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APQP 3rd Edition

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 14mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How many phases are there in APQP 3rd Edition?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

2.

Which APQP phase includes development of the DFMEA?

a)

Phase 1 - Planning and Definition

b)

Phase 2 - Product Design and Development

c)

Phase 3 - Process Design and Development

d)

Phase 4 - Product and Process Validation

3.

Which of the following is an input to Phase 4 (Product and Process Validation)?

a)

Voice of the Customer

b)

Prototype test reports

c)

Warranty data analysis

d)

Lessons learned report

4.

Which deliverable is typically first drafted in Phase 3?

a)

Control Plan (initial draft)

b)

PPAP package

c)

Final Control Plan

d)

Appearance Approval Report (AAR)

5.

True or False: "Run‑at‑Rate" is mandatory for a Level 3 PPAP submission.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

What is the primary purpose of a Control Plan?

a)

Identify customer requirements

b)

Define process steps only

c)

Document how key product/process characteristics are monitored and controlled

d)

Record warranty claims

7.

In which phase is the Process Flow Diagram (PFD) first detailed?

a)

Phase 1

b)

Phase 2

c)

Phase 3

d)

Phase 4

8.

True or False: The supplier submits the PPAP package to an external certification body.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

What does "VOC" stand for in APQP?

a)

Validation of Controls

b)

Voice of the Customer

c)

Verification of Capacity

d)

Value‑of‑Cost

10.

Which APQP output captures project insights for future programs?

a)

DFMEA

b)

Lessons Learned report

c)

Prototype build record

d)

Initial Control Plan

11.

Which activity typically occurs during the APQP Kick‑off Meeting?

a)

Run‑at‑Rate trial

b)

Root Cause Analysis

c)

Team roles and timeline alignment

d)

Warranty data collection

12.

Which of these is not normally part of a PPAP Level 3 submission?

a)

Part Submission Warrant (PSW)

b)

DFMEA

c)

Customer Feedback report

d)

Measurement System Analysis (MSA)

13.

MSA refers to:

a)

Material Specification Analysis

b)

Measurement System Analysis

c)

Manufacturing Sequence Audit

d)

Method and Sequence Assessment

14.

The Prototype Build is a deliverable of which phase?

a)

Phase 1

b)

Phase 2

c)

Phase 3

d)

Phase 4

15.

True or False: The Final Control Plan is released in Phase 4.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

What does "AAR" stand for in PPAP?

a)

Advanced Audit Report

b)

Appearance Approval Report

c)

Assembly Acceptance Record

d)

Approval Action Request

17.

A Process Flow Diagram (PFD) shows:

a)

Failure modes and effects

b)

Sequence of manufacturing steps

c)

Control limits for key characteristics

d)

Customer requirements

18.

Which tool is used to identify causes of a nonconformance after it occurs?

a)

DFMEA

b)

5‑Why Root Cause Analysis

c)

PPAP

d)

Control Plan

19.

What does QFD stand for?

a)

Quality Function Deployment

b)

Quality Failure Determination

c)

Quantitative Flow Diagram

d)

Quick Feedback Design

20.

The Initial Sample Inspection Report (ISIR) is typically produced in which phase?

a)

Phase 2

b)

Phase 3

c)

Phase 4

d)

Phase 5

21.

Which PPAP document formally indicates the supplier's commitment that all customer requirements are met?

a)

Appearance Approval Report (AAR)

b)

Part Submission Warrant (PSW)

c)

Control Plan

d)

Measurement System Analysis (MSA)

22.

Which APQP deliverable is updated continuously throughout production to reflect current process controls and lessons learned?

a)

DFMEA

b)

Control Plan

c)

Prototype Build Record

d)

Project Closure Report

23.

True or False: Lessons Learned from one program become inputs into Phase 1 of the next APQP project.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

What is the primary purpose of the Gate Review introduced in APQP 3rd Edition?

a)

To certify tooling readiness

b)

To formally evaluate phase outputs before moving to the next phase

c)

To conduct supplier audits

d)

To finalize the PPAP package

25.

True or False: In APQP 3rd Edition, a Gate Review is required at the end of every one of the five phases.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Which group typically participates in a Gate Review?

a)

Only the project manager

b)

Cross‑functional team members (Engineering, Manufacturing, Quality, Purchasing, etc.)

c)

External auditors only

d)

Marketing department only

27.

At the end of Phase 2 - Product Design and Development, the Gate Review is commonly called the:

a)

Design Validation Gate

b)

Design Release Gate

c)

Production Readiness Gate

d)

Feedback & Corrective Action Gate

28.

True or False: One outcome of a Gate Review can be a "Go/No‑Go" decision to proceed, hold, or rollback activities.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Which deliverable must be presented at the Phase 3 Gate Review to demonstrate process controls are in place?

a)

Final Control Plan

b)

Initial Control Plan and PFMEA with risk mitigations

c)

Warranty Data Analysis

d)

Lessons Learned report

30.

The Phase 4 Gate Review is often referred to as the:

a)

Production Launch Readiness Review

b)

Feasibility Assessment Gate

c)

Concept Approval Gate

d)

Feedback Assessment Gate

31.

True or False: Gate Reviews replace the need for a final PPAP submission.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

Which of the following is not typically an agenda item at a Gate Review?

a)

Review of phase deliverables vs. success criteria

b)

Identification of open issues and action owners

c)

Formal hand‑off of responsibility to the next phase team

d)

Detailed line‑balancing studies (only covered in Phase 5)

33.

What documentation should attendees sign off during each Gate Review?

a)

Project Closure Report

b)

Gate Review Checklist with "Go/No‑Go" decision recorded

c)

Warranty Claims Log

d)

Customer Feedback Form

34.

Which new concept is emphasized throughout all APQP 3rd Edition phases to reduce failure likelihood?

a)

Warranty tracking

b)

Continuous improvement

c)

Risk management

d)

Process benchmarking

35.

In APQP 3rd Edition, how is "Change Management" treated?

a)

Optional and only needed in Phase 5

b)

A core activity that should be applied across all phases

c)

Only relevant to suppliers

d)

Documented only after PPAP approval

36.

Which project management tool is emphasized more in APQP 3rd Edition to monitor status and accountability?

a)

Gantt chart or timeline tracking

b)

SPC chart

c)

Fishbone diagram

d)

Control chart

37.

Which of the following is an expected benefit of applying structured Lessons Learned?

a)

Increased project cost

b)

Duplication of design issues

c)

Reduction in recurring problems

d)

More frequent engineering changes

38.

What is the main purpose of supplier risk assessment in APQP 3rd Edition?

a)

Identify the most expensive suppliers

b)

Evaluate supplier pricing strategies

c)

Identify and mitigate potential delivery or quality issues early

d)

Track order volume

39.

Which of the following documents would most likely be updated as a result of a structured change management process?

a)

Control Plan

b)

Warranty Report

c)

Lessons Learned Summary

d)

Calibration Log

40.

Which APQP 3rd Edition element helps ensure knowledge is captured and reused?

a)

Prototype Build Report

b)

Traceability Matrix

c)

Lessons Learned System

d)

DFMEA Review Form