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Intro Cosmo EOY - Final

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 3600secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

Bacteria that are harmless and can even be beneficial are called:

a)

Viruses

b)

Microbes

c)

Pathogenic

d)

Nonpathogenic

2.

Pathogenic bacteria are responsible for all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Causing disease

b)

Producing toxins

c)

Causing infection

d)

Benefiting the environment

3.

A communicable disease refers to a disease that is:

a)

Passive

b)

Dormant

c)

Spread from one person to another

d)

Not spread from one person to another

4.

Rod-shaped bacterial cells are known as:

a)

Cocci

b)

Bacilli

c)

Spirilla

d)

Staphylococci

5.

What bacteria, when viewed through a microscope, would appear to be spiraled, coiled, corkscrew-shaped bacterial cells?

a)

Spirilla

b)

Flagella

c)

Saprophytes

d)

Staphylococci

6.

Pus-forming bacterial cells that form grape-like bunches or clusters and are present in abscesses are called:

a)

Spirilla

b)

Diplococci

c)

Streptococci

d)

Staphylococci

7.

Bacterial cells that grow in pairs and are the cause of certain infections, such as pneumonia, are known as:

a)

Spirilla

b)

Bacilli

c)

Diplococci

d)

Staphylococci

8.

During which stage of growth does bacteria reproduce and grow rapidly?

a)

Active phase

b)

Growth phase

c)

Dormant phase

d)

Inactive phase

9.

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) causes the immune system to:

a)

Speed up

b)

Break down

c)

Work efficiently

d)

Continue working properly

10.

Disease-causing bacteria or viruses that are carried through the blood or body fluids are known as:

a)

Cocci

b)

Mites

c)

Fungi

d)

Bloodborne pathogens

11.

Which of the following actions would be considered a universal precaution?

a)

Arriving at work on time

b)

Unsanitary salon conditions

c)

Common use of drinking cup

d)

Disinfecting salon equipment

12.

Which of the following occurs when the circulatory system carries bacteria and their toxins to all parts of the body?

a)

Local infection

b)

Active immunity

c)

Passive immunity

d)

Systemic infection

13.

What type of immunity is provided when a person is given antibodies to a disease rather than producing them through his or her own immune system?

a)

Acquired immunity

b)

Active immunity

c)

Natural immunity

d)

Personal immunity

14.

Removing dirt and debris to aid in preventing the growth of microbes is:

a)

Cleaning

b)

Calibration

c)

Disinfection

d)

Sterilization

15.

To destroy or kill most bacteria (except bacterial spores), fungi and viruses on nonporous surfaces is referred to as:

a)

Cleaning

b)

Cleansing

c)

Disinfection

d)

Sterilization

16.

The regulating agency under the Department of Labor that enforces safety and health standards in the workplace is:

a)

DNR

b)

SDS

c)

USDA

d)

OSHA

17.

What information is assigned to a product, along with the approval of the efficacy claims on the label to ensure the product is safe and effective?

a)

Bar code

b)

Retail number

c)

Toll-free number

d)

EPA registration number

18.

An approved EPA-registered disinfectant is effective on what type of surface?

a)

Porous

b)

Passable

c)

Absorbent

d)

Nonporous

19.

What should you do with a porous item such as a neck strip, sponge or emery board once it has been used on a client?

a)

Wash it

b)

Spray it

c)

Discard it

d)

Disinfect it

20.

Destroying or killing all microbes is:

a)

Cleaning

b)

Sanitation

c)

Disinfection

d)

Sterilization

21.

Any surface that is not free of dirt, hair, or microbes is:

a)

Sterilized

b)

Contaminated

c)

Sterile

d)

Disinfected

22.

The method of physical sterilization includes dry heat and __________.

a)

Steam autoclave

b)

Gaseous formaldehyde

c)

Liquid antiseptic

d)

Dry sanitation

23.

Most QUATS disinfect implements within ____ minutes.

a)
5 to 10
b)

10 to 15

c)

15 to 20

d)

20 to 25

24.

The third and lowest level of decontamination is known as:

a)

Sterilization

b)

Disinfection

c)

Sanitization

d)

Antisepsis

25.

A sanitizer that is not adequate for instruments and surfaces, but is safe for application to the skin, is:

a)

Antiseptic

b)

Phenol

c)

Chloride

d)

Bleach

26.

The technical term for bleach is:

a)

Sodium chloride

b)

Sodium hypochlorite

c)

Sodium clorox

d)

Sodium hydroxide

27.

The method used to eliminate or reduce the transmission of infectious organisms.

a)

Infection Detection

b)

Infection Disease

c)

Infection Control

d)

Disinfection

28.

Bactericidals are disinfectants used to kill:

a)

Viruses

b)

Tuberculosis

c)

Pseudomonas

d)

Bacteria

29.

Kills bacteria that causes tuberculosis:

a)

Tuberculocidal disinfectant

b)

Tuberculosis disinfectant

c)

Viricidals

d)

Pseudomonas

30.

Invasion of body tissue by disease causing pathogens?

a)

Disease

b)

Infection Control

c)

Infection

d)

Transmission

31.

A sign of a bacterial infection is the presence of:

a)

Pus

b)

Blood

c)

Tissue

d)

Lesions

32.

The body's first line of defense against infection is:

a)

White blood cells

b)

Healthy, uncompromised skin

c)

Antitoxins

d)

Body sectretions

33.

The most frequently encountered infection on the foot resulting from nail services is:

a)

Tinea barbae

b)

Tinea pedis

c)

Tinea capitis

d)

Barber’s itch

34.

Organisms that grow, feed, and find shelter on or in a host organism are called:

a)

Pathogens

b)

Fumigations

c)

Fungi

d)

Parasites

35.

A pimple or an abscess is an example of a:

a)

Daughter cell

b)

Blood disease

c)

Local infection

d)

General infection

36.

Which disease is bloodborne and can cause liver damage?

a)

Pneumonia

b)

Blood poisoning

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Hepatitis

37.

The most common way that infections spread in a salon is:

a)

Dirty hands

b)

Uncovered coughing

c)

Shared drinking cups

d)

Contaminated implements

38.

The CDC guidelines that require the employer and employee to assume that all human blood and body fluids are potentially infectious are currently called the:

a)

Disease Prevention Guidelines

b)

Safety Rules

c)

Universal Precautions

d)

Standard Precautions

39.

The term _____ is defined as a chemical process for reducing the number of disease-causing germs on cleaned surfaces to a safe level.

a)

Disinfection

b)

Sanitizing

c)

Sterilizing

d)

Decontaminating

40.

The removal of blood or other potentially infectious materials on an item’s surface is called:

a)

Sanitizing

b)

Decontamination

c)

Sterilization

d)

Disinfection

41.

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is the virus that causes:

a)

Pneumonia

b)

HPV

c)

AIDS

d)

Hepatitis

42.

The ability of the body to recognize, destroy, and resist infection is:

a)

Disinfection

b)

Decontamination

c)

Sanitization

d)

Immunity

43.

You should wash your hands thoroughly:

a)

At least once every hour

b)

Only when they are visibly dirty

c)

Only after using the restroom

d)

Before and after every service

44.

A skin disease caused by an infestation of head lice is called:

a)

Pediculosis capitis

b)

Itch mites

c)

Scabies

d)

Poison ivy

45.

Which type of bacteria causes Lyme disease?

a)

Diplococci

b)

Streptococci

c)

Bacilli

d)

Spirilla

46.

A state regulatory agency can issue penalties against:

a)

The cosmetologist

b)

Both the salon owner and the cosmetologist

c)

The salon owner

d)

Neither the salon owner nor the cosmetologist

47.

What are the two steps of infection control:

a)

Disinfecting and then sterilizing

b)

Disinfecting and then cleaning

c)

Cleaning and then disinfecting

d)

Sterilizing and then disinfecting

48.

Disinfectants used in salons must be:

a)

Virucidal and bactericidal

b)

Bactericidal, fungicidal, and virucidal

c)

Fungicidal and virucidal

d)

Bactericidal and fungicidal

49.

Phenolic disinfectants have:

a)

No pH

b)

Low pH

c)

Neutral pH

d)

High pH

50.

Which term refers to an abnormal condition of all or part of the body that makes it incapable of carrying on normal function?

a)

Pathogen

b)

Disease

c)

Virus

d)

Bacteria

51.

The spherical bacteria that cause diseases such as pneumonia are:

a)

Diplococci

b)

Staphylococci

c)

Bacilli

d)

Spirilla

52.

Which statement about rules is correct?

a)

Rules are also known as statutes

b)

Rules establish specific standards of conduct

c)

Rules are written by federal and state legislatures

d)

Rules are less specific than laws

53.

The amount of time the surface must stay moist with disinfectant in order for the disinfectant to be effective is called:

a)

Concentrate time

b)

Contact time

c)

Efficacy

d)

Decontamination time

54.

Functions of the skin include regulation of body temperature and:

a)

Digestion

b)

Protection

c)

Circulation

d)

Reproduction

55.

Which of the following layers of skin does not contain any blood vessels?

a)

Cutis

b)

Dermis

c)

Corneum

d)

Epidermis

56.

Which of the following items determines the color of the skin?

a)

Keratin

b)

Melanin

c)

Elastin fiber

d)

Collagen protein

57.

Sweat is excreted by what gland?

a)

Adrenal

b)

Endocrine

c)

Sebaceous

d)

Sudoriferous

58.

The greatest concentration of sudoriferous glands is found on the:

a)

Arms

b)

Eyelids

c)

Midsection of the body

d)

Palms, soles, scalp, forehead, and underarms

59.

What is the function of sebum?

a)

Carry melanin

b)

Produce sweat

c)

Give skin elasticity

d)

Mix with sweat to form the acid mantle

60.

An example of a subjective symptom would be:

a)

Itching

b)

Swelling

c)

Redness

d)

Discharge

61.

A disease influenced by weather is referred to as:

a)

Serial

b)

Rational

c)

Seasonal

d)

Inflammable

62.

A secondary lesion appearing as round, dry patches of skin covered with rough, silvery scales is called:

a)

Acne

b)

Eczema

c)

Psoriasis

d)

Herpes simplex

63.

Which of the following skin lesions usually appear as cracks or lines and often occur when skin loses its flexibility due to exposure to wind, cold and water?

a)

Stain

b)

Tumor

c)

Fissure

d)

Papule

64.

Which of the following terms is another name for a keratoma?

a)

Wart

b)

Callus

c)

Tumor

d)

Birthmark

65.

Verruca is a name given to a variety of:

a)

Warts

b)

Ulcers

c)

Fissures

d)

Skin tags

66.

What is the technical term for a decrease in activity of melanocytes?

a)

Acne

b)

Verruca

c)

Leukoderma

d)

Melanoderma

67.

Comedone is the technical name for:

a)

Nerves

b)

Macule

c)

Blackhead

d)

Birthmark

68.

Pearly white, enclosed keratin-filled cysts which form a hard ball beneath the outer layer of the skin are known as:

a)

Acne

b)

Milia

c)

Rosacea

d)

Comedones

69.

The clear layer of the epidermis, consisting of small, transparent cells, is the:

a)

Stratum lucidum

b)

Stratum granulosum

c)

Stratum corneum

d)

Stratum germinativum

70.

The basal layer, composed of several different shaped cells, is also called:

a)

Stratum lucidum

b)

Stratum granulosum

c)

Stratum corneum

d)

Stratum germinativum

71.

The outermost layer of the skin is the:

a)

Dermis

b)

Subcutaneous

c)

Epidermis

d)

Adipose

72.

The underlying or inner layer of the skin is the:

a)

Dermis

b)

Subcutaneous

c)

Epidermis

d)

Adipose

73.

What is secreted by the sudoriferous glands?

a)

Perspiration

b)

Blood

c)

Odor

d)

Sebum

74.

A fatty layer found below the dermis is the:

a)

Dermis

b)

Subcutaneous tissue

c)

Epidermis

d)

True skin

75.

The skin responds to heat, cold, touch, pressure, and pain through stimulation of the:

a)

Internal body temperature

b)

Sudoriferous glands

c)

Sensory nerve endings

d)

Body fluid absorption

76.

An itchy, swollen lesion that lasts only a few hours is a:

a)

Wheal

b)

Tubercle

c)

Bulla

d)

Macule

77.

An abnormal rounded, solid lump above, within, or under the skin that is larger than a papule is known as a:

a)

Bulla

b)

Cyst

c)

Pustule

d)

Tubercle

78.

A thick scar resulting from excessive growth of fibrous tissue is a/an:

a)

Excoriation

b)

Fissure

c)

Ulcer

d)

Keloid

79.

A blister containing a watery fluid, similar to a vesicle but larger, is a:

a)

Wheal

b)

Tubercle

c)

Bulla

d)

Macula

80.

An acquired, superficial, round, thickened patch of epidermis due to pressure or friction on the hands and feet is a:

a)

Mole

b)

Freckle

c)

Keratoma

d)

Verruca

81.

An acute inflammatory disorder of the sweat glands, characterized by the eruption of small red vesicles and accompanied by burning, itching skin, is known as:

a)

Steatoma

b)

Miliaria rubra

c)

Hyperhidrosis

d)

Anhidrosis

82.

A term used to indicate an inflammatory condition of the skin is:

a)

Dermatitis

b)

Psoriasis

c)

Melanoma

d)

Vitiligo

83.

An abnormal growth of the skin is called:

a)

Hypertrophy

b)

Herpertrichosis

c)

Keratoma

d)

Callus

84.

Which part of the nail serves as a watertight seal that protects the matrix against infection?

a)

Eponychium

b)

Lunula

c)

Mantle

d)

Hyponychium

85.

The part of the nail plate that extends beyond the end of the finger is called the:

a)

Side wall

b)

Free edge

c)

Eponychium

d)

Hyponychium

86.

The living tissue that overlies the nail plate on the sides of the nail is known as the:

a)

Mantle

b)

Eponychium

c)

Lunula

d)

Perionychium

87.

A protein substance found in nails and hair is:

a)

Keratin

b)

Cuticle

c)

Lunula

d)

Hyponychium

88.

The study of the structure and growth of the nails is called:

a)

Onyx

b)

Etiology

c)

Onychology

d)

Keratinization

89.

Another term for tinea pedis is:

a)

Hangnail

b)

Athlete’s foot

c)

Tinea unguium

d)

Contact dermatitis

90.

A loosening or separation of the nail is referred to as:

a)

Paronychia

b)

Onycholysis

c)

Corrugations

d)

Onychcryptosis

91.

Another name for split or brittle nails is:

a)

Agnails

b)

Leukonychia

c)

Onychophagy

d)

Onychorrhexis

92.

Another term for bitten nails is:

a)

Onychoptosis

b)

Onychophagy

c)

Onychorrhexis

d)

Onychgryphosis

93.

Technical term for natural nail is

a)

Onyx

b)

Natural nail

c)

Onychophagy

d)

Nailology

94.

The visible part of the matrix is called:

a)

Lunula

b)

Eponychium

c)

Nail bed

d)

Nail plate

95.

The dead, colorless tissue attached at the nail base to the natural nail plate is called:

a)

Hyponychium

b)

Hangnail

c)

Free edge

d)

Cuticle

96.

Replacement of a natural fingernail takes:

a)

4 to 6 months

b)

2 to 3 months

c)

4 to 6 weeks

d)

9 to 12 weeks

97.

Condition in which the living skin around the nail plate splits and tears:

a)

Paronychia

b)

Hangnail

c)

Egg shell nails

d)

Discolored nails

98.

White spots, are whitish discolorations of the nails:

a)

Leukonychia spots

b)

Melanonychia

c)

Splinter hemorrhage

d)

Egg shell nails

99.

Another term for ingrown nail is:

a)

Onychorrhexis

b)

Onychocryptosis

c)

Nail psoriasis

d)

Onychophagy

100.

Infection that appears as a green, yellow, or black discoloration on the nail bed is called:

a)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

b)

Pyogenic granuloma

c)

Onychorrhis

d)

Onychocryptosis

101.

The ability of the hair to absorb moisture, liquids or chemicals is known as:

a)

Texture

b)

Density

c)

Porosity

d)

Capacity

102.

Small cracks starting in the cuticle and splitting the hair entirely are known as:

a)

Pityriasis

b)

Trichoptilosis

c)

Trichorrhexis

d)

Pityriasis Steatoides

103.

The loss of pigment in the hair as a person ages is called:

a)

Trichonodosis

b)

Abraded Hair

c)

Plica Polonica

d)

Acquired Canities

104.

A disorder that refers to a chronic scalp condition with excessive flaking, which accumulates on the scalp or falls to the shoulders, is known as dandruff or:

a)

Scabies

b)

Pityriasis

c)

Tinea Capitis

d)

Tinea Favosa

105.

An infestation of head lice on the scalp is called:

a)

Scabies

b)

Tinea Favosa

c)

Pediculosis Capitis

d)

Pityriasis Steatoides

106.

Short, fine, non-pigmented hair found more abundantly on women is known as:

a)

Cilia

b)

Vellus

c)

Lanugo

d)

Terminal

107.

Hair grows from a tube-like "pocket" called a root sheath or a(n):

a)

Bulb

b)

Follicle

c)

Papilla

d)

Arrector Pili

108.

Which of the following terms is known as the active growing stage of hair?

a)

Resting stage

b)

Anagen stage

c)

Catagen stage

d)

Transitional stage

109.

The resting stage of hair growth when the hair bulb has no attached root sheath is referred to as the:

a)

Active stage

b)

Telogen stage

c)

Anagen stage

d)

Catagen stage

110.

Eumelanin is the type of melanin that produces:

a)

Red hair color

b)

Red/orange hair color

c)

Brown/black hair color

d)

Brown/orange hair color

111.

Dandruff is the result of a fungus called:

a)

Malassezia

b)

Pyrithione

c)

Steatoides

d)

Capitis

112.

Temporary hair loss experienced at the end of a pregnancy is called?

a)

Alopecia

b)

Sebum

c)

Postpartum Alopecia

d)

Pityriasis

113.

The technical term for brittle hair is called:

a)

Fragilitas Crinium

b)

Alopecia

c)

Anagen

d)

Tinea

114.

An acute, localized bacterial infection of the hair follicle that produces constant pain is:

a)

Tinea

b)

Alopecia

c)

Furuncle

d)

Capitis

115.

Vellus hair is also known as _____ hair.

a)

Straight

b)

Lanugo

c)

Melamine

d)

Terminal

116.

The major elements that make up human hair are carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen, and sulfur, often referred to as:

a)

COHNS elements

b)

Amino acids

c)

Primary acids

d)

Lymph glands

117.

What type of bond is broken by wetting the hair with water and is reformed when the hair dries?

a)

Salt bond

b)

Disulfide bond

c)

Hydrogen bond

d)

Peptide bond

118.

Peptide Bonds are also known as:

a)

End bonds

b)

Polypeptide chains

c)

Side bonds

d)

Proteins

119.

___ hair has the smallest diameter and breaks easily.

a)

Coarse

b)

Fine

c)

Medium

d)

Thin

120.

The salt bonds are broken by:

a)

pH change

b)

Water

c)

Chemicals

d)

Surfactants