wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Biochemistry: Nucleic Acids

Total questions: 206

Worksheet time: 2hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary function of nucleic acids in cells?

a)

Structural support

b)

Storage and transmission of genetic information

c)

Energy production

d)

Hormone regulation

2.

Which nitrogenous bases are purines?

a)

Cytosine and Thymine

b)

Uracil and Cytosine

c)

Adenine and Guanine

d)

Thymine and Uracil

3.

What sugar is found in DNA?

a)

Glucose

b)

Deoxyribose

c)

Ribose

d)

Sucrose

4.

Which of the following bases is found only in RNA?

a)

Thymine

b)

Uracil

c)

Adenine

d)

Cytosine

5.

What kind of bond links nucleotides in a strand of DNA or RNA?

a)

Hydrogen bond

b)

Phosphodiester bond

c)

Peptide bond

d)

Glycosidic bond

6.

The base pairing rule states that in DNA, adenine pairs with:

a)

Cytosine

b)

Thymine

c)

Uracil

d)

Guanine

7.

Guanine pairs with cytosine via:

a)

Two hydrogen bonds

b)

Three hydrogen bonds

c)

One hydrogen bond

d)

Ionic bonds

8.

DNA strands are described as being:

a)

Parallel

b)

Antiparallel

c)

Orthogonal

d)

Symmetric

9.

What structural feature allows proteins to bind specific sequences in DNA?

a)

Helical core

b)

Major groove

c)

Sugar backbone

d)

Ribose

10.

Which RNA molecule carries amino acids to the ribosome?

a)

rRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

miRNA

11.

Which RNA has enzymatic activity in the ribosome?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

lncRNA

12.

What is the function of miRNA?

a)

Codes for proteins

b)

Silences gene expression by binding mRNA

c)

Transports amino acids

d)

Replicates DNA

13.

What is a nucleosome composed of?

a)

DNA and RNA

b)

mRNA and ribosomes

c)

DNA wrapped around histone proteins

d)

Lipids and DNA

14.

In DNA replication, what enzyme synthesises the new DNA strand?

a)

RNA polymerase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

Ligase

d)

Topoisomerase

15.

DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides in what direction?

a)

3’ to 5’

b)

5’ to 3’

c)

2’ to 4’

d)

1’ to 2’

16.

What is the role of primase in DNA replication?

a)

Seals fragments

b)

Synthesises RNA primers

c)

Unwinds DNA

d)

Adds nucleotides

17.

Which enzyme unwinds the DNA double helix at the replication fork?

a)

Ligase

b)

Helicase

c)

Primase

d)

Nuclease

18.

Which strand is synthesised continuously during replication?

a)

Lagging

b)

Leading

c)

Template

d)

Coding

19.

The small fragments formed during lagging strand synthesis are called:

a)

Leading fragments

b)

Okazaki fragments

c)

Replicons

d)

Replication bubbles

20.

What removes RNA primers in lagging strand synthesis?

a)

Helicase

b)

DNA polymerase I

c)

Ligase

d)

SSBs

21.

What enzyme seals the nicks between Okazaki fragments?

a)

DNA helicase

b)

DNA ligase

c)

Topoisomerase

d)

Nuclease

22.

Which type of mutation introduces a premature stop codon?

a)

Missense

b)

Nonsense

c)

Silent

23.

A mutation that does not change the amino acid is called:

a)

Missense

b)

Nonsense

c)

Silent

d)

Insertion

24.

A point mutation that changes one amino acid to another is a:

a)

Frameshift

b)

Missense

c)

Nonsense

d)

Splice mutation

25.

What type of mutation shifts the reading frame of a gene?

a)

Nonsense

b)

Frameshift

c)

Missense

d)

Duplication

26.

Which of the following can cause a frameshift mutation?

a)

Base substitution

b)

Insertion or deletion of one or two bases

c)

Silent mutation

d)

Inversion of a codon

27.

Which enzyme relieves supercoiling during DNA replication?

a)

DNA ligase

b)

Topoisomerase

c)

Helicase

d)

DNA polymerase

28.

What is the role of single-stranded binding proteins (SSBs)?

a)

Synthesize primers

b)

Stabilize unwound DNA strands

c)

Link Okazaki fragments

d)

Cut RNA

29.

What type of bond connects base pairs across DNA strands?

a)

Covalent

b)

Phosphodiester

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Ionic

30.

In RNA, what base pairs with adenine?

a)

Thymine

b)

Uracil

c)

Guanine

d)

Cytosine

31.

What is the function of RNA polymerase during transcription?

a)

Add DNA bases

b)

Splice introns

c)

Synthesize RNA from DNA template

d)

Activate ribosomes

32.

What process removes introns from pre-mRNA?

a)

Translation

b)

Replication

c)

Splicing

d)

Transcription termination

33.

What is the term for the start signal on an mRNA transcript?

a)

Stop codon

b)

Start codon (AUG)

c)

Promoter

d)

Operator

34.

Which type of RNA contains the codon sequence?

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

snRNA

35.

What is the anticodon complementary to the start codon AUG?

a)

UAC

b)

UAC on tRNA

c)

CUA

d)

GUA

36.

What is the function of the poly-A tail on mRNA?

a)

Promote translation

b)

Protect mRNA from degradation

c)

Remove introns

d)

Bind ribosome

37.

What modification is added to the 5’ end of eukaryotic mRNA?

(a)  

38.

Which type of RNA is most abundant in the cell?

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

miRNA

39.

What is the coding strand of DNA also called?

a)

Template strand

b)

Sense strand

c)

Antisense strand

d)

Replicated strand

40.

What is the function of telomerase?

a)

Repair DNA damage

b)

Remove primers

c)

Extend telomeres at chromosome ends

d)

Pack DNA

41.

What type of cells have active telomerase?

a)

Mature neurons

b)

Germ cells and stem cells

c)

Skin fibroblasts

d)

Liver cells

42.

In prokaryotic DNA replication, what enzyme removes primers?

a)

DNA ligase

b)

DNA polymerase I

c)

DNA polymerase III

d)

Primase

43.

Which DNA repair mechanism corrects mismatched base pairs post-replication?

a)

Base excision

b)

Mismatch repair (MMR)

c)

Nucleotide excision

d)

Homologous recombination

44.

What kind of damage does nucleotide excision repair fix?

a)

Cytosine deamination

b)

UV-induced thymine dimers

c)

Single-strand breaks

45.

Which enzyme detects and removes damaged bases in base excision repair?

a)

DNA ligase

b)

Polymerase β

c)

DNA glycosylase

d)

Helicase

46.

What disease is associated with defective nucleotide excision repair?

a)

Huntington’s disease

b)

ALS

c)

Xeroderma pigmentosum

d)

Fragile X syndrome

47.

What is the role of DNA ligase in DNA repair?

a)

Add RNA primers

b)

Seal nicks in sugar-phosphate backbone

c)

Detect mismatches

d)

Replicate DNA

48.

What causes thymine dimers in DNA?

a)

Chemical mutagens

b)

UV radiation

c)

Ionizing radiation

d)

Acetylation

49.

Which enzyme synthesises new DNA during repair?

a)

DNA helicase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

Primase

d)

Telomerase

50.

What is a replication fork?

a)

Stop codon

b)

Y-shaped region where DNA is unwound and replicated

c)

rRNA structure

d)

Histone

51.

What initiates the opening of the replication fork?

a)

Ligase

b)

Helicase activity breaking hydrogen bonds between bases

c)

Polymerase binding

d)

RNA primer degradation

52.

What region of DNA does transcription begin at?

a)

Intron

b)

Promoter

c)

Terminator

d)

Enhancer

53.

What DNA sequence signals RNA polymerase to stop transcription?

a)

Promoter

b)

Origin

c)

Terminator

d)

Exon

54.

What component of the ribosome catalyses peptide bond formation?

a)

tRNA

b)

rRNA (peptidyl transferase activity)

c)

Protein enzyme

d)

mRNA

55.

What type of mutation involves swapping one base for another?

a)

Inversion

b)

Substitution (point mutation)

c)

Frameshift

d)

Duplication

56.

What is DNA supercoiling?

a)

A type of repair

b)

Additional twisting of the DNA double helix

c)

Binding to proteins

d)

RNA processing

57.

Which type of RNA plays a central role in translation?

a)

miRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

snRNA

d)

siRNA

58.

What is the consequence of a mutation in a start codon?

a)

Enhanced gene expression

b)

Failure to initiate translation

c)

Faster replication

d)

Telomere extension

59.

What enzyme adds dNTPs during DNA synthesis?

(a)  

60.

What type of bonds hold the sugar-phosphate backbone together?

a)

Hydrogen bonds

b)

Covalent phosphodiester bonds

c)

Ionic bonds

d)

Hydrophobic interactions

61.

In eukaryotic cells, where does transcription occur?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Nucleus

c)

Mitochondria

d)

ER

62.

Where does translation occur in eukaryotes?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Cytoplasm or on rough ER

c)

Golgi

d)

Nucleolus

63.

What is the template strand used for in transcription?

a)

Makes ribosomes

b)

Acts as the DNA strand RNA polymerase uses to synthesize RNA

c)

Translates proteins

d)

Synthesizes dNTPs

64.

What ensures that only correct tRNA binds to mRNA during translation?

a)

Base stacking

b)

Codon-anticodon base pairing

c)

Ligase recognition

d)

Helicase unwinding

65.

What is the role of the 3' poly-A tail in mRNA?

a)

Blocks transcription

b)

Increases mRNA stability and assists in nuclear export

c)

Prevents tRNA binding

d)

Catalyses translation

66.

What kind of bond forms between ribose and a base in a nucleotide?

a)

Phosphodiester

b)

Glycosidic bond

c)

Hydrogen

67.

Which nitrogenous base has a single ring structure?

a)

Adenine

b)

Cytosine (pyrimidine)

c)

Guanine

d)

Hypoxanthine

68.

What makes DNA more chemically stable than RNA?

a)

Extra methyl group

b)

Absence of 2’-OH on deoxyribose

c)

Adenine pairing

d)

Guanine bonds

69.

What does semiconservative replication mean?

a)

Uses random strand pairing

b)

Each new DNA contains one original and one new strand

c)

One new, one mutant strand

d)

Keeps both strands intact

70.

What is a replication origin (Ori)?

a)

Gene transcription site

b)

Specific sequence where replication begins

c)

Splice site

d)

Telomeric repeat

71.

What is a gene?

a)

An RNA fragment

b)

A DNA segment that encodes a functional product

c)

Telomere

d)

Only exons

72.

What are exons?

a)

Noncoding regions

b)

Coding sequences in mRNA

c)

Introns

d)

Regulatory promoters

73.

What is alternative splicing?

a)

RNA polymerase switching strands

b)

Generation of different proteins from the same gene

c)

tRNA mismatching

d)

DNA replication error

74.

What is a plasmid?

a)

mRNA fragment

b)

Circular DNA molecule in bacteria

c)

Viral RNA

d)

Protein coding exon

75.

What do histones do?

a)

Transcribe DNA

b)

Package and organise DNA into nucleosomes

c)

Synthesize proteins

d)

Link Okazaki fragments

76.

What charge do histone proteins carry at physiological pH?

a)

Neutral

b)

Negative

c)

Positive (due to lysine and arginine residues)

d)

Depends on ATP

77.

What allows DNA to wrap tightly around histones?

a)

Hydrophobic interactions

b)

Electrostatic attraction between negatively charged DNA and positively charged histones

c)

Covalent bonding

d)

Phosphorylation

78.

What enzyme modifies histones to regulate gene expression?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Histone acetyltransferase (HAT)

c)

Telomerase

d)

Ligase

79.

What is the effect of histone acetylation on gene expression?

a)

Silences transcription

b)

Loosens chromatin and activates transcription

c)

Compacts DNA

d)

Blocks ribosome binding

80.

What is euchromatin?

a)

Inactive, dense DNA

b)

Lightly packed, transcriptionally active chromatin

c)

Methylated telomeres

d)

Chromosome centromere

81.

81. What is heterochromatin?

a)

A tightly packed form of DNA

b)

A type of RNA

c)

A protein complex

d)

A cellular organelle

82.

What epigenetic modification often leads to gene silencing?

a)

Acetylation

b)

DNA methylation (especially at CpG islands)

c)

Histone phosphorylation

d)

Deacetylation of RNA

83.

Which enzyme adds methyl groups to cytosine residues?

a)

Acetylase

b)

DNA methyltransferase (DNMT)

c)

Histone kinase

d)

Exonuclease

84.

What is a CpG island?

a)

DNA repeat sequence

b)

Region rich in CG dinucleotides, often found in gene promoters

c)

Exon-intron boundary

d)

Telomeric DNA

85.

What is a single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP)?

a)

Large chromosomal deletion

b)

Variation at a single DNA base among individuals

c)

RNA error

d)

Protein tag

86.

What is a gene mutation that occurs after fertilisation called?

a)

Inherited mutation

b)

Somatic mutation

c)

Germline mutation

d)

Silent mutation

87.

Which repair pathway is activated by double-strand DNA breaks?

a)

Mismatch repair

b)

Homologous recombination or non-homologous end joining (NHEJ)

c)

Base excision repair

d)

Spliceosome

88.

What is the role of the p53 protein in response to DNA damage?

a)

Forms mRNA

b)

Halts the cell cycle and initiates repair or apoptosis

89.

What is the name of the region of DNA that codes for ribosomal RNA?

a)

Telomere

b)

Promoter

c)

Nucleolar organiser region (NOR)

d)

Splice site

90.

What structure is formed at the ends of linear eukaryotic chromosomes?

a)

Centromere

b)

Telomere

c)

Nucleosome

d)

Enhancer

91.

What is the function of the 5’ UTR in mRNA?

a)

Codes for proteins

b)

Regulates translation initiation

c)

Splice introns

d)

Forms exons

92.

What is the 3’ UTR responsible for?

a)

Coding peptide chains

b)

Introns

c)

mRNA stability, localisation, and translation regulation

d)

DNA packaging

93.

What kind of RNA participates in mRNA degradation and silencing?

a)

rRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

miRNA (microRNA)

d)

snRNA

94.

What is the origin of microRNAs in cells?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Endogenous transcription from miRNA genes

c)

Protein degradation

d)

Intron splicing

95.

What RNA molecule guides modification of other RNAs in the nucleolus?

a)

siRNA

b)

snoRNA (small nucleolar RNA)

c)

mRNA

d)

tRNA

96.

What technique can detect mutations in DNA sequences?

a)

ELISA

b)

PCR and DNA sequencing

c)

SDS-PAGE

d)

Centrifugation

97.

What does PCR stand for?

a)

Protein chain reaction

b)

Polymerase chain reaction

c)

Phosphodiester cleavage reaction

d)

Photo-chromosomal regulation

98.

What is the role of DNA primers in PCR?

a)

Unwind DNA

b)

Provide a starting point for DNA polymerase

c)

Degrade DNA

d)

Add phosphate

99.

What temperature is used for DNA denaturation in PCR?

a)

45°C

b)

94-95°C

c)

72°C

d)

37°C

100.
DNA and RNA are examples of...
a)
proteins
b)
nucleic acids
c)
carbohydrates
d)
lipids
101.
What is the monomer of nucleic acids?
a)
Glycerol
b)
Monosaccharides
c)
Amino Acids
d)
Nucleotides
102.
What are the components of a nucleotide?
a)
nitrogen base, phosphate group, and pentose sugar
b)
pentose sugar, purine, and pyrimidine
c)
nitrogen base and a phosphate group
d)
DNA, phosphate group, monosaccharide
103.
What is the difference between DNA and RNA from the point of view of the nitrogenous bases that are present in their nucleotides?
a)
In DNA, nucleotides can be made up of A, T, C, G. In RNA, nucleotides can also contain A, C or G; however, instead of T, they contain U.
b)
Purine and Pyrimidine
c)
Pyrimidine: Thymine, Cytosine (Urical)
d)
DNA, RNA
104.
RNA contains the sugar...
a)
Deoxyribose
b)
Glucose
c)
Ribose
d)
Lipids
105.
Which macromolecule is shown?
a)
lipid
b)
protein
c)
nucleic acid
d)
carbohydrate
106.

What are 2 types of nucleic acids?

a)

Fatty Acids and Glycerol

b)

DNA and RNA

c)

Amino Acids and Enzymes

d)

Monosaccharides and Polysaccharides

107.

Which of the following is NOT part of a nucleotide?

a)

Nitrogenous Base

b)

Phosphate Group

c)

Pentose Sugar

d)

Fatty Acid

108.

What sugar is found in DNA?

a)

Glucose

b)

Ribose

c)

Deoxyribose

d)

Fructose

109.
Which of these is true about RNA?
a)
Has a double helix
b)
Has a single helix
c)
Contains thymine
110.
Which is the correct pairing?
a)
A-C
b)
A-T
c)
A-G
111.
Which is the correct pairing?
a)
T-C
b)
G-T
c)
G-C
112.
Adenine, Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine are what?
a)
Phosphates
b)
Sugars
c)
Nucleotides
d)
Bases
113.
What kind of bond holds the two strands of DNA together?
a)
Hydrogen bonds
b)
Ionic bonds
c)
Polar bonds
d)
Covalent bonds
114.

What is the shape of DNA?

a)

Double Hyperbola

b)

Paraolic

c)

Double Helix

d)

Linear

115.
What does DNA stand for?
a)
Deoxyribonucleic acid
b)
Denitrogenous acid
c)
Deribonucleic acid
d)
Diribonucleic acid
116.

Which of the following best describes the shape of DNA?

a)
double helix
b)

globular

c)

fibrils

d)
single stranded
117.
DNA is a polymer made of:
a)
Nucleotides
b)
Ribosomes
c)
Purines
d)
Pyrimidines
118.

A nucleotide is composed of

a)

A phosphate, sugar and nitrogenous base

b)

A protein, sulfur and guanine

c)

A phosphate, lipid and a base

d)

A protein, sugar and nitrogenous base

119.

What are the 4 nitrogenous bases?

a)

sugar, phosphate and a base

b)
adenine, thymine cytosine, and guanine
c)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and gylcerol
d)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and glucose
120.

The bonds that join nucleotides to form DNA and RNA are called:

a)
Peptide Bonds
b)
Ester Bonds
c)

Glycosidic Bonds

d)
Phosphodiester Bonds
121.
Adenine bonds with ______________.
a)
Guanine
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Adenine
122.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
123.

What forms the backbone of the DNA ladder?

a)

nitrogenous bases

b)

deoxyriboses and phosphates

c)

genes & chromosomes

d)

RNA

124.

What makes up the rungs (steps) of a DNA ladder?

a)

sugars & phosphates

b)

nitrogen bases

c)

sugars

d)

genes & chromosomes

125.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
126.
What will the matching sequence be on a strand that reads AAGCTAT?
a)
AACGATA
b)
TTCGTTA
c)
CCTGATA
d)
TTCGATA
127.

How is RNA different from DNA? Select all that apply.

a)

RNA contains the base thymine.

b)

RNA contains the sugar ribose.

c)

RNA contains the sugar deoxyribose.

d)

RNA contains the base uracil.

e)

RNA is single-stranded

128.

Which statement, A to D, describes the function of DNA polymerase?

a)

break the hydrogen bonds between complementary bases

b)

make phosphodiester bonds between adjacent nucleotides

c)

make phosphodiester bonds between polynucleotides

d)

make the hydrogen bonds between complementary bases

129.

Which of the following nucleotides contains uracil?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

C

130.

DNA is made up of two polynucleotide chains.

Which of the bonds, A to D, forms between two nitrogenous bases holding the two polynucleotide chains together?

a)

phosphodiester

b)

ionic

c)

covalent

d)

hydrogen

131.

The following table describes the approximate percentage mass of different chemical elements in organic polymers.

Which of the rows, A to D, is correct?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

132.

DNA is formed from three main groups of molecules: pentose sugars, phosphate groups and nitrogenous bases. The bases can be divided into purines and pyrimidines.


Identify the two purines below

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

133.

DNA carries the genetic code which is non-overlapping and degenerate.

Which of the options, A to D, contains the correct definitions for non-overlapping and degenerate code?

a)

Each nucleotide is only part of one triplet of bases and the molecule breaks down easily.

b)

The genes follow straight after each other and the molecule breaks down easily

c)

Each nucleotide is only part of one triplet of bases and more than one triplet codes for a specific amino acid

d)

The genes follow straight after each other and more than one triplet codes for a specific amino acid

134.

Which of the statements, A to D, shows that the genetic code is degenerate?

a)

CCA and CCT code for proline

b)

rRNA is manufactured in the nucleolus

c)

tRNA is not complementary to DNA

d)

uracil is not found in DNA

135.

The following statements are about the structure of DNA. Which of the following statement(s) is / are true?

Statement 1:

Purine bases pair with pyrimidine bases.

Statement 2:

Phosphodiester bonds link adjacent nucleotides.

Statement 3:

There are always equal amounts of adenine and guanine.

a)

1, 2 and 3

b)

Only 1 and 2

c)

Only 2 and 3

d)

Only 1

136.

An anticodon sequence of five successive tRNA molecules involved in protein synthesis was analysed and found to have the following percentage base composition. Adenine 40; Cytosine 27; Guanine 13; Thymine 0; Uracil 20 %
Which row shows the percentage base composition of the template strand of the original DNA molecule?

a)

Row A

b)

Row B

c)

Row C

d)

Row D

137.

A length of DNA has the base sequence AATCGCGGTCGCTCA.

Select the row that shows the correct complementary DNA strand and the sequence of mRNA made during transcription of the DNA sequence above

a)

Row A

b)

Row B

c)

Row C

d)

Row D

138.

Enzymes are capable of affecting the metabolism and structure of whole organisms. Which of the following enzymes will have the greatest effect on the development of an organism as a whole?

a)

Methyltransferase: adds methyl groups to DNA allowing genes to be switched on or off.

b)

Reverse transcriptase: generates complementary DNA from an RNA template

c)

Deoxyribonuclease: digests free DNA molecules outside of the nucleus

d)

Telomerase: lengthens ends of chromosomes by adding DNA sequences, preventing them from being degraded

139.

Which of the following statements is/are evidence that DNA replication is semiconservative?

1- After one replication, the number of adenine nucleotides is equal to the number of guanine nucleotides.

2- After two replications, two DNA molecules have one original and one new strand, and two DNA molecules have two new strands.

3- After three replications, there are eight DNA molecules, only two of which have strands from the original DNA.

a)

1, 2 and 3

b)

Only 1 and 2

c)

Only 2 and 3

d)

Only 1

140.

Which of the following processes occur during DNA replication?

1- breakage and (re)formation of phosphodiester bonds 

2- breakage and (re)formation of hydrogen bonds 

3- alignment of free nucleotides with their complementary bases

a)

1, 2 and 3

b)

Only 1 and 2

c)

Only 2 and 3

d)

Only 1

141.

A standard method can be used to extract DNA from the nuclei of cells in kiwi fruit. The statements below list some of the steps involved in this method. Which statement is not correct?

a)

chop the kiwi fruit to break open cell membranes

b)

add detergent to dissolve nuclear membranes

c)

add protease to digest histone proteins

d)

pour ice cold ethanol onto filtrate to precipitate DNA

142.

A sample of DNA containing only one isotope of nitrogen, 15N, was incubated with nucleotides containing only the 14N isotope along with the enzymes needed for replication. Which of the following diagrams would represent the resulting DNA after one round of replication?

a)

Diagram A

b)

Diagram B

c)

Diagram C

d)

Diagram D

143.

DNA is responsible for

a)

Creating ribosomes

b)

Storing genetic information

c)

Relaying genetic information to other parts of the cell

d)

Building proteins

144.

What is the monomer that make up nucleic acids?

a)

Monosaccarides

b)

Fatty Acids

c)

Amino Acids

d)

Nucleotides

145.
Which 2 molecules form the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)

ribose sugar and phosphate

b)
deoxyribose sugar and a hydrogen bond
c)

deoxyribose sugar and the bases

d)
deoxyribose sugar and phosphate
146.
Nitrogenous bases are joined by which type of bond?
a)
polar bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
147.

In prokaryotes, DNA

a)

is linearly arranged.

b)

is located in the ribosomes.

c)

floats freely in the cytoplasm.

d)

is located in the nucleus.

148.

The bonds that join nucleotides together in DNA and RNA are called:

a)

Peptide Bonds

b)

Ester Bonds

c)

Glycosidic Bonds

d)

Phosphodiester Bonds

149.
What is the difference between DNA and RNA in terms of bases?
a)
RNA contains uracil in place of thymine
b)
RNA contains uracil in place of adenine
c)
RNA contains uracil in place of guanine
d)
RNA contains uracil in place of  cytosine
150.
This picture is illustrating the ____ nature of DNA.
a)

anti-parallel

b)

deoxyribosic

c)

helical

d)

semi-conservative

151.

The picture below shows the steps of DNA replication beginning with step one and ending with step three.


​Because you are reusing the old, or parent, DNA strand DNA replication is said to be

a)

Semi- Conservative

b)

Semi-discontinuous

c)

Continuous

d)

Fully-Conserveative

152.

The picture below shows an enzyme unwinding and unzipping DNA.

​

​What is the name of this enzyme?

a)

DNA Helicase

b)

DNA Ligase

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

RNA Polymerase

153.
Okazaki fragments form on the:
a)
lagging strand
b)
leading strand
c)
base-pairs
d)
5' end
154.

Which enzyme joins the Okazaki fragments together?

a)

Helicase

b)

Polymerase

c)

Ligase

d)

Primerase

155.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
156.
Which 2 molecules form the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose sugar and adenine
b)
deoxyribose sugar and a hydrogen bond
c)
deoxyribose sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose sugar and phosphate
157.
What are the three components of a nucleotide?
a)
sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base
b)
sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base
c)
sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base
d)
sugar, phosphate, protein
158.
Adenine bonds with ______________.
a)
Guanine
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Adenine
159.
RNA contains the sugar
a)
ribose
b)
deoxyribose
c)
glucose
d)
lactose
160.
Which of the following statements is true?
a)
DNA is single-stranded
b)
RNA is single-stranded
c)
DNA contains uracil
d)
RNA contains deoxyribose
161.
What is the difference between DNA and RNA in terms of bases?
a)
RNA contains uracil in place of thymine
b)
RNA contains uracil in place of adenine
c)
RNA contains uracil in place of guanine
d)
RNA contains uracil in place of  cytosine
162.
I travel outside of the nucleus.
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
163.

Which organelle is the location where protein is made?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Nucleotide

164.

Where are chromosomes located inside the cell?

a)

The ribosome

b)

The nucleus

c)

The nuclear membrane

d)

The cell wall

165.

What is a monomer of nucleic acids made of 3 parts, a 5-carbon sugar, a phosphate group and a nitogenous base

a)

DNA

b)

Nucleotide

c)

Deoxyribose

d)

RNA

166.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
167.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
168.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
169.
Nitrogenous bases are joined by which type of bond?
a)
polar bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
170.

Primary functions of DNA are (mark all that apply)

a)

Transmit information on heredity from one generation to the next

b)

Control cellular respiration

c)

Regulate homeostasis

d)

Provide a blueprint for making proteins

171.

Which of the following are purines?

a)

adenine

b)

cytosine

c)

guanine

d)

thymine

e)

uracil

172.
How does RNA differ from DNA?
a)
RNA contains uracil and deoxyribose
b)
RNA contains ribose and thymine
c)
RNA contains uracil and ribose
d)
RNA contains adenine and ribose
173.
In RNA, Uracil pairs with ______. 
a)
cytosine
b)
adenine
c)
guanine
d)
thymine
174.

What are long chains of nucleotides called?

a)

Polyneucleotides

b)

Polysaccharides

c)

Long chains

d)

Polyaminoacids

175.

What are the three components of a nucleotide?

a)

Pentose Sugar, Nitrogenous base, Phosphate Group

b)

Deoxyribose, Uracil, Guanine

c)

Ribose Sugar, Adenine, Cytosine

d)

Thymine, Purines, Phosphodiester Bond

176.

Which component of a nucleotide can be either ribose or deoxyribose?

a)

Nitrogenous base

b)

Phosphate group

c)

Purines

d)

Pentose sugar

177.

Where are nitrogenous bases attached in a nucleotide?

a)

Second carbon of sugar

b)

Third carbon of sugar

c)

First carbon of sugar

d)

Fourth carbon of sugar

178.

How many types of nitrogenous bases are there in nucleotides?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

179.

Which of the following is a purine nitrogenous base?

a)

Cytosine

b)

Thymine

c)

Adenine

d)

Uracil

180.

Which nitrogenous base pairs with thymine (or uracil) with two hydrogen bonds?

a)

Cytosine

b)

Guanine

c)

Adenine

d)

Purines

181.

How many hydrogen bonds are formed between cytosine and guanine?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

182.

What is the combination of a nitrogenous base and a pentose sugar called?

a)

Nucleotide

b)

Phosphodiester Bond

c)

Nucleoside

d)

Purine

183.

How many phosphate groups can a nucleotide have?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

184.

How are two or more nucleotides attached to each other?

a)

Disulphide Bond

b)

Hydrogen Bond

c)

Ionic Bond

d)

Phosphodiester Bond

185.

With what do the nitrogenous bases of nucleotides form bonds?

a)

Phosphate Groups

b)

Pentose Sugar

c)

Complementary Bases

d)

Purines

186.

What is the primary function of ATP in a cell?

a)

DNA formation

b)

RNA formation

c)

Energy currency

d)

Protein synthesis

187.

What is the primary function of DNA in a cell?

a)

Energy storage

b)

Protein synthesis

c)

Transfer of genetic information

d)

ATP production

188.

What is the primary function of RNA in a cell?

a)

Energy storage

b)

Transfer of genetic information

c)

ATP production

d)

Protein synthesis

189.

What are the two broad categories of nucleic acids?

a)

Adenine and Guanine

b)

DNA and RNA

c)

Pentose Sugar and Phosphate Group

d)

Purines and Pyrimidines

190.

What is the type of sugar that DNA is made up of?

a)

Deoxyribose

b)

Ribose

c)

Adenine

d)

Guanine

191.

What type of sugar is RNA made up of?

a)

Ribose

b)

Deoxyribose

c)

Adenine

d)

Guanine

192.

What is the precursor of ATP?

a)

Ribose Sugar

b)

Adenosine diphosphate

c)

Phosphate Groups

d)

Nucleoside

193.

What type of molecule is ATP?

a)

Protein

b)

Nucleotide

c)

Carbohydrate

d)

Organic

194.

What type of nitrogenous base is adenine?

a)

Purine

b)

Pyrimidine

c)

Thymine

d)

Cytosine

195.

Which of the following is not a pyrimidine base?

a)

Uracil

b)

Thymine

c)

Cytosine

d)

Guanine

196.

What is the role of nucleic acids in living cells?

a)

Energy storage

b)

Movement

c)

Controlling cell processes

d)

Cell structure

197.

How many phosphate groups does ATP have?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

198.

What is the sugar component of ATP?

a)

Deoxyribose

b)

Ribose

c)

Adenine

d)

Thymine

199.

Which of the following is not involved in DNA formation?

a)

Deoxyribose

b)

Adenine

c)

Guanine

d)

Uracil

200.

What type of bond connects two or more nucleotides?

a)

Covalent bond

b)

Hydrogen bond

c)

Ionic bond

d)

Phosphodiester bond

201.

Which nucleotide base pairs with guanine using three hydrogen bonds?

a)

Adenine

b)

Cytosine

c)

Thymine

d)

Uracil

202.

Which component of a nucleotide forms the backbone of DNA and RNA?

a)

Nitrogenous base

b)

Phosphate and sugar groups

c)

Adenine

d)

Purines

203.

What is the building block of nucleic acids?

a)

Amino acids

b)

Nucleosides

c)

Nucleotides

d)

Carbohydrates

204.

Which nitrogenous base is unique to RNA and not found in DNA?

a)

Adenine

b)

Guanine

c)

Cytosine

d)

Uracil

205.

What is the function of a nucleotide with one phosphate group?

a)

Energy storage

b)

Protein synthesis

c)

Genetic information transfer

d)

Cell structure

206.

What is the difference between DNA and RNA?

a)

One has a pentose sugar

b)

One is made of nucleotides

c)

One is not a nucleic acid

d)

One is single stranded

Similar Resources on Wayground

AP BIOLOGY REVIEW SPRING 2018

201 questions

AP BIOLOGY REVIEW SPRING 2018

quiz

Worksheet

•

12th Grade - University