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UNIT 2 BLOCK 2

Total questions: 104

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Responsible for the safekeeping and management of inventories and must use the Physical Inventory Control Program

a)
Warehouse Supervisor
b)
Logistics Coordinator
c)
Supply Chain Analyst
d)

LRS CC/APO

2.

Conducted using the closed warehouse method for inventories

a)

Open warehouse Counts

b)

Partial inventory

c)

Direct shipment Counts

d)

Complete Inventory Counts

3.

This Freeze Code designates items under a complete inventory and is automatically assigned

a)

Freeze Code “A”

b)

Freeze Code “C”

c)

Freeze Code “I”

d)

Freeze Code “1GP”

4.

Emergency issues will be recorded on what?

a)

Emergency issues document

b)

financial issues

c)

Inventory recap sheet

d)

Emergency record sheet

5.

This inventory count reconciles out-of-balance conditions discovered other than complete inventory counts

a)

Reconciliation counts

b)

Cycle counts

c)

Special Inventory Counts

d)
Inventory audit
6.

The purpose of this is to assign freeze code “I“ to the item and detail records when an out-of-balance condition exists.

a)

Special Inventory Counts

b)

Special Inventory Interrogation Input

c)

Complete Inventory Counts

d)

Detail Record Freeze Input

7.

Who will ensure the Physical Inventory control section and warehouse personnel coordinate closely during the creating of the warehouse location validation & inventory schedules

a)
Inventory Clerk
b)
Logistics Coordinator
c)

LRS CC/APO

d)
Warehouse Supervisor
8.

Warehouse personnel will obtain the inventory schedule and perform and document warehouse validations within how many days prior to start?

a)

5 work days

b)

10 work days

c)

7 work days

d)

3 work days

9.

What is the preferred method for inventory procedures

a)

ILS-S Inventory Function

b)

Reject Management Function

c)

AFMC SCM-R Function

d)

none of the above

10.

What assigns, and controls freeze code “C”

a)
Version control system
b)

Physical Inventory Control Section

c)
Project management tool
d)
Configuration management system
11.

Submit request how many days before the inventory count deadline date?

a)

One day before

b)

Four days before

c)

Five work days before

d)

4 work days before

12.

Physical Inventory Control Section will establish an inventory schedule by when?

a)

Quarterly

b)

Fiscal Year

c)
Every month
d)

Semiannually

13.

Who serves as the primary contact with units managing repair cycle assets

a)
Warehouse Supervisor
b)
Inventory Analyst
c)
Procurement Officer
d)

Flight Service Center

14.

Who is responsible for accepting and reviewing return documentation, processing base-level repairs, off-base repairs, found on-base returns for supply-type items?

a)
Quality control inspectors
b)

Flight Service Center

c)
Warehouse staff
d)
Customer service representatives
15.

Any Recoverable item with an ERRC of XD or XF

a)

Repair Cycle Asset

b)

Repair Cycle Record

c)

TCTO’s

d)

JU Equipment

16.

Indicates the organization and shop code that identifies the on-base activity responsible for repairing each repair cycle assets?

a)

Repair Cycle Asset

b)

Repair Cycle Record

c)

JU Equipment

d)

TCTO’s

17.

Who is responsible for the repair cycle process?

a)
The finance department
b)

LRS CC/APO

c)

FSC

d)
The maintenance team or technician
18.

This personnel physically verify the item returned by maintenance is correct and validate their documentation?

a)

Flight Service Center

b)

Repair Cycle Record

c)

Repair Cycle Asset

d)

Materiel Personnel

19.

Who is responsible for daily coordination with maintenance to ensure accurate status and the continuous flow of DIFM assets

a)
Operations Director
b)
Inventory Clerk
c)
Maintenance Supervisor
d)

Flight Service Center

20.

Establishes firm control of all unserviceable repair cycle assets from the time the items are issued until the time the items are returned

a)
Repair Cycle Management
b)
Inventory Control System
c)

Repair Cycle Process

d)
Asset Management Process
21.

The repair cycle time begins when issued ___ and ends when returned to ___

a)

TRIC: ISU MAINT;

TRIC: TIN

b)

Maintenance Team; Next Customer

c)

Service Center; Previous Owner

d)

Repair Shop; New Owner

22.

Is to ensure Maintenance physically has all DIFM items listed on the Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing

a)

DIFM Reconciliation

b)
Assume all DIFM items are accounted for without verification.
c)
Remove DIFM items from the Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing.
d)
Count DIFM items without checking the listing.
23.

The DIFM Reconciliation between the FSC and Maintenance is ___

a)

Quarterly

b)

Monthly

c)

Annually

d)

Semiannually

24.

A memorandum will be distributed to shops detailing the date and time when an ___ will visit the work center

a)

FSC Representative

b)

Supplier Representative

c)

Customer Representative

d)

Manager Representative

25.

__ Personnel will work closely with the shop to resolve any discrepancies

a)

Flight Service Center

b)
Marketing
c)
Sales
d)
Human Resources
26.

FSC Personnel will compile a final report and send an electronic or hard copy of the report within how many days?

a)

Ten Work Days

b)

Five Work Days

c)

Two Work Days

d)

None of the above

27.

FSC uses what listings to monitor Due-In-From-Maintenance status and maintain visibility of issued assets controlled by maintenance within the repair cycle process

a)

Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing

b)
Maintenance Asset Tracking reports
c)
Due-In-From-Maintenance listings
d)
Due-In-From-Inventory listings
28.

This Listing Contains all DIFM detail records retrieved from the MMSY and is an essential management tool used to perform the DIFM reconciliation

a)
Inventory management system
b)

Repair cycle asset management listing (D23)

c)
MMSY data analysis tool
d)
DIFM tracking software
29.

The D23 Listing holds critical information of

a)

DIFM Status

b)

DIFM Location

c)

DIFM Days

d)

All of the above

e)

DIFM Quanitity

30.

Items not inducted into maintenance repair will be returned to the LRS/Materiel Management Activity within how many days?

a)

Four Duty Days

b)

Ten Duty Days

c)

Five Duty Days

d)

One Duty Day

31.

Follow up with the ___ daily and when issued DIFM exceed return time frames established

a)

Unit DIFM Monitors

b)

LRS CC/APO

c)

Service Center Personnel

d)

FSC Representatives

32.

The replacement parts are called

a)
replacement components
b)
spare parts
c)

Bits and Pieces

d)
refurbished items
33.

When a reparable asset is awaiting the bits and pieces needed for repair, it is called

a)
in repair
b)

Awaiting Parts

c)
out of service
d)
under maintenance
34.

The D23 is used with the ___ to monitor awaiting parts

a)

D19

b)

D15

c)

D04

d)

D043

35.

The unserviceable detail record is identified by activity code “R”, organization code “920”, and shop code “RW”

a)

True

b)

False

36.

The unserviceable detail record is identified by activity code “R”, organization code “910”, and shop code “SC”

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Stock control receives a copy of the repair cycle assets management listing, part 4 at least ___

a)

Weekly

b)

Monthly

c)

Daily

d)

Bi-Weekly

38.

the means to record demand data in the MMSY for repairs in place or removal, repair, and reinstallation of a recoverable item without ordering a replacement item

a)

Quality Control System (QCS)

b)

Maintenance Management System (MMSY)

c)

Inventory Management System (IMS)

d)

Turnaround Action (TRN)

39.

Acts as a turnaround processing point supporting organizations not supported by the MIS

a)
Operational support center
b)
Information retrieval point
c)

Service Center

d)
Data management system
40.

Will maintain close coordination with maintenance activities to expedite turnaround processing

a)

FSC

b)

LRS CC/APO

c)

TCTO’s

d)

Authorization Managers

41.

The TRN manager will use the ___ to prepare and process a maintenance turnaround input.

a)

AFTO Form 250 Tag Part 1

b)
maintenance turnaround plan
c)

AFTO Form 350 Tag Part 2

d)
turnaround strategy
42.

Notice indicates the successful processing of a Turnaround Action

a)

Reject Notice

b)

Management Notice

c)

I122 MGT

d)

TRN

43.

Will update both the demand data on the item record and the repair cycle data on the repair cycle record

a)

TRN

b)

NR

c)

Item Record

d)

Repair Cycle

44.

Are an extension of the LRS warehouse stock

a)

Supply Points

b)
Warehouse stock management
c)
LRS warehouse inventory
d)
Extensions of LRS warehouse stock
45.

Allows pre-positioning of all selected assets, in most cases repair cycle assets, making the items more readily available to the user

a)
Pre-positioning of non-repair assets
b)

Supply Point Concept

c)

Pre-positioning of repair cycle

d)

Random distribution

46.

A supply point detail will be created using what

a)

TRIC FSP

b)

TRIC FCC

c)

TRIC FCD

d)

TRIC ISU MAINT

47.

Who will appoint supply point monitors in writing to manage and account for supply points assets

a)

LRS CC/APO

b)

Warehouse Commander

c)

Organizational Commander

d)
Local team leaders without supply chain authority.
48.

Supply point monitors use the ___ to perform a physical count to verify the balances

a)
customer relationship management
b)

Supply point listing (Q13)

c)
inventory management system
d)
supply chain software
49.

All issues from a supply point are

a)

Over-the-counter

b)
transportation delays
c)
inventory discrepancies
d)
logistics problems
50.

This activity code records the usage of stock and will update the demand data on the item record

a)
The activity code monitors customer feedback and alters product features.
b)

Activity Code “S”

c)

Activity code “I”

d)

Activity Code “T”

51.

What modifies weapon systems, commodities, and equipment necessary to support the weapons system within specified time limits

a)
Supply Chain Management
b)

TCTO’s

c)
Inventory Control
d)
Procurement Processes
52.

TCTO kits stock numbers are identified by a

a)

”K” fifth position

b)

”KS” 2-3 Position

c)

”A” sixth position

d)

“SK” 1st Position

53.

All TCTO items received will be forwarded to the ___ for storage

a)
office
b)

FSC

c)

General Purpose Warehouse

d)

Open cover storage

54.

Inspection section will use TRIC FCD to load ___ to the item record

a)
item specifications
b)

NPPC “4”

c)
shipping details
d)
inspection results
55.

Prevents the issue of unmodified itemd

a)
Manual tracking system
b)

TCTO Flag

c)
Untracked item database
d)
Version control or change tracking system
56.

Serves as the base equipment review and authorization activity and manages lots of supplies

a)
Supply Chain Manager
b)
Inventory Analyst
c)
Warehouse Supervisor
d)

Equipment Accountability Element

57.

EAE will spot-check a random 10%

a)

True

b)

False

58.

EAE will spot-check a random 20%

a)

True

b)

False

59.

Conduct face 2 face responsibility briefings with all incoming squadron commanders within

a)

90 days

b)

4 work days

c)

60 days

d)

Soon As Possible

60.

Who will appoint a primary and alternate equipment/property custodian in writing for all equipment accounts in their organization and send a copy to the LRS EAE

a)

Organizational commanders

b)

Facilities coordinator

c)

The IT manager

d)

The finance department head

61.

Who are responsible for equipment on their accounts and may be held financially liable for such equipments if it becomes lost, damaged, or destroyed

a)

Equipment/ property custodians

b)
IT support staff
c)
Equipment manufacturers
d)
Account holders or equipment custodians
62.

Who ensures the control, use, and safeguard of property under their control

a)

Equipment/ property Custodian

b)
Real estate agent
c)
Security guard
d)
Property manager or custodian
63.

Some ___ assets do not require accounting

a)
intangible
b)

Repair Cycle Assets

c)

ND

d)

NF

64.

What ERRCD’s are accounted for on the equipment authorized/in-use detail records

a)

Nonexpendable field (NF) repair

b)

ERRCD XF

c)

Nonexpendable Depot (ND) Repair

d)

ERRCD XF

65.

ERRCD’s NF & ND are assigned Equipment Management Code _

a)

EMC “1”

b)

EMC “9”

c)

EMC “4”

d)

EMC “10”

66.

EAID assets are requisitioned through ILS-S using activity code _

a)

Activity Code “E”

b)

Activity Code “I”

c)

Activity Code “F”

d)

Activity Code “C”

67.

Non-EAID assets requisitioned through ILS-S will use activity code _

a)

Activity Code “E”

b)

Activity Code “P”

c)

Activity Code “I”

d)

Activity Code “C”

68.

This Activity Code indicates the item is not maintained on an authorized in-use detail

a)

Activity Code “P”

b)

Activity Code “E”

c)

Activity Code “I”

d)

Activity Code “1GP”

69.

Who are responsible for establishing and maintaining Authorization Identifications that determine the support equipment needed to accomplish the mission

a)
Technical advisors
b)

LRS CC/APO

c)

Chief Inspector

d)

Authorization Managers

70.

What is the 7-position alpha/numeric code unique to the type of equipment or weapon system supported

a)

Authorization ID

b)

Weapon System ID

c)

Organizational ID

d)

Light Equipment ID

71.

The EAE will utilize the ___ module report to identify what the equipment custodian is authorized and what they can obtain for their organization

a)
authorization list
b)

Force System Management

c)

equipment authorization

d)
equipment inventory
72.

Property custodians utilize the ___ to account for all the accountable items on their accounts

a)
asset register
b)

Custodian Inventory Report

c)
property management software
d)
inventory system
73.

Custodians use the ___ to perform organizational regularly scheduled inventory counts

a)
inventory management system
b)

CIR/R14

c)
random inventory tracker
d)
manual counting system
74.

The property custodian will perform a ___ style inventory when reviewing the CIR

a)

Close Warehouse

b)

Open Warehouse

c)

Floor to book

d)

Back to back

75.

What form is used to request equipment authorization changes such as new request, increase, decrease, and delete authorizations on the account

a)

Equipment Change Request Form

b)
Equipment Request Form
c)

Authorization Change Request

d)
Equipment Modification Request
76.

The AF Form 601 also is used to ___ when approval above the wing/base level is required

a)

Change requirement status

b)

Change allowance status

c)
request approval for items requiring higher-level authorization
d)

approval for personal items

77.

__ will review the AF Form 601 for accuracy and ensure coordination is in the proper format

a)

Centralized Equipment Management Flight

b)

Custodian Inventory Report

c)

Organizational Commander

d)

Equipment/ property custodians

78.

The Defense Property Accountability System (DPAS) is the

a)
a database for managing social media accounts
b)

a software used for personal finance management within the MMSY

c)

Accepted APSR for the DoD and components mana gaming over $1 trillion in property

d)
a system for tracking employee attendance
79.

What module is designed to manage large-ticket items, issues, and assets

a)
Project Management module
b)

DPAS Property Accountability Module

c)
Customer Relationship module
d)
Inventory Control module
80.

Property Accountability Module allows you to use the __ as a reporting and analytical tool to manage your software and assets

a)
presentation
b)

database

c)
spreadsheet
d)
dashboard
81.

what module is the primary source for managing equipment authorizations in the Air Force

a)
Inventory Control System (ICS)
b)
Logistics Management System (LMS)
c)

Force Systems Management (FSM)

d)
Supply Chain Management System (SCMS)
82.

What personnel will utilize ILS-S Manage Document Control Record capability to manage delinquent documents

a)
Project managers and finance teams
b)
IT support staff and system administrators
c)
Marketing teams and sales representatives
d)

Document Control Personnel

83.

What capability provides ILS-S user’s the ability to upload, validate, view and query archived DCR’s with scanned images

a)
File Compression Software
b)
Image Editing Tools
c)

Document Control Record (DCR)

d)
Data Encryption Services
84.

ILS-S can store scanned images with the associated DCR for how many years?

a)
5 years
b)
10 years
c)
7 years
d)
3 years
85.

What transaction is used to clear the DCR via the Validate DCR Image screen

a)

1SI Transaction

b)

1GP Transaction

c)

Force Systems Transaction

d)

DCR Screen Transaction

86.

Materiel Management Activities will retain source documents with TRICS for how many months?

a)
12 months
b)
24 months
c)

75 months

d)
48 months
87.

Immediately report security incidents to the LRS CC/APO and the squadron security managers if unauthorized individuals have signed for the property

a)

True

b)

False

88.

Immediately report security incidents to the OPSEC or COMSEC Authorization if unauthorized individuals have signed for the property

a)

True

b)

False

89.

Who is authorized to sign for equipment items with the ERCCD “ND” and “NF”

a)

Individuals identified as equipment custodians

b)
Designated personnel within the organization, such as managers or supervisors.
c)
External contractors
d)
Only the IT department
90.

After documents are validated and the required quality control checks are performed, the document is digitally stored in the

a)

D19

b)

D23

c)

MMSY

d)

ILS-S

91.

A document becomes delinquent on the _ calendar day

a)

6th

b)
1st
c)
30th
d)
15th
92.

An off base document becomes a delinquent on the _ calendar day

a)

11th

b)
60th
c)
45th
d)
15th
93.

Who submits a letter to customer support, which identifies individuals authorized to receive classified and Nuclear Weapons Related Materiel property

a)
Customer service representative
b)
Random employee from the organization
c)
External contractor
d)

Organization Commander

94.

Every _ & _, the initiating activity reviews the Authorization Receipt Listing provided by the LRS CC/APO

a)

June and December

b)

January and June

c)

July and November

d)

March and September

95.

Who will provide a letter of receipt authorization to activities that can process classified and NWRM property

a)

LRS CC/APO

b)

Organization Commander

c)
General manager
d)
Facilities coordinator
96.

Perform _ revaluation of authorizations to receipt for classified and NWRM property each June and December

a)

Annual

b)

Monthly

c)

Quarterly

d)

Semiannual

97.

The _ gives the F-35 operators the ability to plan, maintain, and sustain their systems over the life of the aircraft

a)
Operational Readiness Assessment
b)

Autonomic Logistics Information System

c)
Mission Planning System
d)
Aircraft Maintenance Program
98.

_ will be a cloud-native system that incorporates a new integrated data environment and a new suite of user-centered applications

a)

ODIN

b)

ALIS

99.

__ module is a customer-level software application that interfaces with the enterprise system to provide global inventory management capability

a)

Inventory Management Module

b)

ALIS SCM Module

c)
Warehouse Management System
d)

Supply Chain Management Module

100.

__ receive, store, issue, and move retrograde F-35 assets to support flight operations, back shop maintenance, and line maintenance for the assigned base

a)

Supply Warehouses

b)
Supply chain managers
c)
Flight operations team
d)
Maintenance crew
101.

_ offers a single solution for line and shop maintenance, and it supports engineering materials, and fleet management departments within a modern architecture

a)

Computerized Maintenance Management System (CMMS)

b)

Joint Strike Fighter (JSF)

c)

Autonomic Logistics Global Sustainment (ALGS)

d)
Asset Tracking Software
102.

__ enable the AV to be sustained in the F-35 sortie generation cycle

a)
Pilot training programs
b)
Aircraft design specifications
c)
Fuel efficiency measures
d)

Work Orders

103.

__ is a record of the maintenance action regarding Air Vehicles

a)
Service Report
b)
Flight Log
c)
Inspection Checklist
d)

Work Order

104.

A corresponding work order __ is assigned when a work order is generated

a)

Job Control status

b)

Job Control description

c)

Job Control code

d)

Job Control Number