wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

2025 PS Practice Final 2

Total questions: 224

Worksheet time: 2hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Motion is described with respect to a

a)

graph

b)

displacement

c)

slope

d)

frame of reference

2.

Displacement is distance combined with

a)

direction

b)

speed

c)

velocity

d)

magnitude

3.

Displacement vectors of 3m and 5m in the same direction combine to make a displacement vector that is

a)

2m

b)

0m

c)

8m

d)

15m

4.

Average speed is the total distance divided by the

a)

average distance

b)

average acceleration

c)

total time

d)

slope

5.

The slope of a position-time graph is equal to the

a)

velocity

b)

displacement

c)

acceleration

d)

motion

6.

Velocity is

a)

the slope of a linear graph

b)

acceleration divided by displacement

c)

speed with direction

d)

the same in all reference frames

7.

Two or more velocities can be combined by

a)

graphing the slope

b)

using vector addition

c)

calculating the instantaneous velocity

d)

determining the rate

8.

A ball just dropped is an example of

a)

constant speed

b)

instantaneous velocity

c)

combining displacements

d)

free fall

9.

Jamie jogs each morning before work. She starts at 7:00 am and jogs 1 mile to the park and 1 mile back to her apartment. It takes her 24 minutes to complete her workout. What is her displacement during each of her morning jogs?

a)

2 miles

b)

24 minutes

c)

0 miles

d)

12 min / mile

10.

Movement in relation to a frame of reference is called

a)

instantaneous speed

b)

average speed

c)

relative motion

d)

displacement

11.

Hannah biked 12 miles in 1 hour, 10 miles the next hour, and 20 miles the next 2 hours. What was her average speed?

a)

12 mi/hr

b)

10.5 mi/hr

c)

14 mi/hr

d)

10.7 mi/hr

12.

The line on this position-time graph indicates that the object is

a)

speeding up

b)

slowing down

c)

moving at a constant speed

d)

not moving

13.

The rate at which velocity changes is called

(a)  

14.

Which of the following answers is an example of an object that is accelerating (there may be more than one answer)

a)

A ball falling from a height

b)

A person jogging on a treadmill at 3 mi/hr.

c)

A ball moving at a constant speed in a straight line

d)

A person riding a motorcycle at a constant speed in a circle

15.

Which of the following is NOT true about an object in free fall?

a)

it speeds up as it falls

b)

it accelerates at -9.8 m/s2

c)

it has constant acceleration

d)

it has constant velocity

16.

What does the slope of a velocity-time graph tell you?

a)

velocity

b)

displacement

c)

acceleration

d)

position

17.

An object moving at 15 m/s2 comes to a stop in 5 seconds. What is the object's acceleration?

a = vf  viΔta\ =\ \frac{v_{f\ }-\ v_i}{\Delta t}  

a)

5 m/s2

b)

75 m/s2

c)

3 m/s2

d)

-3 m/s2

18.

Which of the following is NOT acceleration?

a)

speeding up

b)

slowing down

c)

changing direction

d)

standing still

19.

How fast a velocity is changing at a specific instant is called

a)

instantaneous velocity

b)

instantaneous speed

c)

instantaneous acceleration

d)

linear

acceleration

20.

Velocity means both speed and _____.

a)

direction

b)

acceleration

c)

position

d)

distance

21.

This graph indicates that the object is

a)

not moving

b)

moving with constant speed

c)

accelerating

d)

slowing down

22.

Which of the following v-t graphs shows positive acceleration?

(there may be more than one possible answer)

a)
b)
c)
d)
23.

Which of the following v-t graphs shows positive velocity?

(there may be more than one possible answer)

a)
b)
c)
d)
24.

Which of the following v-t graphs shows slowing down?

(there may be more than one possible answer)

a)
b)
c)
d)
25.

What is required for an object to start moving, stop moving, speed up, slow down, or change directions?

(a)  

26.

The sum of all the forces acting on an object.

(a)  

27.

When forces are balanced, it means that net force =

(a)  

28.

Unbalanced forces acting on an object cause the object to

a)

move

b)

stop

c)

accelerate

d)

stay at rest

29.

When the net force acting on an object is zero, the object will

a)

stop moving

b)

speed up

c)

not accelerate

d)

slow down

30.

Which of the following is NOT one of the four main types of friction?

a)

rolling friction

b)

static friction

c)

fluid friction

d)

sliding friction

e)

standing friction

31.

The constant velocity of a falling object when the force of air resistance equals the force of gravity.

(a)  

32.

A falling object's motion after it is given a forward velocity. (also known as 2D motion)

(a)  

33.

Which is true of an object dropped vs. an object thrown horizontally at the same time?

a)

the object dropped will reach the ground first

b)

the object thrown forward will reach the ground first

c)

they will reach the ground at the same time

d)

only the object dropped is in free fall

34.

A force that acts between any two masses. It causes objects to accelerate downward.

(a)  

35.

A 10-kg brick and a 1-kg brick are dropped in a vacuum. The force of gravity on the 10-kg brick is

a)

the same as the force on the 1-kg brick

b)

10 times as much

c)

1/10 as much

d)

zero

36.

An object is propelled along a straight-line path in space by a force. If the object sweeps up extra particles and its mass becomes twice as much, its acceleration

a)

quadruples

b)

doubles

c)

stays the same

d)

halves

37.

A 10-N falling object encounters 10-N of air resistance. The net force on the object is...

a)

0 N

b)

4 N

c)

6 N

d)

10 N

38.

An apple weighs 1 N. When held at rest above your head, what is the net force on the apple?

(a)  

39.

When the net force on an object is zero, the acceleration of the object is

a)

constant

b)

zero

c)

less than zero

d)

more than zero

40.

An object following a straight-line path at constant speed has

a)

a net force acting on it in the direction of motion

b)

zero acceleration

c)

no forces acting on it

d)

constant acceleration

41.

What is the weight of a 100-kg object if g= 9.8 N/kg?

Fg = m × gF_{g\ }=\ m\ \times\ g  

a)

100 N

b)

9.8 N

c)

98 N

d)

980 N

42.

What is the mass of an object that weighs 44.1 N if g = 9.8 N/kg?

(in kg - don't include units).

Fg = m × gF_{g\ }=\ m\ \times\ g  

(a)  

43.

If an object has a mass of 300 kg and accelerates at 1.5 m/s2, what is the net force acting on the object? (in N, don't include units in your answer).

F = m × aF\ =\ m\ \times\ a  

(a)  

44.

A boy pulls a 20-kg wagon with a constant force of 44 N. What is the acceleration of the wagon in m/s2? (don't include units in your answer).

F = m × aF\ =\ m\ \times\ a  

(a)  

45.

A large boy and a small girl run into each other in the hallway. Which one experiences the greatest amount of force?

a)

the small girl

b)

the large boy

c)

the forces are the same

46.

A baseball bat exerts a force of 1000 N on a baseball. The force that the ball exerts on the bat is

a)

less than 1000 N

b)

more than 1000 N

c)

exactly 1000 N

d)

0 N

47.

Newton's third law states that action-reaction forces are equal in magnitude and (a)   in direction.

48.

Which of the following is NOT true of Newton's third law of motion?

a)

All forces occur in pairs.

b)

Force pairs are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction

c)

Force pairs act on two different objects.

d)

Force pairs always act on the same object.

49.

The product of an object's mass and it's velocity.

m × vm\ \times\ v  

(a)  

50.

What is the momentum of a golf ball if it weighs 0.05 kg and is moving at a velocity of 60 m/s? 

a)

20 kgmskg\cdot\frac{m}{s}  

b)

1200 kgmskg\cdot\frac{m}{s}  

c)

3 kgmskg\cdot\frac{m}{s}  

d)

60 kgmskg\cdot\frac{m}{s}  

51.

In a closed system, the amount of momentum before a collision is _____ the amount of momentum after a collision.

a)

equal to

b)

greater than

c)

less than

52.

States that if no net force acts on a system, then the total momentum of the system does not change.

a)

law of conservation of mass

b)

law of conservation of energy

c)

law of conservation of momentum

d)

law of conservation of velocity

53.

The force associated with charged particles

a)

electromagnetic force

b)

strong nuclear force

c)

gravitational force

d)

weak nuclear force

54.

Like charges repel, and opposite charges (a)   .

55.

A powerful force of attraction that acts only on the neutrons and protons in the nucleus of an atom, holding them together.

a)

strong nuclear force

b)

weak nuclear

force

c)

gravitational

force

d)

electromagnetic force

56.

Which is the weakest universal force?

a)

gravitational

force

b)

strong nuclear force

c)

weak nuclear

force

d)

electromagnetic force

57.

An attractive force that acts between any two masses.

a)

electromagnetic force

b)

gravitational

force

c)

strong nuclear force

d)

weak nuclear

force

58.

What factors affect gravitational force?

a)

mass and distance

b)

velocity and mass

c)

distance and time

d)

mass and volume

59.

You tie a rock to a string and whirl it in a circle above your head. The force the string exerts on the rock is called (a)   force.

60.

Which universal force can repel as well as attract?

(a)  

61.

What force is responsible for the orbits of the planets in the solar system?

(a)  

62.

Newton's law of universal gravitation states that every object in the universe attracts every other object.

a)

true

b)

false

63.

In order to calculate pressure exerted on a surface, what quantity is divided by the surface area?

a)

altitude

b)

force

c)

mass

d)

volume

64.

The SI unit of pressure is the

(a)  

65.

If the air inside a balloon exerts a force of 2N on an area of 0.5 m2, what is the pressure inside the balloon?

a)

2 N/m2

b)

4 N/m2

c)

1 N/m2

d)

0.25 N/m2

66.

A pressure of 70 N/m2 equals

a)

7 Pa

b)

70 Pa

c)

700 Pa

d)

7000 Pa

67.

A substance that assumes the shape of its container.

(a)  

68.

As altitude increases, air pressure (a)   .

69.

Which of the following is NOT a fluid?

a)

oxygen

b)

ice

c)

water

d)

oil

70.

Atmospheric pressure is caused by

a)

air currents

b)

the weight of the atmosphere above a particular location

c)

clouds

d)

altitude above sea level

71.

The pressure of air at sea level is approximately

a)

0 kPa

b)

10 kPa

c)

101 kPa

d)

1000 kPa

72.

Where would fluid pressure be the greatest in a swimming pool?

a)

30 cm below the surface

b)

1 m below the surface

c)

2 m below the surface

d)

the pressure is the same at all depths

73.

The upward force acting on an object submerged in a fluid is called

a)

buoyant force

b)

drag

c)

pressure

d)

weight

74.

A brick weighs 26N. Measured underwater, it weighs 11N. What is the size of the buoyant force exerted by the water on the brick?

a)

37N

b)

26N

c)

11N

d)

15N

75.

The strength of the buoyant force acting on an object in a fluid depends on the object's

a)

mass

b)

surface area

c)

volume

d)

weight

76.

The buoyant force on an object in a fluid is equal to the weight of the

a)

fluid

b)

fluid surrounding the object

c)

fluid displaced by the object

d)

object

77.

The relationship between buoyant force and weight of a displaced fluid was first stated by

a)

Archimedes

b)

Bernoulli

c)

Newton

d)

Pascal

78.

Why does a hot air balloon float?

a)

the shape of the balloon provides lift

b)

the volume of air displaced by the balloon is less than the volume of the balloon

c)

the weight of the air displaced by the balloon is less than the volume of the balloon

d)

the weight of the balloon is less than the weight of the air displaced by the balloon

79.

Which of the following substances will float in corn syrup? (The density of corn syrup is 1.38 g/cm3)

a)

copper

8.9 g/cm3

b)

silver

10.5 g/cm3

c)

iron

7.8 g/cm3

d)

glycerin

1.26 g/cm3

80.

A submerged submarine alters its (a)   to rise or fall in the water.

81.

The direction of the buoyant force on an object placed in a fluid is (a)   .

82.

The unit g/cm3 is often used to express (a)   .

83.

Which principle states that a change in the pressure at any point in a fluid in a closed container is transmitted equally and unchanged in all directions throughout the fluid?

a)

Archimedes' principle

b)

Bernoulli's

principle

c)

Newton's

principle

d)

Pascal's

principle

84.

The operation of a hydraulic lift system is explained by

a)

Archimedes' principle

b)

Bernoulli's

principle

c)

Newton's

principle

d)

Pascal's

principle

85.

The hydraulic lift system of a dump truck is designed to multiply

a)

distance

b)

force

c)

pressure

d)

speed

86.

As the speed of a fluid increases, the pressure within the fluid decreases.

a)

Archimedes' principle

b)

Bernoulli's

principle

c)

Newton's

principle

d)

Pascal's

principle

87.

The upward force acting on the wind of an airplane in flight.

(a)  

88.

Which of the following statements is true about an airplane wing during flight?

a)

air above the wing travels faster than air below the wing

b)

air below the wing travels faster than air above the wing

c)

the wing exerts pressure equally in all directions

d)

the lift acting on the wing reduces the weight of the wing

89.

Wings are sometimes used to create a downward force.

a)

true

b)

false

90.

In a hydraulic lift system, an increased output force is produced because a constant fluid pressure is exerted on the larger area of the output piston.

a)

true

b)

false

91.

A force acting on an object does no work if

a)

a machine is used to move the object

b)

the force is not in the direction of the object's motion

c)

the force is greater than the force of friction

d)

the object accelerates

92.

In which of the following is no work done?

a)

climbing stairs

b)

lifting a book

c)

pushing a shopping cart

d)

pushing on a brick wall

93.

What is the unit of work?

(a)  

94.

If you exert a force of 10.0 N to lift a box a distance of 0.9 m, how much work do you do?

a)

0.1 J

b)

9.0 J

c)

10.9 J

d)

90.0 J

95.

The SI unit of power is the

(a)  

96.

The power of a machine measures

a)

its rate of doing work

b)

its strength

c)

the force it produces

d)

the work it does

97.

If you exert a force of 600 N to walk 6 m up a flight of stairs in 5 seconds, how much power do you use?

a)

720 W

b)

500 W

c)

18,000 W

d)

20 W

98.

A 750-W motor might also be rated as a

a)

0.5 horsepower motor

b)

1 horsepower motor

c)

2 horsepower motor

d)

10 horsepower motor

99.

A machine is a device that can multiply

(a)  

100.

When a machine does work, it cannot do which of the following?

a)

change the direction of a force

b)

increase a force and change the distance a force moves

c)

increase the distance a force moves and change the direction of a force

d)

increase a force and increase the distance a force moves an object

101.

Output work is always less than input work because of friction

a)

true

b)

false

102.

The only way to increase the work output is to increase the amount of work you put into a machine.

a)

true

b)

false

103.

The actual mechanical advantage of a machine

a)

cannot be less than 1

b)

increases with greater friction

c)

is always less that the ideal mechanical advantage

d)

is always equal to the ideal mechanical advantage

104.

If you have to apply 40 N of force on a crowbar to lift a rock that weighs 400 N, what is the actual mechanical advantage of the crowbar?

(a)  

105.

Reducing friction in a machine

a)

decreases the actual mechanical advantage

b)

decreases the work output

c)

increases its efficiency

d)

increases its ideal mechanical advantage

106.

The efficiency of a machine is always less than 100% because

a)

a machine cannot have an ideal mechanical advantage greater than 1

b)

some work input is lost to friction

c)

the work input is too small

d)

the work output is too great

107.

The (a)   of a machine is the number of times that the machine increases the input force.

108.

The mechanical efficiency of any machine is always (a)   than 100 percent.

109.

The percentage of work input that becomes work output is the (a)   of a machine.

110.

The (a)   mechanical advantage of a machine is the mechanical advantage in the absence of friction.

111.

An inclined plane reduces the effort force by

a)

increasing the distance over which the force is applied

b)

increasing the work

c)

reducing the distance over which the force is applied

d)

reducing the

work

112.

An axe is an example of a(n)

a)

inclined plane

b)

lever

c)

wedge

d)

wheel and axle

113.

Which of the following is an example of a wheel and axle?

a)

a hammer

b)

a steering wheel

c)

a jar lid

d)

a pencil

114.

The ideal mechanical advantage of a pulley system is equal to

a)

the distance the load moves

b)

the length of the rope

c)

the number of ropes supporting the load

d)

the weight of the object being lifted

115.

An example of a compound machine is a

a)

crowbar

b)

bicycle

c)

ramp

d)

seesaw

116.

The ideal mechanical advantage of a wheel and axle is found by

a)

multiplying the circumference of the wheel by the radius of the axle

b)

dividing the radius of the wheel by the radius of the axle

c)

dividing the radius of the axle by the radius of the wheel

d)

multiplying the radius of the wheel by the radius of the axle

117.

A machine is classified as a compound machine if it

a)

has moving parts

b)

has an ideal mechanical advantage greater than 1

c)

is made up of two or more simple machines that operate together

d)

is 100% efficient

118.

A(n) (a)   can be described as an inclined plane wrapped around a cylinder.

119.

The fulcrum is always BETWEEN the effort force and the resistance force in a(n) (a)   -class lever.

120.

The ideal mechanical advantage of a third-class lever is always (a)   than 1.

121.

Work is a transfer of

a)

energy

b)

force

c)

mass

d)

motion

122.

The energy of motion is called _____.

a)

kinetic energy

b)

potential energy

c)

thermal energy

d)

work

123.

A small 20-kilogram canoe is floating downriver at a speed of 2 m/s. What is the canoe's kinetic energy?

a)

22 J

b)

40 J

c)

80 J

d)

400 J

124.

An object's gravitational potential energy is NOT directly related to which of the following?

a)

its height

b)

its mass

c)

its velocity

d)

the acceleration due to gravity (g)

125.

A 4-kilogram cat is resting on top of a bookshelf that is 3 meters high. What is the cat's gravitational potential energy if g=9.8 m/s2?

a)

7 J

b)

12 J

c)

29 J

d)

118 J

126.

Which of the following increases when an object gets warmer?

a)

chemical energy

b)

elastic potential energy

c)

nuclear energy

d)

thermal energy

127.

The energy stored in gasoline is _____.

a)

chemical energy

b)

thermal energy

c)

mechanical energy

d)

nuclear energy

128.

Energy and work are measured in the SI unit called the (a)   .

129.

Energy that is stored due to position or shape is called (a)   energy.

130.

The sum of the kinetic and potential energy of an object is called its (a)   energy.

131.

Solar cells convert what type of energy into electrical energy?

a)

chemical

b)

electromagnetic

c)

nuclear

d)

thermal

132.

Choose the true statements according to the law of conservation of energy.

a)

energy cannot be created

b)

energy cannot be destroyed

c)

energy can be converted from one form to another

d)

energy cannot be transferred

133.

The mechanical energy of an object equals its

a)

chemical energy plus its nuclear energy

b)

kinetic energy plus its potential energy

c)

nuclear energy

d)

thermal energy

134.

The kinetic energy of the pendulum bob in the picture increases the most between

a)

1 and 2

b)

1 and 3

c)

1 and 4

d)

1 and 5

135.

The equation E = mc2 relates energy and

a)

force

b)

gravity

c)

mass

d)

work

136.

Wind turbines convert (a)   energy into electrical energy.

137.

The process of changing energy from one form to another is called energy (a)   .

138.

In the equation E=mc2 , c is the speed of (a)   .

139.

What is biomass energy?

a)

chemical energy stored in living things

b)

electromagnetic energy stored in living things

c)

nuclear energy stored in living things

d)

thermal energy stored in living things

140.

Fossil fuels currently account for the majority of the world's energy use because they are

a)

distributed evenly throughout the world

b)

nonpolluting

c)

relatively inexpensive and readily available

d)

renewable energy resources

141.

A drawback of solar energy is that it

a)

cannot be converted directly into electrical energy

b)

depends on the climate

c)

produces water pollution

d)

is not a renewable resource

142.

A benefit of a hydrogen fuel cell is that its byproduct is

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

oxygen

c)

water

d)

uranium

143.

Energy resources that exist in limited amounts and, once used, cannot be replaced are called (a)   resources.

144.

Turning off unused lights are appliances is an example of energy (a)   .

145.

Which of the following is a unit of temperature?

a)

Celsius degree

b)

joule

c)

kilogram

d)

calorie

146.

Heat is the transfer of thermal energy from one object to another because of a difference in

a)

specific heat

b)

phase

c)

temperature

d)

waste heat

147.

What property of an object is related to the average kinetic energy of the particles in that object?

a)

specific heat

b)

mass

c)

conductivity

d)

temperature

148.

As the temperature of an object rises, so does the

a)

kinetic energy

of the object

b)

mass

of the object

c)

thermal energy

of the object

d)

potential energy of the object

149.

Which of the following devices is based on the property of thermal expansion?

a)

balance

b)

calorimeter

c)

convection oven

d)

thermometer

150.

Thermal energy depends on an object's

a)

mass

b)

phase

(solid, liquid, gas)

c)

temperature

d)

all of these

151.

What does a calorimeter directly measure?

a)

change in temperature

b)

kinetic energy

c)

specific heat

d)

radiation

152.

(a)   is the transfer of thermal energy because of a temperature change.

153.

The increase in volume of a material due to a temperature increase is called (a)   .

154.

Energy from the sun reaches Earth mostly by

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

d)

thermal expansion

155.

Matter is needed to transfer thermal energy by

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

d)

conduction and convection

156.

Which of the following materials conducts heat well?

a)

glass

b)

plastic

c)

metal

d)

wood

157.

The transfer of thermal energy in matter with no overall transfer of matter is called (a)   .

158.

The transfer of energy as waves moving through space is called (a)   .

159.

The type of thermal energy transfer that takes place in fluids is mostly (a)   .

160.

A material that conducts thermal energy well is called a thermal (a)   .

161.

The study of the conversion between heat and other forms of energy is called (a)   .

162.

Which statement is the best example of energy transfer by conduction?

a)

a pan heating up on the stove

b)

air in your room heated by moving air

c)

Earth being warmed by the Sun

d)

water coming to a rolling boil on the stove

163.

In what direction does heat flow on its own spontaneously?

a)

from cold to hot

b)

from hot to cold

c)

from the more dense object to the less dense object

d)

from solid to liquid

164.

An instrument that is used to measure specific heat (changes in temperature).

(a)  

165.

T or F: The two main types of heat engines are the internal combustion engine and the solar combustion engine.

a)

true

b)

false

166.

A heat engine in which the fuel burns inside the engine.

a)

internal combustion engine

b)

external combustion engine

c)

steam engine

d)

heat pump

167.

In a four-stroke engine, the stroke in which the spark plug ignites the fuel-air mixture, the gas expands and drives the piston down.

a)

intake stroke

b)

compression stroke

c)

power stroke

d)

exhaust stroke

168.

In a four-stroke engine, the stroke in which a mixture of air and gasoline vapor enters the cylinder.

a)

intake stroke

b)

compression stroke

c)

power stroke

d)

exhaust stroke

169.

How much of the fuel energy in a gasoline engine is converted to work?

a)

33%

b)

75%

c)

90%

d)

100%

170.

Most heating systems use ​ (a)   to distribute thermal energy

Choose from the below words
convection
conduction
radiation
steam
171.

A device that reverses the normal flow of thermal enregy.

a)

heat pump

b)

baseboard heater

c)

central heating system

d)

forced-air heating system

172.

T or F: Heat pumps must do work on a refrigerant in order to reverse the normal flow of thermal energy.

a)

true

b)

false

173.

A fluid that vaporizes and condenses inside the tubing of a heat pump.

a)

steam

b)

refrigerant

c)

gasoline

d)

water

174.

A ​ (a)   heating system heats many rooms from one central location.

Choose from the below words
central
steam
radiant
internal
175.

When a drill is used to bore a hole in an object,

a)

no useful work is done

b)

no energy is lost due to friction

c)

the drill is 100 percent efficient

d)

friction causes the object to heat up

176.

Why does liquid rise in a thermometer

a)

convection

b)

thermal expansion

c)

condensation

d)

radiation

177.

To heat 1 g of water by 1 degree C requires

a)

1 calorie

b)

1 joule

c)

1 Calorie

d)

1 watt

178.

The best thermal insulators

a)

conduct heat well

b)

are gases

c)

are metals

d)

have free electrons

179.

A blow dryer transfers thermal energy mainly by

a)

conduction

b)

radiation

c)

convection

d)

specific heat

180.

Which statement is NOT true about radiation?

a)

all objects radiate

b)

hot objects radiate faster than cold objects

c)

radiation only transfers energy in matter

d)

the sun's energy reaches Earth by radiation

181.

Energy added to a system

a)

does work or increases thermal energy

b)

cannot heat the environment

c)

is converted to radiation

d)

reduces the kinetic energy of a system

182.

All engines operate at less than 100 percent efficiency because they

a)

absorb heat

b)

burn gasoline

c)

conduct heat

d)

emit heat

183.

Which occurs just before ignition?

a)

intake stroke

b)

exhaust stroke

c)

compression stroke

d)

power stroke

184.

Which of the following is a FALSE statement about a heat pump?

a)

it requires no work

b)

it moves heat from a cold to a hot area

c)

it uses a refrigerant

d)

air conditioners are heat pumps

185.

The material through which a wave travels.

a)

medium

b)

vibration

c)

crest

d)

water

186.

A repeating back-and-forth motion.

a)

vibration

b)

wave

c)

medium

d)

trough

187.

Mechanical waves carry ____ from one place to another.

a)

energy

b)

matter

c)

frequency

d)

amplitude

188.

A wave that causes the medium to vibrate at right angles to the direction in which the wave travels.

a)

transverse wave

b)

longitudinal wave

c)

surface wave

d)

ocean wave

189.

A wave in which the vibration of the medium is parallel to the direction the wave travels.

a)

transverse wave

b)

longitudinal wave

c)

surface wave

d)

electromagnetic wave

190.

An area where the particles in a medium are spaced close together.

a)

compression

b)

rarefaction

c)

crest

d)

trough

191.

An ocean wave is an example of which kind of wave?

a)

surface wave

b)

transverse wave

c)

longitudinal wave

d)

complex wave

192.

The highest point of the wave above the rest position.

a)

crest

b)

trough

c)

amplitude

d)

wavelength

193.

The lowest point of the wave below the rest position.

a)

trough

b)

crest

c)

compression

d)

rarefaction

194.

An area where the particles in a medium are spread out.

a)

compression

b)

crest

c)

trough

d)

rarefaction

195.

A wave's ​ (a)   equals the frequency of the vibrating source producing the wave.

Choose from the below words
frequency
speed
wavelength
amplitude
196.

The time required for one cycle, a complete motion that returns to its starting point.

a)

period

b)

frequency

c)

wavelength

d)

amplitude

197.

Frequency is measured in cycles per second, or _____.

a)

hertz

b)

meters

c)

meters / sec

d)

joules

198.

The _____ of a transverse wave is the distance from one crest or trough to the next.

a)

speed

b)

wavelength

c)

amplitude

d)

frequency

199.

The more energy a wave has, the greater its​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
amplitude
frequency
wavelength
speed
200.

The maximum displacement of the medium from its rest position.

a)

amplitude

b)

wavelength

c)

frequency

d)

wave speed

201.

Which wave property is shown by letter B?

a)

frequency

b)

wavelength

c)

amplitude

d)

wave speed

202.

Which wave property is shown by letter C?

a)

amplitude

b)

wavelength

c)

frequency

d)

period

203.

Which wave property is shown by letter A?

a)

crest

b)

wavelength

c)

trough

d)

period

204.

Which wave property is shown by letter D?

a)

crest

b)

wavelength

c)

trough

d)

period

205.

Occurs when a wave bounces off a surface that it cannot pass through.

a)

reflection

b)

refraction

c)

diffraction

d)

interference

206.

The bending of a wave as it enters a new medium at an angle.

a)

reflection

b)

refraction

c)

diffraction

d)

interference

207.

The bending of a wave as it moves around an obstacle or passes through a narrow opening.

a)

reflection

b)

refraction

c)

diffraction

d)

interference

208.

Occurs when two or more waves overlap and combine together.

a)

reflection

b)

refraction

c)

diffraction

d)

interference

209.

Occurs when two or more waves combine to produce a wave with a larger displacement.

a)

constructive interference

b)

destructive
interference

c)

diffraction

d)

refraction

210.

When two or more waves combine to produce a wave with smaller displacement.

a)

constructive interference

b)

destructive
interference

c)

diffraction

d)

refraction

211.

A wave that appears to stay in one place.

a)

standing wave

b)

node

c)

antinode

d)

diffracting wave

212.

A point on a standing wave that has no displacement from the rest position.

a)

node

b)

antinode

c)

standing node

d)

constructive node

213.

A point where a crest or trough occurs midway between two nodes.

a)

mid-node

b)

antinode

c)

standing node

d)

constructive node

214.

When a wave enters a medium at an angle​ (a)   occurs because one side of the wave moves more slowly than the other side.

Choose from the below words
refraction
reflection
interference
diffraction
215.

Which type of wave are sound waves?

a)

longitudinal waves

b)

surface waves

c)

transverse waves

216.

The speed of sound is

a)

20 m/s

b)

342 m/s

c)

5280 m/s

d)

1600 m/s

217.

Sound waves travel fastest in _____

a)

solids

b)

liquids

c)

gases

d)

a vacuum

218.

Sound intensity is measured in

a)

hertz

b)

meters/second

c)

decibels

d)

seconds

219.

The frequency of sound as you perceive it.

a)

pitch

b)

amplitude

c)

intensity

d)

speed

220.

The change in sound frequency caused by the motion of the sound source, motion of the listener, or both.

a)

Doppler effect

b)

ultrasound effect

c)

sonar effect

d)

loudness effect

221.

Match the parts of the ear to their function.

a)

outer ear

1.

gathers and focuses sound

b)

middle ear

2.

3 tiny bones sense vibrations

c)

inner ear

3.

sends impulses to the brain

d)

eardrum

4.

membrane that vibrates

222.

The response of a standing wave to a wave of the same frequency, often producing a dramatic increase in amplitude.

a)

resonance

b)

ultrasound

c)

sonar

d)

pitch

223.

A technique for determining the distance to an object underwater.

a)

resonance

b)

ultrasound

c)

radar

d)

sonar

224.

As a source of sound approaches, an observer hears a (a)   frequency. When the sound source moves away, the observer hears a​ (b)   frequency.

Choose from the below words
higher
lower