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Data Communication Quiz

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which layer is responsible for providing services to the user?

a)

Physical

b)

Network

c)

Application

d)

Data Link

2.

Data communications must have:

a)

Message, sender, receiver

b)

Transmission medium

c)

Protocol

d)

All of the above

3.

Which of the following is not a component of data communication?

a)

Sender

b)

Router

c)

Message

d)

Protocol

4.

The effectiveness of a data communication system depends on:

a)

Delivery

b)

Accuracy

c)

Timeliness

d)

All of the above

5.

Which type of connection provides a dedicated link between two devices?

a)

Multipoint

b)

Point-to-Point

c)

Broadcast

d)

Unicast

6.

Topology with a single backbone and all devices connected to it:

a)

Ring

b)

Star

c)

Bus

d)

Mesh

7.

Which topology requires the most cabling?

a)

Bus

b)

Star

c)

Ring

d)

Mesh

8.

The Internet is an example of a:

a)

LAN

b)

WAN

c)

MAN

d)

PAN

9.

What is the correct order of data flow?

a)

Data → Segment → Packet → Frame → Bits

b)

Bits → Frame → Packet → Segment → Data

c)

Data → Frame → Packet → Segment → Bits

d)

Bits → Segment → Frame → Packet → Data

10.

A protocol is:

a)

A set of devices

b)

A transmission medium

c)

A set of rules

d)

A topology

11.

The OSI model has how many layers?

a)

5

b)

6

c)

7

d)

4

12.

In the OSI model, the data link layer is responsible for:

a)

Reliable transmission

b)

Node-to-node delivery

c)

End-to-end delivery

d)

Encryption

13.

The function of the transport layer is:

a)

IP addressing

b)

Encoding data

c)

Flow and error control

d)

File transfer

14.

Which OSI layer ensures error-free delivery of data between two computers?

a)

Transport

b)

Network

c)

Data Link

d)

Physical

15.

Which model is used on the Internet?

a)

OSI

b)

TCP/IP

c)

Hybrid

d)

ATM

16.

In the TCP/IP model, which layer corresponds to the OSI application layer?

a)

Application

b)

Internet

c)

Network Access

d)

Transport

17.

IP operates at which layer?

a)

Application

b)

Transport

c)

Network

d)

Data Link

18.

SMTP, HTTP, and FTP work at which layer of the OSI model?

a)

Session

b)

Application

c)

Transport

d)

Data Link

19.

What layer converts bits into electrical signals?

a)

Application

b)

Data Link

c)

Transport

d)

Physical

20.

Which layer in the OSI model handles routing?

a)

Data Link

b)

Network

c)

Transport

d)

Session

21.

Which of the following is a continuous signal?

a)

Analog

b)

Digital

c)

Binary

d)

Discrete

22.

The rate at which a signal changes is called:

a)

Bandwidth

b)

Frequency

c)

Bit rate

d)

Wavelength

23.

In a digital signal, the number of signal levels determines the:

a)

Frequency

b)

Bit rate

c)

Amplitude

d)

Attenuation

24.

Which is not a characteristic of an analog signal?

a)

Amplitude

b)

Frequency

c)

Phase

d)

Baud rate

25.

The number of bits sent per second is known as:

a)

Baud rate

b)

Bit rate

c)

Throughput

d)

Latency

26.

A digital signal with 8 levels can carry how many bits per level?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

27.

What causes the loss of signal strength over distance?

a)

Noise

b)

Attenuation

c)

Interference

d)

Crosstalk

28.

The time required for a signal to travel from source to destination is:

a)

Throughput

b)

Propagation delay

c)

Jitter

d)

Bit rate

29.

Which type of noise results from electromagnetic interference?

a)

Impulse

b)

Thermal

c)

Crosstalk

d)

Induced

30.

What is jitter in networking?

a)

Signal delay

b)

Variation in signal delay

c)

Interference

d)

Signal amplitude drop

31.

Which type of multiplexing divides the channel by time?

a)

FDM

b)

WDM

c)

TDM

d)

CDMA

32.

FDM is used mainly with which type of signals?

a)

Analog

b)

Digital

c)

Binary

d)

Pulse

33.

In WDM, signals are separated by:

a)

Frequency

b)

Wavelength

c)

Time slots

d)

Voltage levels

34.

TDM is efficient only when:

a)

All channels are full

b)

Time slots are dynamic

c)

Signal strength is high

d)

Data rates are equal

35.

In synchronous TDM, if a device has no data to send:

a)

Its time slot is skipped

b)

Its slot remains empty

c)

Another device uses it

d)

Signal is terminated

36.

A major drawback of FDM is:

a)

Synchronization

b)

Guard bands waste bandwidth

c)

Difficult modulation

d)

Delay

37.

The process of combining multiple signals for transmission is:

a)

Encoding

b)

Multiplexing

c)

Spreading

d)

Decoding

38.

Which multiplexing is mostly used in fiber optics?

a)

FDM

b)

TDM

c)

WDM

d)

CDMA

39.

In statistical TDM, time slots are:

a)

Fixed

b)

Dynamic and allocated as needed

c)

Allocated by frequency

d)

Set by wavelength

40.

Which is a guided transmission medium?

a)

Microwave

b)

Fiber optic

c)

Infrared

d)

Radio wave

41.

What is the maximum data rate of coaxial cable compared to twisted pair?

a)

Lower

b)

Same

c)

Higher

d)

None

42.

is the maximum data rate of coaxial cable compared to twisted pair?

a)

Lower

b)

Same

c)

Higher

d)

None

43.

Which type of fiber optic cable supports long-distance transmission?

a)

Multimode

b)

Single-mode

c)

Hybrid mode

d)

Light mode

44.

UTP stands for:

a)

Ultra Thick Pipe

b)

Unshielded Twisted Pair

c)

Universal Transmission Protocol

d)

Uninterrupted Telecom Pair

45.

Which is not an unguided medium?

a)

Microwave

b)

Infrared

c)

Coaxial

d)

Radio wave

46.

Microwave signals need:

a)

Fiber cables

b)

Line-of-sight

c)

Coaxial cables

d)

Amplifiers

47.

What is the main disadvantage of optical fiber?

a)

Expensive

b)

Low speed

c)

High attenuation

d)

Interference

48.

Which type of wave is used in satellite communication?

a)

Infrared

b)

Microwave

c)

Lightwave

d)

Ultrasonic

49.

Twisting in twisted pair cables is used to:

a)

Add length

b)

Reduce interference

c)

Strengthen the wire

d)

Increase speed

50.

Which is not a characteristic of fiber optic cables?

a)

Immune to EMI

b)

High bandwidth

c)

Uses light signals

d)

Copper core

51.

Ethernet is defined under which IEEE standard?

a)

802.3

b)

802.11

c)

802.5

d)

802.15

52.

Which access method is used in classic Ethernet?

a)

Token passing

b)

CSMA/CD

c)

Polling

d)

FDMA

53.

What is the minimum frame size for Ethernet?

a)

46 bytes

b)

64 bytes

c)

128 bytes

d)

1500 bytes

54.

Which of the following is NOT a valid Ethernet frame field?

a)

Preamble

b)

Destination address

c)

Checksum

d)

Type/length

55.

What is the maximum transmission unit (MTU) for standard Ethernet?

a)

1000 bytes

b)

1500 bytes

c)

64 bytes

d)

9000 bytes

56.

Which layer does Ethernet operate at?

a)

Application

b)

Network

c)

Transport

d)

Data Link and Physical

57.

The physical address in Ethernet is known as:

a)

IP address

b)

Host address

c)

MAC address

d)

Domain name

58.

Ethernet uses what type of cabling for fast connections?

a)

UTP

b)

Coaxial

c)

STP

d)

All of the above

59.

What replaces CSMA/CD in full-duplex Ethernet?

a)

Token

b)

Collision window

c)

Switches

d)

Segments

60.

A collision domain in Ethernet refers to:

a)

Logical grouping of networks

b)

Devices sharing the same cable segment

c)

IP address group

d)

Broadcast range

61.

The IEEE standard for wireless LANs is:

a)

802.3

b)

802.5

c)

802.11

d)

802.15

62.

What is a BSS in wireless networking?

a)

Basic system station

b)

Base signal space

c)

Basic service set

d)

Broadcast subnet signal

63.

Which of the following defines an Extended Service Set (ESS)?

a)

One AP and one station

b)

Multiple BSSs connected by a distribution system

c)

A token-based network

d)

A mesh of routers

64.

What is the access method used in IEEE 802.11?

a)

CSMA/CD

b)

CSMA/CA

c)

Token passing

d)

FDMA

65.

The wireless LAN MAC layer uses:

a)

Token-based access

b)

CDMA

c)

Distributed coordination function

d)

Logical link control

66.

What is the purpose of the RTS/CTS mechanism in wireless LANs?

a)

Increase throughput

b)

Reduce signal strength

c)

Avoid collisions

d)

Improve power efficiency

67.

Which of the following is not a WLAN topology?

a)

Ad hoc

b)

Infrastructure

c)

Extended service set

d)

Token ring

68.

Which frequency band is commonly used in WLANs?

a)

10 MHz

b)

1 GHz

c)

2.4 GHz

d)

100 MHz

69.

What is the typical range of a wireless LAN indoors?

a)

1-5 meters

b)

10-30 meters

c)

100-500 meters

d)

Over 1 km

70.

The hidden station problem occurs in:

a)

Token networks

b)

Wireless LANs

c)

Coaxial networks

d)

Fiber optics

71.

What device operates at the network layer to connect LANs?

a)

Hub

b)

Switch

c)

Router

d)

Bridge

72.

A backbone network is used to:

a)

Replace cables

b)

Connect servers only

c)

Interconnect LANs

d)

Extend coaxial reach

73.

Which device operates at the data link layer?

a)

Router

b)

Switch

c)

Repeater

d)

Gateway

74.

A virtual LAN allows:

a)

Devices from different physical LANs to communicate as one

b)

Encryption

c)

Signal boosting

d)

Firewall bypass

75.

What is a collapsed backbone?

a)

A broken cable

b)

A centralized backbone in a router/switch

c)

A hybrid of ring and bus

d)

None of the above

76.

What protocol is often used for inter-VLAN routing?

a)

UDP

b)

RIP

c)

ICMP

d)

IEEE 802.1Q

77.

A distribution layer is part of:

a)

OSI model

b)

Backbone design

c)

Application logic

d)

IP addressing

78.

VLANs improve security by:

a)

Encrypting data

b)

Limiting broadcast domains

c)

Compressing traffic

d)

Filtering IP addresses

79.

Which device is required for communication between VLANs?

a)

Hub

b)

Switch

c)

Router or Layer 3 Switch

d)

Modem

80.

What identifies VLANs in Ethernet frames?

a)

Destination MAC

b)

VLAN tag

c)

IP address

d)

Port number

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