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EPA Review -- CORE pt 1 (English)

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What makes HFOs less flammable than HCs?

a)

Presence of hydrogen

b)

Presence of carbon

c)

Presence of fluorine

d)

Presence of chlorine

2.

What is a common issue with HFOs compared to traditional refrigerants?

a)

They operate at lower temperatures

b)

They have a shorter lifetime

c)

They operate at higher compressor discharge temperatures

d)

They are less efficient

3.

What does GWP stand for in the context of refrigerants?

a)

Global Warming Potential

b)

General Water Pollution

c)

Greenhouse Waste Product

d)

Global Weather Prediction

4.

What was the goal of the program established by the 1990 amendments regarding CFCs?

a)

Increasing production

b)

Phasing out production and use

c)

Selling more CFCs

d)

Designing new CFCs

5.

By what year were halons completely phased out under the Montreal Protocol?

a)

1994

b)

1992

c)

1990

d)

2010

6.

What is required for MVAC service technicians under the Clean Air Act?

a)

Section 608 certification

b)

Section 609 certification

c)

Section 610 certification

d)

Section 611 certification

7.

What change did the EPA make to the 2016 ruling regarding refrigerant management?

a)

Increased refrigerant production limits

b)

Removed mandatory leak repair for zero ODP refrigerants

c)

Required new refrigerant labeling

d)

Banned all substitute refrigerants

8.

Which type of refrigerant is exempt from the amended leakage rate and recordkeeping requirements as of 2018?

a)

Refrigerants with high ODP

b)

Refrigerants with zero ODP

c)

Refrigerants with low GWP

d)

Refrigerants with high GWP

9.

What percentage of the system charge does a leak rate of 10 pounds per month represent for a system containing 100 pounds of charge?

a)

5%

b)

10%

c)

15%

d)

20%

10.

What is the consequence if a technician fails to demonstrate their ability to perform proper procedures for recovering refrigerant?

a)

A fine is issued

b)

Certification is revoked

c)

A warning is given

d)

No consequence

11.

How can recovery equipment be categorized?

a)

By color and size.

b)

By brand and model.

c)

Into self-contained and system-dependent equipment.

d)

By price and warranty.

12.

What could the EPA do for minor violations of equipment use?

a)

Ignore the violations.

b)

Suspend certification for a period of time.

c)

Offer a reward.

d)

Promote the technician.

13.

What is the EPA's requirement for refrigerant recovery from refrigeration equipment?

a)

To ignore refrigerants.

b)

To recover refrigerants.

c)

To add more refrigerants.

d)

To leave refrigerants in place.

14.

Which protocol is used to test equipment for compliance with EPA standards?

a)

AHRI 740 test protocol

b)

EPA 123 test protocol

c)

R-290 test protocol

d)

ISO 9001 test protocol

15.

What should be done to prevent air and contaminants from entering the system when it is opened?

a)

Use a self-contained unit

b)

Break the vacuum with nitrogen

c)

Use system-dependent equipment

d)

Recycle the refrigerant

16.

What is a leak test trace gas mixture used for?

a)

To cool the system

b)

To pressurize the system and detect leaks

c)

To clean the system

d)

To replace refrigerants

17.

What must be done after repairs are made to a system?

a)

Add a large quantity of refrigerant

b)

Add a small quantity of refrigerant

c)

Replace the entire system

d)

Vent the system

18.

What is the requirement for acidity under the AHRI 700 standard?

a)

Less than 0.1%

b)

Less than 0.01%

c)

Less than 1%

d)

Less than 0.001%

19.

What is the requirement for nonvolatile residue under the AHRI 700 standard?

a)

Less than 10 ppm

b)

Less than 100 ppm

c)

Less than 50 ppm

d)

Less than 200 ppm

20.

What is the purpose of the EPA's Section 608 Recycling Program?

a)

To promote new refrigerants

b)

To ensure compliance with refrigerant recovery

c)

To ban all refrigerants

d)

To increase refrigerant production

21.

What is the charge size limitation for flammable refrigerants in household refrigerators?

a)

57 g (0.13 lb)

b)

150 g (0.35 lb)

c)

200 g (0.44 lb)

d)

100 g (0.22 lb)

22.

Where can flammable refrigerants like propane and isobutane be purchased?

a)

HVAC/R supply houses

b)

Grocery stores

c)

Online retailers

d)

Gas stations

23.

What does the 609 MVAC certification allow?

a)

Purchase of any refrigerant in any size container

b)

Purchase of CFCs only

c)

Purchase of HCFCs only

d)

Purchase of HFCs only

24.

What is the saturation pressure of a disposable R-410 cylinder with one pound of refrigerant at 90°F?

a)

100 psig

b)

150 psig

c)

277 psig

d)

300 psig

25.

What is the recommended action if a cylinder is forgotten and left lying around?

a)

Leave it as is

b)

Store it in a safe place

c)

Discard or recycle it

d)

Use it for another purpose

26.

What is the temperature behavior of R-22 at 200 psig?

a)

It boils at 101 °F

b)

It condenses at 150 °F

c)

It freezes at 32 °F

d)

It evaporates at 50 °F

27.

What happens to the volumetric composition of non-azeotropic blends during evaporation or condensation?

a)

It remains constant.

b)

It changes at constant pressure.

c)

It separates into individual components.

d)

It behaves like a single refrigerant.

28.

What is a characteristic of near-azeotropic refrigerant blends?

a)

They have a large temperature glide.

b)

They are identical to azeotropic blends.

c)

They have a very small temperature glide.

d)

They cannot be used in HVAC systems.

29.

At what temperature does R-410A begin evaporation at 200 psig?

a)

69.5 °F

b)

70.0 °F

c)

68.0 °F

d)

71.5 °F

30.

What is the primary difference between azeotropic and near-azeotropic blends?

a)

Azeotropic blends have a larger temperature glide.

b)

Near-azeotropic blends have a larger temperature glide.

c)

Near-azeotropic blends have a smaller temperature glide.

d)

Azeotropic blends cannot be used in HVAC systems.