b)

Both switches are in trunk mode.

c)

Both switches are in nonegotiate mode.

d)

DTP frames are flooding the entire network.

66.

What is the purpose of this command?

a)

to create a switched virtual interface

b)

to provide a static trunk link

c)

to provide an access link that tags VLAN traffic

d)

to create a routed port for a single network

67.

Which inter-VLAN routing troubleshooting command would you use to do this?

a)

show interfaces

b)

show interfaces interface-id switchport

c)

show ip interface brief

d)

show ip route

e)

show vlan

68.

Where should the IP address be assigned?

a)

to the subinterface

b)

to the VLAN

c)

to the SVI

d)

to the interface

69.

What is required to perform router-on-a-stick interVLAN routing?

a)

a router with multiple physical interfaces

b)

a Layer 2 switch that is configured with multiple trunk ports

c)

a router that is configured with multiple subinterfaces

d)

a multilayer switch

70.

What is a disadvantage of using multilayer switches for inter-VLAN routing?

a)

Spanning tree must be disabled in order to implement routing on a multilayer switch.

b)

Multilayer switches have higher latency for Layer 3 routing.

c)

Multilayer switches are limited to using trunk links for Layer 3 routing.

d)

Multilayer switches are more expensive than router-on-a-stick implementations.

71.

In which memory location are the VLAN configurations of normal range VLANs stored on a Catalyst switch?

a)

ROM

b)

RAM

c)

NVRAM

d)

Flash

72.

What is the purpose of these commands?

a)

to enable the Gi0/1 port as a bridge virtual interface

b)

to make the Gi0/1 port a routed port

c)

to shut down the Gi0/1 port

d)

to enable the Gi0/1 port as a switch virtual interface

73.

Which inter-VLAN routing troubleshooting command would you use to do this?

a)

show interfaces

b)

show interfaces interface-id switchport

c)

show ip interface brief

d)

show ip route

e)

show vlan

74.

What is the purpose of the vlan.dat file on a switch?

a)

It holds the running configuration.

b)

It holds the saved configuration.

c)

It holds the operating system.

d)

It holds the VLAN data base.

75.

What are three primary benefits of using VLANs? (Choose Trunk.)

a)

Security

b)

a reduction in the number of links to PCs.

c)

end user satisfaction

d)

cost reduction

76.

True or False? It is a best practice to configure the native VLAN as VLAN 1.

a)

True

b)

False

77.

True or False? It is a best practice to configure the native VLAN as VLAN 1.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

What operational mode should be used on a switch port to connect it to a router for router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing?

a)

Access

b)

Trunk

c)

dynamic auto

d)

dynamic desirable

79.

What is a disadvantage of using router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing?

a)

does not support VLAN-tagged packets

b)

requires the use of multiple router interfaces configured to operate as access links

c)

requires the use of more physical interfaces than legacy inter-VLAN routing

d)

does not scale well beyond 50 VLANs

80.

What are three primary benefits of using VLANs? (Choose three.)

a)

security

b)

a reduction in the number of links PCs

c)

cost reduction

d)

end user satisfaction

e)

no required configuration

81.

What will happen if a network administrator puts a port that is part of an EtherChannel bundle into a different VLAN than the other ports in that bundle?

a)

The EtherChannel bundle will stay up only if PAgP is used.

b)

The EtherChannel bundle will stay up if either PAgP or LACP is used.

c)

The EtherChannel will fail.

d)

The EtherChannel bundle will stay up only if LACP is used.

82.

What is one way to correct a spanning tree failure?

a)

Replace the cables on failed STP links.

b)

Manually remove redundant links in the switched network.

c)

Replace all instances of STP with RSTP.

d)

Insert redundant links to replace the failed STP links.

83.

Which STP port role is adopted by a switch port if there is no other port with a lower cost to the root bridge?

a)

Alternate

b)

designated port

c)

disabled port

d)

root port

84.

Which two concepts relate to a switch port that is intended to have only end devices attached and intended never to be used to connect to another switch? (Choose two.)

a)

edge port

b)

PortFast

c)

bridge ID

d)

PVST+

e)

extended system ID

85.

What are two advantages of using EtherChannel technology? (Choose two.)

a)

Load balancing is not needed with EtherChannel.

b)

Configuration tasks can be done on the EtherChannel interface.

c)

EtherChannel uses multiple logical links to provide redundancy.

d)

There is no need to upgrade links to faster connections to increase bandwidth.

86.

A PC is to access a web server on another network. Which inter-VLAN method will provide the highest bandwidth at Layer 3 and also provide a default gateway for the PC?

a)

multiple physical interfaces on the router, all connected to a Layer 2 switch

b)

trunked interface between the router and the switch

c)

multilayer switch with routing enabled

d)

router on a stick

87.

Which sentence correctly describes the SVI interVLAN routing method?

a)

A physical interface is needed for every VLAN that is created.

b)

Subinterfaces have to be created.

c)

The encapsulation type must be configured on the SVI.

d)

An SVI is needed for each VLAN.

88.

What are three primary benefits of using VLANs? (Choose 2.)

a)

security

b)

a reduction in the number of trunk links

c)

cost reduction

d)

end user satisfaction

89.

When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel by the use of PAgP, which mode will form the bundled channel only if the port receives PAgP packets from another device?

a)

Active

b)

Auto

c)

Desirable

d)

Passive

90.

What device is elected by the Spanning Tree Algorithm? All other switches determine a single least-cost path to this device.

a)

root bridge

b)

dedicated bridge

c)

default gateway

d)

core switch

91.

The port on the segment (with two switches) that has the lowest path cost to the root bridge is the:

a)

Designated port

b)

Blocked port or non-designated port

c)

Root port

d)

Routed Port

92.

What additional information is contained in the 12-bit extended system ID of a BPDU?

a)

MAC address

b)

IP address

c)

port ID

d)

VLAN ID

93.

The port closest to the root bridge in terms of least overall cost (best path) to the root bridge is the:

a)

Designated port

b)

Blocked port or non-designated port

c)

Root port

d)

Routed Port

94.

Which two statements describe a switch port that is configured with PortFast? (Choose two.)

a)

The switch port immediately transitions from the listening to the forwarding state.

b)

The switch port immediately processes any BPDUs before transitioning to the forwarding state.

c)

The switch port should never receive BPDUs.

d)

The switch port immediately transitions from blocking to the forwarding state.

e)

The switch port sends DHCP requests before transitioning to the forwarding state.

95.

Which port state will switch ports immediately transition to when configured for PortFast?

4 lines