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Worksheets

Prashanotri

Total questions: 25

Worksheet time: 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The Anti-Defection Law was introduced through:

a)

44th Amendment Act, 1978

b)

52nd Amendment Act, 1985

c)

61st Amendment Act, 1989

d)

91st Amendment Act, 2003

2.

Which of the following is an advantage of the Anti-Defection Law in India?

a)

It restricts the freedom of legislators to express dissent.

b)

It promotes political instability by encouraging party-switching.

c)

It strengthens political stability by checking frequent defections.

d)

It creates confusion by not recognizing political parties.

3.

Which of the following Articles deals with disqualification from Parliament?

a)

Article 101

b)

Article 190

c)

Article 102

d)

Article 120

4.

Which of the following is not a criticism of the Anti-Defection Law in India?

a)

It curbs the legislator's right to dissent and freedom of conscience.

b)

it clearly puts party bossism on a pedestal and sanctions tyranny of the party

c)

It provides clear guidelines for disqualifying members involved in corruption

d)

It does not make a differentiation between dissent and defection.

5.

A member of a House belonging to any political party becomes disqualified when-

a)

He/she voluntarily gives up the membership of such political party

b)

They vote in line with the party's whip without prior permission

c)

They change party allegiance after the Speaker's approval

d)

They abstain from voting even with prior written consent from the party

6.

According to the Tenth Schedule, who decides disqualification cases under defection?

a)

President of India

b)

Election Commission

c)

Presiding Officer of the respective House

d)

Supreme Court

7.

Disqualification under defection cannot be imposed unless:

a)

A writ is filed in High Court

b)

A complaint is made by a House member

c)

The Election Commission initiates it

d)

The Governor approves it

8.

Which technique used by pressure groups influencing public opinion and thereby gaining an indirect influence over government?

a)

Propagandizing

b)

Lobbying

c)

Electioneering

d)

Petitioning

9.

Which of the following is not a function of pressure groups?

a)

Judicial Administration

b)

Political socialization

c)

Influencing public policy

d)

Formulating public opinion

10.

The Chipko Movement is best categorized as:

a)

Religious Group

b)

Ideology-Based Group

c)

Caste-Based Group

d)

Institutional Group

11.

Which of these is a criticism of pressure groups in India?

a)

Excessive focus on socio-economic demands

b)

Ignoring regional issues

c)

Subservience to narrow religious and caste interests

d)

Focusing only on constitutional means

12.

What role do pressure groups play in judicial administration?

a)

They help judges interpret laws

b)

They lobby judges directly

c)

They seek redressal for grievances via courts

d)

They appoint amicus curiae in court

13.

Assertion(A)- Pressure groups play a leading role in the formulation of public opinion Reason(R)- They try to gain public support and sympathy for their goals and their activity by carrying out information campaigns, organising meetings etc.

a)

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b)

Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c)

A is true but R is false.

d)

A is false but R is true.

14.

Non-Associational Interest Groups primarily base their identity on:

a)

Professional affiliations

b)

Electoral goals

c)

Kinship, ethnicity, caste, or religion

d)

Political ideologies

15.

Which Articles of the Indian Constitution deal with the rights and liabilities of the government?

a)

Articles 270-280

b)

Articles 294-300

c)

Articles 301-310

d)

Articles 280-290

16.

Which case first established the principle of sovereign immunity in India?

a)

Kasturi Lal Case

b)

Common Cause Case

c)

Nagendra Rao Case

d)

P & O Steam Navigation Company Case

17.

The Kasturi Lal case (1964) upheld that:

a)

State must compensate for police negligence

b)

Sovereign immunity applies to police acts

c)

All executive actions are outside court jurisdiction

d)

Right to property is a fundamental right

18.

Civil suits against the President or Governor for personal acts during their tenure require:

a)

Presidential assent

b)

Parliamentary resolution

c)

Two months' prior notice

d)

Supreme Court approval

19.

Judicial Officers enjoy protection under which law?

a)

Judges (Protection) Act, 1950

b)

Judicial Officers Protection Act, 1850

c)

Civil Rights Act, 1964

d)

Judicial Immunity Act, 1947

20.

Which of the following statements regarding the property of the Union and States is NOT correct?

a)

Property without a rightful owner vest in the state if located within its territory.

b)

Mineral wealth beneath the continental shelf of India vests in the respective coastal state.

c)

Property of princely states before the Constitution came into force vested in the Union or concerned state.

d)

The Union or State can acquire private property through compulsory acquisition under legislative authority.

21.

The Multi-State Co-operative Societies (Amendment) Bill, 2023 aimed at:

a)

Repealing Part IX-B

b)

Establishing a national apex cooperative tribunal

c)

Implementing 97th Amendment provisions to improve governance

d)

Banning credit co-operatives

22.

Which of the following is not a feature of co-operative societies?

a)

Voluntary membership

b)

Profit maximization for investors

c)

Democratic control

d)

Community orientation

23.

Which of the following co-operatives facilitates affordable loans to members in rural and semi-urban areas?

a)

Credit co-operative

b)

Consumer co-operative

c)

Dairy co-operative

d)

Worker co-operative

24.

Under which Article was the right to form co-operative societies recognized as a fundamental right?

a)

Article 14

b)

Article 19(1)(c)

c)

Article 21A

d)

Article 43B

25.

What is the primary criticism of co-operative governance that led to the 97th Amendment?

a)

Excessive privatization

b)

Lack of democratic elections and professional management

c)

Poor foreign investment

d)

Redundancy with municipal bodies