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Type III Practice Questions

Total questions: 33

Worksheet time: 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What type of equipment can be worked on with Type III certification?

a)

High-pressure

b)

Medium-pressure

c)

Low-pressure

d)

Vacuum pressure

2.

The most efficient method of leak checking a charged low-pressure refrigeration unit is to

a)

pressurize the system using controlled hot water or heater blankets.

b)

pull a 500-micron vacuum and hold for at least 12 minutes.

c)

pull a 20-inch vacuum and hold for at least 24 hours.

d)

pull a 29.9-inch vacuum and hold for at least 24 hours.

3.

When pressurizing a low-pressure system for leak-detection purposes, do not exceed

a)

5 psig

b)

10 psig

c)

15 psig

d)

20 psig

4.

How long would an equipment owner or operator have to retrofit or retire an appliance that has exceeded the threshold leak rate if the replacement appliance uses 50 pounds or more of an exempt refrigerant?

a)

24 months.

b)

18 months.

c)

12 months.

d)

3 months.

5.

The EPA-required evacuation level for recovery or recycling equipment used on low-pressure systems is

a)

inches Hg.

b)

inches Hg.

c)

mm of Hg absolute.

d)

inches Hg absolute

6.

Where is refrigerant added to a low-pressure system during the charging process?

a)

The access valve on the purge unit entering the condenser.

b)

The lowest access point on the system such as the condenser charging valve.

c)

The highest access point on the system such as the evaporator inlet valve.

d)

The lowest access point on the system such as the evaporator charging valve.

7.

What can be used to pressurize a chiller system before opening the system for a non-major repair?

a)

Controlled hot water

b)

Nitrogen

c)

R-409A

d)

Compressed air

8.

Which of the following best describes the refrigerant recovery process from an R-123 system?

a)

Start with vapor removal and then switch over to liquid recovery.

b)

Start with liquid removal and then switch over to vapor recovery.

c)

Run the compressor and only recover refrigerant in the liquid state.

d)

Run the compressor and only recover refrigerant in the vapor state.

9.

If a strong odor is detected during the recovery process,

a)

the refrigerant is most likely R-717 (Ammonia).

b)

the purge unit on the condenser has opened.

c)

a compressor burn-out may have occurred.

d)

it is a good indicator that R-123 is the refrigerant being recovered.

10.

When installing more than one, pressure relief valves must be installed;

a)

in series with each other.

b)

in parallel with each other.

c)

in the system’s suction line.

d)

on top of compressor head.

11.

The owner must keep records of refrigerant added to a low-pressure system during service and maintenance if the system charge is;

a)

25 pounds or greater.

b)

50 pounds or greater.

c)

100 pounds or greater.

d)

150 pounds or greater.

12.

After all the liquid has been removed from an average 350-ton, low-pressure appliance, approximately how much vapor refrigerant remains in the system?

a)

100 pounds

b)

150 pounds

c)

350 pounds

d)

45 pounds

13.

When charging a low-pressure system, refrigerant should be introduced to the system as a vapor to raise the system’s saturation temperature to a minimum of;

a)

0 degrees.

b)

36 degrees.

c)

40 degrees.

d)

70 degrees

14.

Where do purge unit suction line come from in low pressure systems?

a)

The top of the condenser.

b)

In the lowest location.

c)

Above the shell.

d)

Before the oil separator.

15.

In a low-pressure chiller, air and other non-condensables collect at the;

a)

bottom of the compressor.

b)

top section of the condenser.

c)

bottom of the evaporator.

16.

The rupture disk on a low-pressure chiller has a burst pressure of;

a)

5 psig

b)

10 psig

c)

15 psig

d)

20 psig

17.

The Standard for machine room safety is;

a)

ASHRAE-15

b)

ASHRAE-34

c)

AHRI-740

d)

EPA-740

18.

Which organization establishes the refrigerant safety group standard?

a)

AHRI

b)

UL

c)

ASHRAE

d)

ASE

19.

A low-pressure chiller used for comfort cooling must be repaired if it has an annual leak rate of ________ of the total charge.

a)

10 percent

b)

20 percent

c)

30 percent

d)

50 percent

20.

Under ASHRAE Standard 34, R-134a is classified as;

a)

A1

b)

A2

c)

B1

d)

B2

21.

Because a low-pressure system operates below atmospheric pressure (in a vacuum),

a)

the system is unlikely to have air and moisture enter the system.

b)

leaks in gaskets or fittings will cause air and moisture to enter the system.

c)

leaks in the gaskets or fittings will cause substantial refrigerant leaks.

d)

leaks in the gaskets or fittings will cause oil clogging at the condenser.

22.

To repair a chiller operating with R-22, the technician;

a)

does not need a certification.

b)

must have a Type I certification.

c)

must have a Type II certification.

d)

must have a Type III certification.

23.

Which of the following refrigerants has a safety classification of B-1

a)

CFC-12 (R-12)

b)

HFC-134a (R-134a)

c)

R-123

d)

HCFC - 11

24.

During evacuation of systems with large amounts of water, it may be necessary to:

a)

increase pressure by introducing nitrogen to counteract freezing.

b)

purge the condenser by removing nitrogen to encourage freezing.

c)

drain the compressor by removing nitrogen to encourage freezing.

d)

decrease pressure by introducing nitrogen to counteract freezing.

25.

When leak testing a low-pressure chiller, the maximum pressure to use is:

a)

5 psig.

b)

10 psig.

c)

15 psig.

d)

20 psig.

26.

Because a low-pressure system operates below atmospheric pressure (vacuum), leaks in the gasket or fittings will:

a)

Cause the oil to gel and sludge.

b)

Cause air and moisture to enter the system.

c)

Seal automatically, after a period of time.

d)

Not be a problem at all.

27.

What can be used to pressurize a system for the purpose of opening the system for a non-major repair?

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Air

c)

Controlled hot water

d)

R-22 and Nitrogen

28.

A recovery unit’s high-pressure cut-out is set for:

a)

psig when evacuating the refrigerant from a low-pressure chiller.

b)

psig when evacuating the refrigerant from a low-pressure chiller.

c)

psig when evacuating the refrigerant from a low-pressure chiller.

d)

psig when evacuating the refrigerant from a low-pressure chiller

29.

ASHRAE Guideline 3-1996 states that if the pressure in a system rises from 1 mm Hg to a level above 2.5 mm Hg during vacuum testing, the system:

a)

Must have a leak test performed.

b)

Is well within the leak-proof guidelines.

c)

Is only settling in the system.

d)

Does not need to be leak checked.

30.

When removing oil from a low-pressure system, a temperature of what must be attained?

a)

50 degrees F.

b)

75 degrees F.

c)

100 degrees F.

d)

130 degrees F.

31.

Refrigerant recovery from a system using R-11 or R-123 starts with recovery of:

a)

Vapor, followed by liquid.

b)

Liquid removal, followed by vapor.

c)

Liquid recovery only.

d)

Vapor recovery only.

32.

Water must be circulated through the tubes when evacuating refrigerant in order to prevent:

a)

Oil problems.

b)

Refrigerant Leaks.

c)

Water from freezing.

d)

Water leaks.

33.

Before charging with liquid, how much pressure does a HFO-1233zd refrigeration system require (vapor pressure), and how much saturation temperature?

a)

20.9 Psig and 45 degrees F.

b)

10 Psig and 25 degrees F.

c)

16.9" hg. Vacuum or 36 degrees F.

d)

0 Psig Vacuum and 0 degrees F.