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Project Management MCQs

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the first phase of the project life cycle?

a)

Planning

b)

Initiation

c)

Execution

d)

Closure

2.

The document that formally authorizes the existence of a project is called:

a)

Project Scope

b)

Project Plan

c)

Project Charter

d)

Risk Register

3.

Which of the following is NOT part of the triple constraint?

a)

Cost

b)

Time

c)

Resources

d)

Scope

4.

The technique used to determine the longest path through a project is:

a)

Gantt Chart

b)

CPM

c)

PERT

d)

SWOT

5.

What does a Gantt chart primarily show?

a)

Quality of tasks

b)

Task duration and schedule

c)

Budget allocation

d)

Team roles

6.

In which phase is the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) created?

a)

Initiation

b)

Planning

c)

Execution

d)

Monitoring

7.

Which project management methodology emphasizes iterative development?

a)

Waterfall

b)

Agile

c)

Six Sigma

d)

PRINCE2

8.

A project stakeholder is:

a)

The project sponsor only

b)

The project manager only

c)

Anyone impacted by the project

d)

Only customers

9.

The primary responsibility of a project manager is to:

a)

Do the project work

b)

Supervise team hiring

c)

Ensure the project meets goals

d)

Handle all financial tasks

10.

A risk that has occurred is referred to as:

a)

A trigger

b)

An issue

c)

A mitigation

d)

An assumption

11.

What is the main goal of risk management?

a)

Eliminate all risks

b)

Avoid project costs

c)

Identify and control risks

d)

Track project quality

12.

Which of the following is a communication tool in project management?

a)

PERT

b)

RAID log

c)

Risk matrix

d)

Status report

13.

A project is considered successful when it meets:

a)

Stakeholder happiness

b)

Time, cost, and scope goals

c)

Market expectations

d)

Team satisfaction

14.

What is scope creep?

a)

A decrease in scope

b)

Project failure

c)

Uncontrolled changes to scope

d)

Completion delay

15.

Which process involves measuring project performance?

a)

Planning

b)

Monitoring and Controlling

c)

Executing

d)

Closing

16.

What does PERT stand for?

a)

Project Execution and Review Technique

b)

Program Evaluation and Review Technique

c)

Performance Evaluation and Resource Time

d)

Project Estimation and Resource Technique

17.

Which of the following is NOT a project constraint?

a)

Quality

b)

Time

c)

Authority

d)

Budget

18.

The person who provides financial resources for the project is the:

a)

Project manager

b)

Team leader

c)

Project sponsor

d)

Product owner

19.

What is a deliverable?

a)

A document

b)

Any result or output of a project

c)

A deadline

d)

A plan

20.

The process of breaking down tasks into smaller components is called:

a)

Scope planning

b)

Task listing

c)

Decomposition

d)

Milestone planning

21.

In Agile, who prioritizes the product backlog?

a)

Scrum Master

b)

Team leader

c)

Product Owner

d)

Project Manager

22.

A burn-down chart is used in:

a)

Waterfall

b)

Six Sigma

c)

Agile/Scrum

d)

PRINCE2

23.

Which document outlines how a project will be executed and controlled?

a)

Project Scope Statement

b)

Project Management Plan

c)

Risk Register

d)

Milestone Chart

24.

What is a milestone in project management?

a)

A failed task

b)

A budget approval

c)

A significant point or event

d)

A contract

25.

Which of the following is NOT part of cost management?

a)

Budgeting

b)

Estimating

c)

Reporting

d)

Controlling

26.

What does a project schedule primarily address?

a)

Scheduling

b)

Quality assurance

c)

Risk planning

d)

Scope definition

27.

In Scrum, who facilitates the daily stand-up meeting?

a)

Product Owner

b)

Project Manager

c)

Scrum Master

d)

Stakeholder

28.

The primary output of the Closing phase is:

a)

Risk analysis

b)

Sprint backlog

c)

Final product and documentation

d)

Issue log

29.

What is the RAID log used for?

a)

Tracking project hours

b)

A document listing Risks, Assumptions, Issues, Dependencies

c)

Recording meeting minutes

d)

Managing team members

30.

The primary purpose of stakeholder analysis is:

a)

Assigning project roles

b)

Scheduling meetings

c)

To engage and communicate with stakeholders

d)

Calculating budgets

31.

Earned Value Management (EVM) is used to:

a)

Assign tasks to team members

b)

Identify risks early

c)

Measure project performance

d)

Create work breakdown structures

32.

What does crashing a project schedule involve?

a)

Cancelling activities

b)

Increasing scope

c)

Shorten project schedule

d)

Reducing project cost

33.

What is the purpose of a project kick-off meeting?

a)

Close the project

b)

Assign project team roles

c)

Introduce the project to stakeholders

d)

Conduct testing

34.

In Agile, what is a time-boxed iteration called?

a)

Epic

b)

Sprint

c)

Milestone

d)

Release

35.

What is the first step in risk management?

a)

Risk analysis

b)

Risk identification

c)

Risk control

d)

Risk transfer

36.

Which of the following is NOT a part of quality management?

a)

Quality planning

b)

Quality assurance

c)

Auditing

d)

Quality control

37.

What are the three components of the Project Management Triangle?

a)

Time, Resources, Money

b)

Scope, Time, Cost

c)

Time, Team, Technology

d)

Cost, Risk, Quality

38.

A graphical representation of project activities and dependencies is called a:

a)

Gantt chart

b)

Network diagram

c)

Work package

d)

Risk matrix

39.

Which process ensures that project objectives are met by monitoring and measuring progress?

a)

Planning

b)

Initiating

c)

Controlling

d)

Closing

40.

Who removes obstacles for the team in Scrum?

a)

Product Owner

b)

Project Sponsor

c)

Scrum Master

d)

Stakeholder

41.

When is a sprint review held in Scrum?

a)

Before the sprint starts

b)

After each sprint

c)

During planning

d)

Only at project end

42.

In which phase is a feasibility study typically conducted?

a)

Initiating

b)

Planning

c)

Executing

d)

Closing

43.

What is the main benefit of a project management information system (PMIS)?

a)

Higher product quality

b)

Better communication and tracking

c)

More meetings

d)

Lower costs

44.

The baseline plan is used to measure:

a)

Quality performance

b)

The original approved plan

c)

Stakeholder satisfaction

d)

Team performance

45.

In project scheduling, “float” refers to:

a)

Total time taken by a project

b)

Unused budget

c)

The amount of time a task can be delayed

d)

Project completion date

46.

In a functional organization, who has the most authority?

a)

Project manager

b)

Functional manager

c)

Scrum master

d)

Sponsor

47.

What does a RACI matrix clarify?

a)

Risk management steps

b)

Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed roles

c)

Project budget planning

d)

Gantt chart symbols

48.

In Agile, what is the sprint backlog?

a)

Completed tasks

b)

A list of stakeholders

c)

A list of tasks for the sprint

d)

Project issues log

49.

Quality assurance ensures:

a)

Reduced costs

b)

Meeting customer requirements

c)

Increased risks

d)

Avoiding delays

50.

Which of the following best defines a project?

a)

Permanent and routine work

b)

Temporary effort to create a unique product/service

c)

Ongoing operational task

d)

Repetitive business function