WorksheetsUnderstanding Balance and Movement Mechanics
Total questions: 30
Worksheet time: 30mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What is the process in which neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles? </span>
a)
Autogenic inhibition
b)
Isometric contraction
c)
Stretch reflex
d)
Reciprocal inhibition
2.
What is a proper regression if a client cannot perform the lunge exercise correctly?
a)
Step-ups
b)
Single-leg squat
c)
Barbell clean
d)
Depth jump
3.
Which component of SAQ involves the ability to react to a stimulus (i.e., reaction time) and appropriately change the motion of the body in response to that stimulus (such as hitting a baseball)?
a)
Quickness
b)
Speed
c)
Agility
d)
Stride rate
4.
A client is performing the multiplanar step-up, balance, curl to overhead press exercise. During the movement, their low-back arches. Which muscles are potentially overactive and underactive?
a)
Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals
b)
Overactive core stabilizers and underactive hip flexors
c)
Overactive hip adductors and underactive gluteus medius
d)
Overactive upper trapezius and underactive lower trapezius
5.
Which balance training exercise is part of the second stage of balance training that uses dynamic, eccentric, and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion?
a)
Single-leg squat
b)
Single-leg balance
c)
Single-leg lift and chop
d)
Multiplanar hop with stabilization
6.
What is the most important reason that a Certified Personal Trainer should make sure an older adult has been cleared by the medical provider to take part in a balance training program?
a)
To ensure safety
b)
To enhance enjoyment of exercise
c)
To make sure the program is difficult enough
d)
To make sure the client isn't doing too much exercise
7.
What is shortest time period per day that balance training should be conducted 3 times per week for 4 weeks in order to improve both static and dynamic balance ability in children?
a)
10 minutes
b)
35 minutes
c)
2 minutes
d)
5 minutes
8.
The risk of which lower-extremity injury was decreased in female basketball athletes who participated in a 5-week balance training program that improved landing movement mechanics?
a)
Anterior cruciate ligament injury
b)
Shoulder injury
c)
Foot injury
d)
Patellar fracture
9.
When performing a dumbbell biceps curl, the biceps brachii is considered the agonist (prime mover), and the triceps become the inhibited antagonist. What is this phenomenon called?
a)
Reciprocal inhibition
b)
Isometric contraction
c)
Stretch reflex
d)
Autogenic inhibition
10.
Which form of SAQ training is characterized by the ability to start, stop, and change direction in response to a signal or stimulus quickly while maintaining postural control?
a)
Agility
b)
Speed
c)
Quickness
d)
Stride rate
11.
Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural control within a stationary limit of stability but with a moving base of support?
a)
Semi-dynamic balance
b)
Static balance
c)
Dynamic balance
d)
Moderate-level balance
12.
Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining angular accelerations of the head while bending over to pick something up off the ground.
a)
Vestibular
b)
Somatosensory
c)
Visual
d)
Sensorimotor function
13.
Your client Ethan presents with an overactive/shortened quadriceps group, which is causing the hamstrings to be underactive/lengthened. What is this phenomenon called?
a)
Altered reciprocal inhibition
b)
Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS)
c)
Overtraining syndrome
d)
Eccentric overload
14.
If forward head posture is permitted during the drawing-in maneuver, what muscle may be preferentially activated, leading to poor muscle balance throughout the spine?
a)
Sternocleidomastoid
b)
Diaphragm
c)
Rhomboids
d)
Upper trapezius
15.
Which muscle would you be targeting for SMR if you placed the roller along the front and slightly lateral (outside) part of the upper thigh (just below the pelvis)?
a)
Tensor fascia latae
b)
Piriformis
c)
Thoracic spine
d)
Adductors
16.
What is defined as the enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to being recruited to develop increased levels of tension, as seen in resistance training?
a)
Muscular hypertrophy
b)
Sarcopenia
c)
Osteopenia
d)
Muscular atrophy
17.
What is one advantage of using the Karvonen method (heart rate reserve or HRR) to calculate training heart rates, versus percentage of maximal heart rate (HRmax)?
a)
It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate.
b)
It is performed simply on the fly, right in the gym.
c)
It does not use resting heart rate, so it is easier to estimate.
d)
This formula focuses on age to calculate training based on heart rate.
18.
In which phase of training would a person want to spend more time if they were looking to become better at beach volleyball and already has adequate leg strength?
a)
Power Training
b)
Stabilization Endurance Training
c)
Strength Endurance Training
d)
Muscular Development Training
19.
If a client is exercising for 150 minutes per week (30 minutes, 5 days per week), then a 10% increase in volume would result in how many minutes total per week?
a)
165 minutes per week
b)
150 minutes per week
c)
125 minutes per week
d)
180 minutes per week
20.
What variable of plyometric training is determined by the client's fitness level, current training program, training history, injury history, and training goals?
a)
Training frequency
b)
Volume
c)
Recovery
d)
Intensity
21.
The development of muscular endurance of the legs requires light weights and high repetitions when performing leg-related exercises. What is this an example of?
a)
Mechanical specificity
b)
Neuromuscular specificity
c)
Metabolic specificity
d)
Posture specificity
22.
The development of muscular endurance of the legs requires light weights and high repetitions when performing leg-related exercises. What is this an example of?
a)
Mechanical specificity
b)
Neuromuscular specificity
c)
Metabolic specificity
d)
Posture specificity
23.
Which term describes the act of lightly pushing on a client’s shoulders when they are balancing on one foot so they can learn to maintain or recover balance?
a)
Perturbation
b)
Neuromuscular control
c)
Somatosensation
d)
Sensorimotor function
24.
Other than age, training history, and injury history, what screening tool is most beneficial in assessing whether a client is ready for plyometric training?
a)
Movement assessments
b)
Body composition assessments
c)
PAR-Q+
d)
Strength assessments
25.
What is the recommendation of minutes per week for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)?
a)
75 minutes per week
b)
60 minutes per week
c)
90 minutes per week
d)
120 minutes per week
26.
To increase the metabolic demand of SAQ exercises among weight-loss clients, which of the following adjustments to a workout session could be implemented?
a)
Decreased rest periods
b)
Decreased intensity
c)
Fewer exercises
d)
Increased complexity of exercises
27.
When a muscle is held during a stretch for a prolonged period, the GTO is activated, which results in the muscle relaxing. What is this action called?
a)
Autogenic inhibition
b)
Isometric contraction
c)
Stretch reflex
d)
Reciprocal inhibition
28.
What is defined as the ability to react and change body position with maximal force production, in all planes of motion, and from all body positions?
a)
Quickness
b)
Speed
c)
Agility
d)
Strength
29.
Which pressing exercise would be appropriate for someone who has high levels of upper-body strength but has no equipment because they are traveling?
a)
Handstand push-up
b)
Leg press
c)
Chin-ups
d)
Sit-ups
30.
Which phase of training would a person who just completed a Muscular Development Training program want to go back to for some corrective assistance?
a)
Stabilization Endurance Training
b)
Strength Endurance Training
c)
Power Training
d)
Maximal Strength Training
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