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Worksheets

TEST

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is a SOHO network?

a)

A small, enterprise-grade network

b)

A home or small office network

c)

A type of mobile internet service

d)

A public Wi-Fi hotspot

2.

Which device is not typically considered a mobile device?

a)

Smartphone

b)

Smartwatch

c)

Desktop computer

d)

Tablet

3.

What type of network allows devices to act as both clients and servers?

a)

Star network

b)

Peer-to-peer

c)

Client-server

d)

Hybrid network

4.

Which of the following is an example of a connected home device?

a)

Smartwatch

b)

Gaming console

c)

USB drive

d)

VR headset

5.

Which term best describes the internet?

a)

Peer-to-peer network

b)

Local area network

c)

Network of networks

d)

Client-server system

6.

Which of the following represents a byte?

a)

4 bits

b)

8 bits

c)

16 bits

d)

2 bits

7.

What does ASCII stand for?

a)

American Standard Code for Internet Interchange

b)

American Standard Code for Information Interchange

c)

Advanced System for Code Integration

d)

Automated Software Character Integration

8.

Which input device converts human interaction into binary code?

a)

Monitor

b)

Printer

c)

Keyboard

d)

Speaker

9.

What medium transmits optical signals?

a)

Copper wire

b)

Fiber-optic cable

c)

Radio waves

d)

Satellite dish

10.

Which type of signal uses radio waves for transmission?

a)

Electrical

b)

Optical

c)

Wireless

d)

Fiber

11.

What does bandwidth measure?

a)

Number of users in a network

b)

Number of devices connected

c)

Capacity of data that can be transmitted per second

d)

Size of a data packet

12.

Which unit represents billions of bits per second?

a)

Kbps

b)

Mbps

c)

Gbps

d)

Tbps

13.

Which factor does NOT affect throughput?

a)

Amount of data being sent

b)

Type of internet plan

c)

Latency in the network

d)

Types of data being transmitted

14.

What is latency?

a)

Speed of download

b)

Delay in data transmission

c)

Volume of data

d)

Number of users on a network

15.

Which test can be used to measure internet speed?

a)

ASCII

b)

Fast.com

c)

Wireshark

d)

Bluetooth

16.

Which is an example of an intermediate device?

a)

Tablet

b)

Firewall Appliance

c)

Printer

d)

Barcode scanner

17.

Which of the following is NOT a type of end device?

a)

Smartphone

b)

Laptop

c)

LAN switch

d)

Network printer

18.

What does an ISP provide?

a)

Network cables

b)

Wi-Fi routers

c)

Internet connection to users

d)

Security software

19.

Which type of cable is most used in the internet backbone?

a)

Coaxial

b)

Twisted pair

c)

Fiber-optic

d)

DSL

20.

Which connection separates internet and TV signals?

a)

DSL

b)

Satellite

c)

Cable

d)

Dial-up

21.

Why is Wi-Fi preferred over cellular data on mobile devices?

a)

More reliable signal

b)

Conserves battery and data usage

c)

Higher latency

d)

It's mandatory for all apps

22.

What does SSID stand for?

a)

Secure Service Identification Device

b)

Service Set Identifier

c)

Signal Strength ID

d)

Satellite Signal Identification

23.

Which of these is a security measure for Wi-Fi?

a)

Bluetooth

b)

VPN

c)

ASCII

d)

SMS

24.

Which step is NOT part of manual Wi-Fi setup on Android?

a)

Enter password

b)

Enter SSID

c)

Enable airplane mode

d)

Select security type

25.

What does NFC require to exchange data?

a)

A wired connection

b)

Devices in close proximity

c)

Satellite signal

d)

Bluetooth enabled

26.

Which device uses GPS to locate your position?

a)

Refrigerator

b)

Smartphone

c)

Microwave

d)

Barcode scanner

27.

Which connection method allows sharing internet between devices?

a)

ASCII

b)

Tethering

c)

Encryption

d)

NFC

28.

How many Bluetooth devices can be connected at one time?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

8

d)

16

29.

What occurs during Bluetooth pairing?

a)

Automatic Wi-Fi sync

b)

Data is encrypted

c)

Devices exchange PINs to authenticate

d)

Device memory is wiped

30.

Which is a benefit of Bluetooth technology?

a)

High power usage

b)

Only works over cellular networks

c)

Allows wireless connection with low energy use

d)

Only pairs with one device

31.

Which form of social engineering exploits people’s inclination to follow others' behavior?

a)

Scarcity

b)

Consensus/Social Proof

c)

Intimidation

d)

Trust

32.

In a Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) attack, which technique deceives a device into sending data to an attacker by pretending to be the router?

a)

DNS spoofing

b)

HTTPS spoofing

c)

ARP spoofing

d)

IP hijacking

33.

Which of the following BEST describes an Advanced Persistent Threat (APT)?

a)

A fast, brute-force password attack

b)

A temporary vulnerability in open-source code

c)

A long-term, targeted cyber attack that stays hidden in a system

d)

A virus that rapidly destroys data across networks

34.

Which of the following best describes a supply chain attack?

a)

An attack on a retailer’s payment terminal

b)

A phishing campaign targeting suppliers

c)

An attack that compromises third-party software or services to access a target organization

d)

An advanced form of ransomware targeting logistics data

35.

Which attack involves manipulating legitimate DNS queries to exfiltrate data or send commands back to a compromised system?

a)

DNS Spoofing

b)

DNS Hijacking

c)

DNS Tunneling

d)

Domain Shadowing

36.

Which of the following BEST distinguishes a worm from a virus?

a)

A virus spreads without user interaction

b)

A worm requires a host program to execute

c)

A worm self-replicates and spreads without user initiation

d)

A virus only targets physical networks

37.

What makes HTTPS spoofing particularly deceptive to users?

a)

It mimics social media platforms

b)

It uses phishing tactics in public networks

c)

It uses a fake but seemingly secure HTTPS address to gain user trust

d)

It exploits outdated antivirus software

38.

What differentiates spear phishing from phishing?

a)

Spear phishing only targets financial institutions

b)

Spear phishing is mass-distributed to thousands of recipients

c)

Spear phishing is a highly targeted phishing attack against specific individuals

d)

Spear phishing uses only text messages

39.

Which threat actor is MOST likely to engage in cyberattacks for political reasons, often using propaganda and disruption?

a)

Insider threat

b)

Hacktivist

c)

Advanced Persistent Threat

d)

Semi-authorized hacker

40.

What makes a zero-day exploit particularly dangerous?

a)

It attacks outdated hardware

b)

It uses only social engineering

c)

It targets systems before a security patch is available

d)

It only affects home users

41.

Which element of the CIA triad would most likely be violated in a ransomware attack, and why?

a)

Confidentiality, because the data is leaked to the public

b)

Integrity, because the data is changed by the attacker

c)

Availability, because users are denied access to encrypted data

d)

Confidentiality, because encryption modifies the file format

42.

Which of the following is a term describing an event that puts confidentiality, integrity, or availability of information at risk?

a)

Patch

b)

Incident

c)

Backup

d)

Snapshot

43.

What cybersecurity concept ensures that systems continue to function even during an attack or outage?

a)

Authentication

b)

Access control

c)

Availability

d)

Encryption

44.

An organization that fails to use secure coding practices during application development is most likely to experience:

a)

Strong authentication across all endpoints

b)

Encryption failure during data transit

c)

Software vulnerabilities and potential exploits

d)

Unauthorized physical access

45.

Why is Identity and Access Management (IAM) considered the first line of defense?

a)

It ensures secure physical device connections

b)

It prevents software vulnerabilities from being exploited

c)

It controls who has access to data and systems

d)

It monitors threats in real-time

46.

Which tool helps security analysts monitor unusual login behavior and generate alerts using log data?

a)

IDS

b)

Firewall

c)

SIEM

d)

DNS proxy

47.

Which of the following is a direct consequence of failing to apply encryption to sensitive PII data?

a)

Improved access speed

b)

Better audit logging

c)

Data may be exposed during transmission or storage

d)

Less complexity in network design

48.

Which principle of cybersecurity ensures that only authorized individuals can access specific data?

a)

Authentication

b)

Confidentiality

c)

Integrity

d)

Availability

49.

Which cybersecurity role requires quick response to alerts, log analysis, and implementing mitigation actions?

a)

Compliance Officer

b)

Security Analyst

c)

Software Developer

d)

System Architect

50.

Which of the following best represents a compromise of integrity within a cybersecurity context?

a)

A web server is overloaded and unresponsive

b)

Encrypted files are stolen by an attacker

c)

A financial transaction is altered without authorization

d)

Backup files are deleted