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AP Government Review

Total questions: 127

Worksheet time: 2hrs 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the five core values that most Americans across the ideological spectrum say they believe in?

a)

Free Enterprise, Equality of Opportunity, Limited Gov't, Individualism, Rule of Law

b)

Wealth, Power, Control, Authority, Influence

c)

Tradition, Heritage, Culture, Religion, Family

d)

Security, Safety, Protection, Defense, Stability

2.

Define political socialization.

a)

The process by which individuals learn and acquire political attitudes and beliefs

b)

The method of organizing political campaigns

c)

The strategy of implementing political policies

d)

The system of electing government officials

3.

What are five main elements in people’s lives that define their socialization process?

a)

Family, Education, Media, Peers, Religion

b)

Wealth, Power, Influence, Control, Authority

c)

Tradition, Heritage, Culture, Language, Art

d)

Security, Safety, Protection, Defense, Stability

4.

How do events impact Americans' political ideologies?

a)

They can reinforce or challenge existing beliefs

b)

They have no effect on political ideologies

c)

They only affect economic policies

d)

They solely influence foreign relations

5.

How does the margin of error affect poll results?

a)

It increases the accuracy of the results.

b)

It decreases the sample size needed.

c)

It indicates the potential range of error in the results.

d)

It eliminates bias in the poll.

6.

How do pollsters use "random sampling" to ensure a representative sample?

a)

By selecting participants based on their opinions.

b)

By choosing participants from a specific demographic.

c)

By randomly selecting participants from the entire population.

d)

By selecting participants who are easily accessible.

7.

Why is random sampling so important when polling?

a)

It ensures that the poll is conducted quickly.

b)

It guarantees that the results are 100% accurate.

c)

It helps in obtaining a sample that reflects the diversity of the population.

d)

It reduces the cost of conducting the poll.

8.

What is the purpose of a Public Opinion Poll?

a)

To predict future events.

b)

To gather opinions on a specific issue.

c)

To entertain the public.

d)

To advertise a product.

9.

What is the methodology used in a Tracking Poll?

a)

Conducting interviews at a single point in time.

b)

Repeatedly surveying the same group over time.

c)

Gathering data from focus groups.

d)

Using online surveys exclusively.

10.

What is the main purpose of an Entrance/Exit Poll?

a)

To predict the outcome of an election.

b)

To gather demographic information.

c)

To influence voters' decisions.

d)

To test new polling methods.

11.

What distinguishes a Push Poll from other types of polls?

a)

It uses neutral questions to gather data.

b)

It aims to influence respondents under the guise of conducting a poll.

c)

It is conducted online only.

d)

It focuses on gathering data from a large sample size.

12.

What is the primary use of Focus Groups in polling?

a)

To gather quantitative data.

b)

To explore in-depth opinions and attitudes.

c)

To conduct large-scale surveys.

d)

To predict election outcomes.

13.

Discuss the impact of question wording in surveys. How might an "agree-disagree" format affect results?

a)

It clarifies the respondent's opinion.

b)

It may lead to biased responses.

c)

It simplifies the survey process.

d)

It ensures accurate data collection.

14.

What do candidates use poll results for?

a)

To determine election dates.

b)

To adjust their campaign strategies.

c)

To select their running mates.

d)

To decide on their political party.

15.

What services and policies are important to or typically supported by both parties and ideologies?

a)

Only healthcare policies.

b)

Only education policies.

c)

A combination of various services and policies.

d)

Only economic policies.

16.

What are some economic policies that would most likely be supported by a liberal individual?

a)

Tax cuts for the wealthy

b)

Increased social welfare programs

c)

Deregulation of industries

d)

Reduction in government spending

17.

What are some economic policies that would most likely be supported by a conservative individual?

a)

Increased government intervention

b)

Higher taxes on corporations

c)

Deregulation and tax cuts

d)

Expansion of social programs

18.

What is a key focus of Supply-Side Economics?

a)

Increasing government spending

b)

Reducing taxes and regulation

c)

Expanding social welfare

d)

Nationalizing industries

19.

What is a key focus of Keynesian Economics?

a)

Reducing government intervention

b)

Cutting taxes for the wealthy

c)

Increasing government spending to boost demand

d)

Privatizing public services

20.

How does a divided government influence the policymaking process in Congress?

a)

It speeds up the legislative process

b)

It often leads to gridlock and compromise

c)

It eliminates the need for debate

d)

It ensures one party's dominance

21.

What policies involve more state spending? (Think Federalism)

a)

National defense

b)

Education and infrastructure

c)

Social Security

d)

Medicare

22.

What policies involve more federal spending? (Again, think Federalism)

a)

Local law enforcement

b)

National defense and Social Security

c)

Public transportation

d)

State parks

23.

The process by which people form their political attitudes

a)

Media

b)

Political Socialization

c)

Public Agenda

d)

Intensity

24.

What are demographics?

a)

Demographics are the “measure of the people”

b)

Demographics are the social indicators or socio-economic status (SES) of individuals in the population

c)

Demographics indicate race, class, family, religion, residence, age, gender etc

d)

All the above

25.

What is the role of media in political socialization?

a)

To organize political campaigns

b)

To influence political opinions and attitudes

c)

To conduct elections

d)

To provide entertainment

26.

Which economic policy is most likely to be supported by a libertarian individual?

a)

Increased government regulation

b)

Free market with minimal government intervention

c)

Expansion of social welfare programs

d)

Nationalization of key industries

27.

How does political socialization occur through family influence?

a)

Through financial support for political campaigns

b)

By voting in the same elections

c)

Through discussions and shared values

d)

By attending political rallies together

28.

Where are moderates on the political spectrum?

a)

on the far right

b)

somewhat right

c)

in the center

d)

somewhat left

29.

Alex is concerned about certain harmful chemicals in the water supply. There is a big power plant a few miles away and he worries about what kinds of chemicals it might be putting into the air and water. He sits down at his computer to email his representatives in Congress about his concerns, and thinks a lot more should be done to make sure more restrictions are put on those kinds of plants.

a)

Conservative

b)

Liberal

c)

Libertarian

30.
When it comes to welfare, conservatives ____, and liberals ____.
a)
encourage self-reliance (being able to support yourself); favor government assistance 
b)
favor government assistance programs; support self-reliance (being able to support yourself)
c)
are completely against welfare; fully support government assistance for all
d)
favor assistance for the elderly; favor assistance for all
31.
When it comes to healthcare, liberals are ___, conservatives ___.
a)
Pro government run universal healthcare; favor private health insurance 
b)
favor private health insurance; pro-government run universal healthcare
c)
against government healthcare; for government healthcare
d)
pro- Medicaid; pro-Medicare
32.

A principle of constitutional government in which the government's powers are defined and limited by a constitution.

a)

Limited Government

b)

Party Platform

c)

Polarization

d)

Means Test

33.

A political philosophy that advocates free will and maximizes individual rights while minimizing the role of government; the role of government is limited simply protecting the rights of people.

a)

Populism

b)

Libertarian

c)

Conservative

d)

Liberal

34.

The belief the government must manage the economy by spending more money when in a recession and cutting spending when there is inflation.

a)

Keynesian Economics

b)

Supply-Side Economics

c)

Monetary Policy

d)

Fiscal Policy

35.

Economic theory that lower taxes and fewer regulations will stimulate the economy as businesses and individuals invest their money, thereby creating higher tax revenue.

a)

Keynesian Economics

b)

Supply-Side Economics

c)

Monetary Policy

d)

Fiscal Policy

36.

After a national census has been taken, changes in population distribution cause the changing of congressional seats among the states. This effect is commonly called

a)

Congressional districting

b)

Apportionment

c)

Gerrymandering

d)

Reapportionment

37.

Which of the following is NOT true of the Congress?

a)

Each house determines its own leadership and rules.

b)

Terms of Congress last for two years.

c)

Congress is unicameral in nature.

d)

Only the President may call special sessions of Congress.

38.

Which of the following best describes a non-legislative power of Congress?

a)

Power to declare war

b)

Power to tax

c)

Impeachment power

d)

Power to regulate commerce

39.

Which if the following is NOT considered to be a contributing factor to the incumbency effect?

a)

name recognition

b)

voting record

c)

educational background

d)

experience in campaigning

40.

Which of the following is an accurate comparison of the House of Representatives and the Senate?

a)

The Speaker of the House may only vote to break a tie in the House, and the President of the Senate may vote on any legislation before the Senate.

b)

In the House members can delay the vote on legislation by filibustering, and in the Senate members must send all legislation through the Rules Committee.

c)

In the House members represent the entire state, and in the Senate members represent districts within the state.

d)

The Speaker of the House is the most powerful position in the House, and the majority leader is the most powerful position in the Senate.

41.

( DOC 1) Which of the following statements can be supported by the data in the chart?

a)

Americans are becoming consistently more conservative over time.

b)

Majorities in the Senate typically come from the same party as the president.

c)

Midterm elections tend to attract more Republican voters than Democratic voters.

d)

Staggered term lengths disrupt existing coalitions and the ruling party of the Senate.

42.

When the Founding Fathers finally decided on the length of the presidential term of office, they established a term

a)

of 8 years

b)

of 4 years

c)

not to exceed 10 years

d)

that could not be renewed after 4 years

43.

The President decides to send American troops into Syria to help in the fight against ISIS. This is an example of which of the President's powers?

a)

power as party leader

b)

power as commander-in-chief

c)

power of appointment

d)

power to "faithfully execute the law"

44.

Which power is used by the president for enforcing federal law?

a)

general executive power

b)

veto power

c)

executive agreements

d)

patronage

45.

(DOC 2) Which of the following statements best depicts the role of the president referred to in the quote?

a)

The president serves as commander-in-chief of the armed forces.

b)

The President must "faithfully execute" the laws of the United States.

c)

The President serves as a crisis manager and although he may have expanded powers during times of crisis, he can also be restrained by the other branches.

d)

The President can check or restrain the other two branches of government.

46.

(DOC 3) Which of the following best summarizes Alexander Hamilton's argument?

a)

The executive branch is too powerful under the Articles of Confederation.

b)

The executive branch should be the most powerful branch of government.

c)

The executive branch is designed to handle emergencies and immediate crises.

d)

The executive branch would function best with a single person in charge.

47.

(DOC 3) Which of the following powers of the President best embodies the type of executive action Hamilton is arguing for?

a)

Appointing cabinet officials

b)

Commander-in-chief of the armed forces

c)

Signing a bill into law

d)

Delivering the State of the Union

48.

Under the guidelines of the Constitution, which of the following is NOT within the jurisdiction of the federal courts?

a)

cases involving federal law

b)

cases involving interpretation of state constitutions

c)

cases involving interpretation of the federal Constitution

d)

treaties

49.

Federal courts created by Congress under Article III of the Constitution include the Supreme Court, district courts, the Courts of Appeals, Court of Appeals for the Federal Circuit, and the U.S. Court of International Trade. These courts can best be described as

a)

legislative courts

b)

territorial courts

c)

constitutional courts

d)

original courts

50.

When making an appointment to the Supreme Court, presidents

a)

remain impartial by refusing candidate endorsements from the Supreme Court

b)

often select a candidate who is neither decidedly liberal or conservative

c)

tend to ignore race as a consideration for selecting a judge

d)

tend to choose judges from their own political party

51.

Which of the following has little bearing when the president makes an appointment to the Supreme Court?

a)

party affiliation

b)

judicial philosophy

c)

likability

d)

"litmus test"

52.

The majority opinion, issued by the Supreme Court as the final decision of a case, becomes the standard or guide that will be followed in deciding similar cases in the future. This standard or guide is known as a

a)

precedent

b)

brief

c)

argument

d)

decision

53.

The judicial philosophy that advocates the courts' active role in policymaking is called

a)

strict constructionist

b)

judicial activism

c)

loose constructionist

d)

judicial restraint

54.

(DOC 4) Alexander Hamilton is advocating for which of the following?

a)

The use of common law

b)

The power of judicial review

c)

The supremacy of the Constitution

d)

The need for a multilayered court system

55.

(DOC 4) Which of the following would best contribute to the sort of independent, nonpartisan decision making for which Hamilton is advocating?

a)

Having federal courts being seated with unelected judges and justices

b)

Having the chief justice preside over impeachment hearings

c)

Prohibiting justices from having political affiliations

d)

Not confirming a president's particular selection to fill a judicial vacancy

56.

The political arm of an interest group that is legally entitled to raise money in order to contribute funds directly to candidates.

a)

527 Groups

b)

Independent expenditures

c)

PACs

d)

SuperPACs

57.
Their primary goal is to win elections.
a)
Interest Groups
b)
Political Parties
c)
527 Groups
d)
PACs
58.
Which of these is mentioned in the Constitution?
a)
Interest Groups
b)
Political Parties
c)
The Electoral College
d)
PACs
59.
Periods where a sharp and lasting shift occurs in the popular coalition supporting one or both parties.
a)
Dealignment
b)
Party polarization
c)
Coattail effect
d)
Realigning ("critical") election
60.
A primary in which only registered members of a particular political party can vote.
a)
Closed Primary
b)
Open Primary
c)
Runoff Primary
d)
Blanket Primary
61.
Which of these does NOT benefit the continuation of the two-party system?
a)
Single-member districts
b)
Winner-take-all elections
c)
Proportional representation
d)
Democrat and Republican dominance
62.
Which of these elections has the highest turnout?
a)
Off-year elections
b)
Midterm elections
c)
General Presidential elections
d)
Local elections
63.
Campaign money with the most strict of limits
a)
Hard money
b)
Soft money
c)
Private money
d)
Corporate money
64.
Organization that regulates campaign finance in the United States.
a)
FDC
b)
FCC
c)
FEC
d)
FRC
65.
Law that banned soft money and forced candidates to explicitly acknowledge approval of all TV ads.
a)
Federal Regulation of Lobbying Act of 1946
b)
Federal Election Commission Act of 1971
c)
Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act of 2002 (McCain-Feingold Act)
d)
Hatch Act of 1939
66.
Scheduling presidential primary elections early (e.g., February or March) in an election year.
a)
Big state strategy
b)
Small state strategy
c)
Early state strategy
d)
Front loading
67.
A meeting for selecting delegates to the national party convention in places such as a church, school, or auditorium.
a)
Factions
b)
PACs
c)
SuperPACs
d)
Caucus
68.
People turning away from the major political parties.
a)
Dealignment
b)
Realignment
c)
Critical election
d)
Party polarization
69.
A list of positions and programs that the party adopts at the national convention.  Each position is called a plank.
a)
Elite theory
b)
Pluralism
c)
Party polarization
d)
Party platform
70.

Polarizing opinions regarding which of the following presidents effectively split the Democratic-Republican Party?

a)

T. Jefferson

b)

J. Adams

c)

A. Jackson

d)

A. Lincoln

71.

All of the following can be considered incumbency advantages during congressional elections except for

a)

paid staff, franking priviledge

b)

name/face recognition and experience

c)

presidential coattails

d)

redistricting, scandal, midterm elections

72.

The media can act as a linkage institution in all of the following ways except...

a)

reporting breaking news to inform our electorate

b)

investigative journalism (to expose corruption, politicians, government inaction, etc.)

c)

covering campaigns/elections (horse race journalism)

d)

nominating candidates, endorsing candidates for office

73.

The term "soft money" is best described as:

a)

Regulated donations to national candidates.

b)

Unregulated donations to elected officials.

c)

Illegal political contributions by interest groups.

d)

Unlimited campaign contributions to political parties.

74.

All of the following are functions of political parties except...

a)

educating the electorate, grassroots canvassing (GOTV efforts)

b)

levying poll taxes on unaffiliated voters

c)

recruiting and nominating candidates

d)

donating to candidates campaigns (especially incumbents)

75.

Interest groups act as linkage institutions in all of the following ways except...

a)

running candidates for office

b)

endorsing candidates running for office

c)

lobbying the government to seek long-lasting change, change in policy

d)

educating our electorate about their particular interest(s)

76.

Which of the following statements about gerrymandering is true?

a)

It has been banned by United States Supreme Court decisions starting with Baker v. Carr

b)

It was used traditionally to maintain urban control of the House of Representatives.

c)

It can be used by a political party to draw boundary lines to control as many districts as possible.

d)

It guarantees greater constituency control over elected representatives.

77.

Even with large majorities in their own party in Congress, presidents experience difficulty in exercising legislative leadership because

a)

the president must compete against state governors for influence

b)

the weak nature of political parties hampers the president's ability to control Congress

c)

the president's use of the veto is ineffective with Congress

d)

the president seldom addresses the same issues as members of Congress

78.

Which of the following statements about the Senate is true?

a)

Each state is represented in the Senate according to its population.

b)

The Senate, unlike the House, has a Rules Committee.

c)

The Senate is more responsible than the House for initiating appropriations legislation.

d)

Individual senators can exercise substantial influence over the legislative process.

79.

All of the following are ways that the legislative branch can check the powers of the executive branch EXCEPT:

a)

Congress may pass a law declaring a presidential action unconstitutional.

b)

The Senate may refuse to approve a presidential appointment.

c)

Congress may override a presidential veto.

d)

Congress may remove the president through its impeachment and conviction powers.

80.

The role Congress plays in ensuring that executive branch agencies are carrying out their legislated responsibilities is known as

a)

judicial review

b)

legislative oversight

c)

executive privilege

d)

bicameralism

81.

Advocates of shifting the task of drawing United States House districts from state legislatures to independent commissions are likely to claim which of the following as an advantage of independent commissions?

a)

Independent commissions are more likely to create majority-minority districts districts where they are appropriate.

b)

Independent commissions are more likely to create districts where minor parties are victorious.

c)

House districts drawn by independent commissions are immune from challenges by the United States Department of Justice.

d)

Independent commissions significantly reduce the influence of partisan gerrymandering in the redistricting process.

82.

The --- confirms or denies presidential appointments to the Federal bureaucracy. 

a)

Supreme Court

b)

Congress

c)

House of Representatives 

d)

Senate

83.

After a national census has been taken, changes in population distribution cause the changing of congressional seats among the states. This effect is commonly called

a)

Congressional redistricitng

b)

Apportionment

c)

Gerrymandering

d)

Repportionment

84.

Which of the following is NOT true of the Congress?

a)

Each house determines its own leadership and rules

b)

Terms of Congress last for two years

c)

Congress is unicameral in nature

d)

Only the president may call special sessions of Congress

85.

Which of the following best describes a nonlegislative power of Congress?

a)

Power to declare war

b)

Power to tax

c)

Impeachment power

d)

Power to regulate commerce

86.

A law passed in 1973 that requires the presidents to consult with Congress whenever possible prior to using military force and to withdraw forces after 60 days unless Congress declares war or grants an extension.

a)

War Powers Resolution

b)

United Nations

c)

Hatch Act

d)

Pendleton Civil Service Act

87.

The constitutional power of the president to send a bill back to Congress with reasons for rejecting it.

a)

Veto

b)

Legislative Veto

c)

Presidential Coattails

d)

Pocket Veto

88.

A legislature divided into two houses.

a)

Bicameral Legislature

b)

Balance of Trade

c)

Joint Committee

d)

Legislative Oversight

89.

drawing the boundaries of legislative districts in bizarre or unusual shapes to favor one party

a)

lizarding

b)

partisan districting

c)

gerrymandering

d)

sleazy

90.

A tactic to block legislation that involves one or more Senators holding the floor indefinitely is called...

a)

Filibustering

b)

Riding

c)

Logrolling

d)

Hot-Airing

91.

Members of Congress are granted generous franking privileges that

a)

permit them to mail letters to their constituents for free.

b)

allow them to charge items to a special expense account.

c)

allow members unlimited phone calls to their district without charge.

d)

permit them to receive four, round-trip airfares to their district.

92.

The president of the Senate is

a)

the leader of the majority party in the Senate.

b)

the senator with the most seniority, regardless of party.

c)

the fourth person in line to succeed the president.

d)

the vice president of the United States.

93.

According to the Constitution, the minimum age to be a Senator is

a)

25

b)

30

c)

35

d)

40

94.

The House consists of _____ members.

a)

100

b)

270

c)

435

d)

50

95.

Who is next in line to become President of the United States if the Vice President is unable to take over?

a)

Majority Leader of the Senate

b)

President of the Senate

c)

President pro tempore of the Senate

d)

Speaker of the House

96.

The Chair of a committee is likely the...

a)

Member of the majority party with the most constituents

b)

Oldest

c)

Member of the Minority Party with the most seniority

d)

Member with the most expertise

97.

Every two years, _____ of the Senate must stand for reelection

a)

one-half

b)

three-quarters

c)

two-thirds

d)

one-third

98.

Which body originates ALL bills concerning revenue and taxes? 

a)

House

b)

Senate

c)

Congress

d)

Supreme Court

99.

How long must you be a U.S. citizen to serve in the House of Representatives?

a)

7 years

b)

9 years

c)

3 years

d)

5 years

100.

A member of the House is elected for a term of how many years?

a)

1 year

b)

2 years

c)

4 years

d)

6 years

101.

How many members are in Congress?

a)

100

b)

270

c)

435

d)

535

102.

Which of the following was NOT a feature of the Articles of Confederation?

a)

There was no executive branch to enforce laws.

b)

Each state had one vote in Congress, regardless of its size.

c)

Amendments to the Articles required approval from all states.

d)

The national government had the power to levy taxes.

103.

Which of the following accurately characterizes the main difference between elite theories and pluralist theories of politics in the United States?

a)

Elite theories argue that a single minority dominates in all policy areas; pluralist theories argue that many minorities compete in different policy areas.

b)

Elite theories argue that social status is the major source of political power; pluralist theories argue that wealth is the major source.

c)

Elite theories view government as efficient; pluralist theories view it as slow and wasteful.

d)

Elite theories concentrate on the role of interest groups; pluralist theories emphasize the role of individuals.

104.

Which of the following is the best example of a categorical grant?

a)

Money given to states for specific programs

b)

Money given to individuals in the form of tax rebates

c)

Money given to states unconditionally

d)

Money given to states to spend at their discretion

105.

The debates between Federalists and Anti-Federalists were primarily about which of the following issues?

a)

The right of the people to rebel

b)

The existence of slavery

c)

The scope of power of the central government

d)

The need to establish a standard currency

106.

The Americans with Disabilities Act, which provides protections for the disabled, is an example of

a)

a federal mandate

b)

horizontal federalism

c)

dual federalism

d)

state supremacy

107.

The “Bill of Rights” is found in

a)

The Declaration of Independence.

b)

The Third Article of the Constitution

c)

Amendments to the Constitution

d)

Bills passed by Congress

108.

The Tenth Amendment to the Constitution has been interpreted by the Supreme Court to

a)

prevent states from taxing agencies of the federal government

b)

reserve powers to the states

c)

restrict the application of judicial review

d)

allow for the burning of the flag as an expression of protest

109.

Which of the following constitutional principles most directly addresses the relationship between the national and state governments?

a)

The Bill of Rights

b)

Separation of powers

c)

Representation

d)

Federalism

110.

Of the following, which has been used most to expand the power of the national government?

a)

The First Amendment

b)

The Fifth Amendment

c)

The habeas corpus clause of the Constitution

d)

The commerce clause of the Constitution

111.

The outcome of a conflict between the Constitution and the states is determined by

a)

the Great Compromise

b)

the supremacy clause

c)

Federalist #10

d)

judicial review

112.

Which of the following was stipulated in Article III of the Constitution?

a)

creation of the Supreme Court

b)

executive powers

c)

powers of Congress

d)

full faith and credit clause

113.

Which of the following would least likely be favored by state governments?

a)

unfunded mandates

b)

categorical grants

c)

block grants

d)

revenue sharing

114.

Which of the following is most likely to be preferred by state governments?

a)

unfunded mandates

b)

categorical grants

c)

block grants

d)

revenue sharing

115.

Which of the following statements is correct about the differences between the Federalists and Anti-Federalists?

a)

Neither group was willing to dissolve the union over the questions of counting slaves for purposes of representation.

b)

The Federalists believed a Bill of Rights was essential whereas the Anti-Federalists did not.

c)

The Federalists believed in national sovereignty whereas the Anti-Federalists believed in strong state governments.

d)

he Federalists did not believe in the need for a presidential cabinet whereas the Anti-Federalists did.

116.

Which of the following is an example of checks and balances, as established by the Constitution?

a)

A requirement that states lower their legal drinking age to eighteen so they can receive federal highway grants

b)

Media criticism of public officials during an election campaign period

c)

The requirement that presidential appointments to the Supreme Court be approved by the Senate

d)

The election of the President by the Electoral College rather than by direct election

117.

The importance of Shays' Rebellion to the development of the United States Constitution was that it

a)

revealed the necessity of adding the Bill of Rights to the Constitution

b)

demonstrated the intensity of anti-ratification sentiment within the thirteen states

c)

convinced the delegates attending the Constitutional Convention to accept the Connecticut Plan

d)

indicated that a strong national government was needed to protect property and maintain order

118.

States and localities have the most discretion in establishing policy when federal funding is derived from

a)

categorical grants

b)

matching grants

c)

block grants

d)

project grants

119.

The Constitution grants Congress the power to establish post offices and post roads. This is an example of

a)

enumerated powers

b)

implied powers

c)

reserved powers

d)

concurrent powers

120.

Both the national and states’ governments can establish court systems. This is an example of

a)

reserved powers

b)

a mandate

c)

concurrent powers

d)

full faith and credit clause

121.

Which of the following best characterizes the general argument made in Brutus 1?

a)

A large republic is dangerous to personal liberty and undermines the states.

b)

A small republic is more susceptible to corruption than a large republic.

c)

A large republic would be preferable to a small one because more people could participate.

d)

A small republic would pose more danger to individual liberty than a large republic.

122.

Which of the following is an accurate summary of James Madison's argument in The Federalist 10?

a)

A large republic makes it possible to abolish factions and concentrate all power at the national level.

b)

A large republic allows the federal government to dominate the state governments through the necessary and proper clause.

c)

A large republic is a direct democracy where the people have a direct vote in policy matters, which controls factions.

d)

A large republic presents more opportunities for groups to participate, compete, and limit each other.

123.

Which of the following best describes the concept of 'Separation of Powers' as outlined in the Constitution?

a)

The division of powers between the federal and state governments

b)

The division of powers among the three branches of government

c)

The division of powers between the President and Congress

d)

The division of powers between the House of Representatives and the Senate

124.
Which is a result of the Necessary and Proper Clause?
a)
defeated American pluralism
b)
expanded the powers of the central gov't
c)
checked the powers of the legislative branch
d)
defended U.S. republicanism
125.
The McCullough v. Maryland decision by the Supreme Court upheld the principle that...
a)
Congress only has powers specifically enumerated in the Constitution
b)
Congress has the power to make laws to carry out its constitutional duties
c)
the federal gov't and state governments are equal
d)
the federal government alone may levy taxes
126.
Which of the following is an example of an implied power?
a)
The power to declare war
b)
The power to impeach the president
c)
The power to coin money
d)
The power to build the 42,000 mile interstate highway system
127.

A difference between US v. Lopez and McCulloch v. Maryland is?

a)

Lopez increased the national government's power while McCulloch did not

b)

McCulloch was based off the commerce clause while Lopez was based off the elastic clause

c)

Lopez checked the national government's power while McCulloch increased it

d)

McCulloch was used the supremacy clause while Lopez used the elastic clause