Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Congenital Heart Defects Assessment

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A newborn is diagnosed with Tetralogy of Fallot. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect?

a)

bounding peripheral pulses

b)

cyanosis during crying and feeding

c)

widened pulse pressure

d)

frequent upper respiratory infections

2.

Which congenital heart defect results in increased pulmonary blood flow?

a)

Tetralogy of fallot

b)

tricuspid atresia

c)

Ventricular septal defect

d)

coarctation of the aorta

3.

The nurse assesses a newborn with a suspected patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). What sign supports this diagnosis?

a)

systolic murmur at the apex

b)

harch machine like murmur

c)

weak femoral pulses

d)

cyanosis that improves with crying

4.

Which medication may be ordered to keep the ductus arteriosus open in some congenital heart defects?

a)

indomethacin

b)

ibuprofen

c)

Prostaglandin E

d)

digoxin

5.

In a newborn with a ventricular septal defect (VSD), how does blood typically flow?

a)

right atrium to left atrium

b)

Left ventricle to right ventricle

c)

Right ventricle to left ventricle

d)

Right ventricle to aorta

6.

Which congenital heart defect causes a right-to-left shunt, leading to cyanosis?

a)

ASD

b)

PDA

c)

total anomalous pulmonary venous connection

d)

coarctation of the aorta

7.

In transposition of the great arteries (TGA), what is the primary problem with blood flow?

a)

Mixed blood returns to the left atrium

b)

Oxygenated and deoxygenated need to mix for survival

c)

Blood shunts from the left to right atrium

d)

Right-to-left shunting increases systemic oxygenation

8.

In truncus arteriosus, how does blood flow?

a)

Oxygenated blood goes directly to the body

b)

There is no pulmonary blood flow

c)

One large vessel sends mixed blood to lungs and body

d)

Only deoxygenated blood enters the systemic circulation

9.

A neonate with hypoplastic left heart syndrome (HLHS) relies on what for systemic blood flow?

a)

ASD

b)

right to left shunt through VSD

c)

PDA

d)

coarctation of the aorta

10.

Which statement best describes the blood flow in an atrioventricular (AV) canal defect?

a)

There is complete obstruction of blood to the lungs

b)

Deoxygenated blood enters the left atrium

c)

Oxygenated and deoxygenated blood mix in the heart chambers

d)

Blood bypasses the pulmonary artery

11.

In total anomalous pulmonary venous return (TAPVR), what abnormality occurs?

a)

Pulmonary veins drain into the left atrium

b)

Oxygenated blood returns to systemic circulation

c)

Pulmonary veins connect to the right atrium

d)

Blood bypasses the lungs completely

12.

Which change in blood flow would you expect with coarctation of the aorta?

a)

Increased blood flow to the lower extremities

b)

Blood backing up into the pulmonary artery

c)

Decreased perfusion to the lower body

d)

Right-to-left shunt between atria

13.

The nurse provides home care instructions to the parents of a child with heart failure regarding the procedure for administration of digoxin. Which statement made by the parent indicates the need for further instruction?

a)

I will can mix the medication with food

b)

if more than one dose is missed, I will call the pediatrician

c)

I will take my child's pulse before administering the medication

d)

if my child vomits after medication administration, I will repeat the dose

14.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to parents of a newborn with Tricuspid Atresia. What instruction is most important to prevent complications during "tet spells"?

a)

Offer feedings more frequently

b)

Keep baby swaddled at all times

c)

Place baby in a knee-chest position during spells

d)

Administer acetaminophen for pain

15.

The nurse is reviewing fetal circulation with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates a correct understanding of blood flow in a fetus?

a)

“Deoxygenated blood enters the fetal heart through the inferior vena cava.”

b)

“The foramen ovale allows blood to bypass the liver and enter the right atrium.”

c)

“The ductus venosus connects the aorta to the pulmonary vein.”

d)

“The foramen ovale allows blood to flow from the right atrium to the left atrium.”

16.

A child diagnosed with Kawasaki disease is in the acute phase. Which intervention is the priority?

a)

Monitor for signs of heart failure

b)

Apply warm compresses to the joints

c)

Provide quiet activities and distraction

d)

Administer high-dose IV immunoglobulin (IVIG) and aspirin

17.

A school-age child presents with a recent history of strep throat and is now showing signs of polyarthritis and a new murmur. What condition does the nurse suspect?

a)

Endocarditis

b)

Kawasaki disease

c)

Acute glomerulonephritis

d)

Rheumatic fever

18.

Which medication is typically prescribed for long-term prophylaxis after a diagnosis of rheumatic fever?

a)

Oral prednisone

b)

Daily aspirin

c)

Monthly penicillin injections

d)

IVIG once per year

19.

The nurse is teaching a parent about infective endocarditis prevention in a child with a history of congenital heart defect repair. What instruction is correct?

a)

“Antibiotics are only needed if your child develops a fever.”

b)

“Your child should take antibiotics before dental procedures.”

c)

“A flu shot will prevent endocarditis.”

d)

“Avoid giving aspirin to your child.”

20.

A teenager is diagnosed with primary hypertension. Which lifestyle change should the nurse prioritize teaching?

a)

Increase daily sodium intake

b)

Limit physical activity to prevent fatigue

c)

Avoid caffeinated drinks

d)

Reduce intake of processed foods and encourage exercise

21.

Which of the following signs is most specific to subacute phase Kawasaki disease?

a)

High fever

b)

Strawberry tongue

c)

Peeling skin on the hands and feet

d)

Redness of the eyes

22.

Which symptom suggests advanced infective endocarditis?

a)

Pink, non-pruritic rash

b)

Splinter hemorrhages under the nails

c)

Pallor and swollen lymph nodes

d)

Dry cough and weight gain

23.

The nurse is caring for a child receiving chemotherapy. Which finding is most concerning?

a)

loss of appetite

b)

Oral ulcers

c)

Mild alopecia

d)

Rectal temperature of 100.4°F

24.

A child is diagnosed with Wilms tumor. What is the priority nursing action during physical assessment?

a)

Palpate the abdomen gently for mass size

b)

Measure abdominal girth daily

c)

Avoid palpating the abdomen

d)

Monitor for signs of constipation

25.

A 3-year-old undergoing chemotherapy develops thrombocytopenia. Which safety precaution is most important?

a)

Use an N95 mask when visiting

b)

Encourage fluid intake

c)

Use a soft toothbrush and avoid IM injections

d)

Monitor blood pressure every hour

26.

A child receiving chemotherapy is neutropenic. Which intervention is the nurse’s priority?

a)

Encourage the child to play in the unit playroom

b)

Provide a high-fiber diet to prevent constipation

c)

Place the child in protective isolation and monitor for fever

d)

Administer antiemetics before meals

27.

Which finding indicates a serious complication of chemotherapy in a child?

a)

Mild hair loss

b)

Persistent nausea

c)

Oral mucositis

d)

Bleeding gums and petechiae

28.

The nurse is caring for a child undergoing chemotherapy who reports nausea. What is the best nursing action?

a)

Offer small snacks with high-fat content

b)

Administer prescribed ondansetron before chemotherapy

c)

Encourage the child to lie flat after eating

d)

Offer spicy foods to stimulate appetite

29.

A nurse is discharging a pediatric oncology patient. Which parent teaching point about infection prevention is most important?

a)

“You can take your child to crowded places if they wear a mask.”

b)

“Let your child play outdoors frequently to build strength.”

c)

“Check your child’s temperature daily and report a fever immediately.”

d)

“Avoid letting your child nap during the day so they sleep better at night.”

30.

A child is receiving external beam radiation therapy for a brain tumor. Which nursing instruction to the parents is most appropriate?

a)

"Apply lotion and creams freely to the marked skin area to reduce dryness."

b)

"Do not wash off the marks placed on the skin for radiation targeting."

c)

"Your child can expose the treated area to sunlight for brief periods."

d)

"Use ice packs on the site if the skin becomes red or sore."

31.

The nurse provides a teaching session to the nursing staff regarding osteosarcoma. Which statement by a member of the nursing staff indicates a need for further instruction?

a)

the femur is the most common site of this sarcoma

b)

the child does not experience pain in the primary tumor site

c)

limping, if a weight-bearing limb is affected, is a clinical manefestation

d)

the symptoms in this disease in the early stage are almost always attributed to normal growing pains

32.

A child undergoing chemotherapy is at risk for acute tumor lysis syndrome. Which lab finding would the nurse most likely expect?

a)

high potassium, high phosphate, high calcium

b)

High potassium, high uric acid, high phosphate

c)

high sodium, high potassium, high calcium

d)

High sodium, high uric acid, high phosphate

33.

A child with cancer is diagnosed with superior vena cava syndrome. The nurse would assess for which of the following signs?

a)

Headache, facial swelling, and distended neck veins

b)

Nausea, vomiting, and severe abdominal pain

c)

Jaundice, increased bilirubin levels, and dark urine

d)

Severe chest pain and shortness of breath

34.

A 4-year-old child sustains a full-thickness (third-degree) burn to the lower leg after a house fire. What is the primary concern in the first 24 hours after the burn injury?

a)

Pain control and comfort measures

b)

Infection prevention and wound care

c)

Fluid resuscitation to prevent hypovolemic shock

d)

Nutritional support to promote healing

35.

A nurse is assessing a child with first-degree burns from a sunburn. Which of the following findings would the nurse expect?

a)

Blisters and severe pain at the burn site

b)

Erythema and mild pain without blister formation

c)

non blanchable, dry

d)

Charred tissue and deep tissue damage

36.

A pediatric client is being digitalized with digoxin. The prescribed total digitalizing dose (TDD) is 30 mcg/kg. The child weighs 5 kg. The medication available is digoxin 50mcg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer for the first dose?

a)

0.75ml

b)

1.5ml

c)

3ml

d)

0.15ml

37.

A nurse is providing education to the parents of a child who has a cast applied for a fractured arm. Which of the following statements by the parents indicates the need for further teaching?

a)

“We should elevate the arm above the heart to reduce swelling.”

b)

“We can remove the padding if it becomes wet to prevent infection.”

c)

“We will check the fingers every few hours for signs of circulation problems.”

d)

“We should avoid putting anything inside the cast to scratch the skin.”

38.

A 4-year-old child is in spica cast following a hip fracture. Which of the following is the most important nursing intervention to prevent complications?

a)

Turn the child every 2 hours to maintain skin integrity

b)

Place the child in a prone position for comfort

c)

Ensure the child is on a low-calcium diet to prevent bone complications

d)

Monitor for signs of respiratory distress due to immobility

39.

A nurse is performing a physical examination on a newborn and suspects Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH). Which of the following findings would support this diagnosis?

a)

The infant’s legs are of equal length, and there is no hip click.

b)

The infant’s legs are uneven, with one leg appearing shorter than the other.

c)

The infant has normal muscle tone with no signs of asymmetry.

d)

The infant has bilateral hip clicks when the hips are flexed and abducted.

40.

A nurse is caring for a 6-month-old infant diagnosed with hip dysplasia and prescribed a Pavlik harness. Which of the following interventions is the most important for the nurse to include in the plan of care?

a)

Ensure the infant’s legs remain in abduction while wearing the harness.

b)

Allow the infant to wear the harness only during sleep to prevent skin irritation.

c)

Monitor the infant’s hip for signs of dislocation after the harness is applied.

d)

Apply lotion or powder to the skin under the harness to prevent irritation.

41.

A nurse is educating the parents of a newborn diagnosed with clubfoot. The nurse explains the importance of serial casting. Which of the following statements by the parents indicates a need for further teaching?

a)

"We will ensure the cast is kept clean and dry."

b)

"We should monitor for any skin breakdown or irritation under the cast."

c)

"We will check for swelling of the toes and pain in the foot."

d)

"We should expect to see immediate improvement in the foot's position."

42.

A 5-year-old child with osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) presents with a newly fractured leg. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize?

a)

Encourage the child to ambulate as soon as possible to promote healing.

b)

Apply a rigid cast and avoid handling the child to reduce further injury.

c)

Manage pain and handle the child gently to avoid additional fractures.

d)

Prescribe bed rest to prevent further stress on the bones.

43.

Which of the following children is most at risk for developing Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis?

a)

4-year-old girl with a history of developmental dysplasia of the hip

b)

16-year-old male with low body mass index

c)

12-year-old obese male during a growth spurt

d)

7-year-old girl recovering from a femur fracture

44.

A child is admitted with a diagnosis of Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

a)

Encourage ambulation to prevent stiffness

b)

Apply ice to reduce inflammation

c)

Maintain non-weight-bearing status on the affected limb

d)

Begin range-of-motion exercises immediately

45.

Which assessment finding in a child with nephrotic syndrome should be reported immediately to the healthcare provider?

a)

Periorbital edema in the morning

b)

Proteinuria on urinalysis

c)

Blood pressure 104/66 mmHg

d)

Respiratory rate of 36/min and crackles in lungs

46.

A school-age child is admitted with acute glomerulonephritis. The nurse should expect which most likely history finding?

a)

A recent GI infection

b)

Exposure to nephrotoxic medications

c)

Recent streptococcal throat infection

d)

Family history of diabetes

47.

A newborn is born with bladder exstrophy. Which of the following is the priority nursing intervention immediately after birth?

a)

Apply a dry gauze dressing to the exposed bladder

b)

Cover the bladder with a sterile, non-adherent moist dressing

c)

Begin oral feeding as soon as possible

d)

Place the infant prone to reduce bladder exposure

48.

Which laboratory result is most consistent with HUS?

a)

High platelet count

b)

Normal BUN and creatinine

c)

Low hemoglobin and hematocrit

d)

Low white blood cell count

49.

A child with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is receiving peritoneal dialysis (PD). Which finding should the nurse report to the provider immediately?

a)

Clear, straw-colored dialysate outflow

b)

Complaints of mild abdominal fullness

c)

Cloudy or foul-smelling peritoneal fluid

d)

Weight loss of 0.5 kg after dialysis

50.

Which of the following is a benefit of peritoneal dialysis (PD) in children?

a)

Requires less frequent dialysis sessions

b)

Can be done at home while the child sleeps

c)

Requires surgical placement of a shunt in the arm

d)

Eliminates the need for dietary restrictions