wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

AP Microeconomics

Total questions: 77

Worksheet time: 2hrs 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Represents how goods, services, and money move through our economy.

a)

Circular Flow Diagram

b)

Supply Curve

c)

Demand Curve

d)

Supply and Demand Curve

2.

Consumers will buy more of a good when its prices is lower and less when its price is higher.

a)

Law of Demand

b)

Law of Supply

c)

Price Floor

d)

Price Ceiling

3.

Producers offer more of a good or service as its prices increases and less as its price falls.

a)

Law of Demand

b)

Law of Supply

c)

Price Floor

d)

Price Ceiling

4.

The point at which the quantity demanded for a product or service is equal to the quantity supplied of that product or service.

a)

Equilibrium

b)

Price Stability

c)

Shortage

d)

Supply

5.

A minimum price consumers are required to pay for a good or service.

a)

Price Ceiling

b)

Market Clearing Price

c)

Equilibrium

d)

Price Floor

6.

A maximum price consumers are required to pay for a good or service.

a)

Price Ceiling

b)

Equilibrium

c)

Market Clearing Price

d)

Price Floor

7.

A market in which a single seller dominates.

a)

Monopolistic Competition

b)

Monopoly

c)

Oligopoly

d)

Perfect Competition

8.

A market structure in which a few large firms dominate a market.

a)

Oligopoly

b)

Monopoly

c)

Monopolistic Competition

d)

Perfect Competition

9.

A market structure in which many companies sell products that are similar but not identical.

a)

Monopolistic Competition

b)

Oligopoly

c)

Monopoly

d)

Perfect Competition

10.

A market structure in which a large number of firms all produce the same product and no single seller controls supply or prices.

a)

Monopoly

b)

Monopolistic Comeptition

c)

Oligopoly

d)

Perfect Competition

11.
An increase in the price of milk causes a decrease in the demand for cereal. The two products are
a)
substitutes
b)
complements
c)
unrelated
d)
demand elastic
12.
Because a modest price increase has little or no effect, the demand for the product is
a)
complementary
b)
inelastic
c)
elastic
d)
unit elastic
13.
The level of profit-maximizing output is reached when marginal cost is
a)
double marginal revenue
b)
one-half of marginal revenue
c)
less than marginal revenue
d)
equal to marginal revenue
14.
Rent payments and property taxes would be counted as
a)
total cost
b)
variable costs
c)
fixed costs
d)
marginal costs
15.
Many businesses are engaging in e-commerce because
a)
subsidies are available to many e-commerce businesses.
b)
they are able to save on fixed and variable costs.
c)
operating costs never increase.
d)
variable costs can be almost eliminated.
16.
Profits will be maximized when marginal revenue
a)
is double marginal cost
b)
equals marginal cost
c)
is one-half marginal cost
d)
exceeds marginal cost
17.
In a market economy, a high price is a signal for
a)
producers to supply more and consumers to buy less.
b)
producers to supply less and consumers to buy more.
c)
government to intervene to protect consumers.
d)
producers to supply less and consumers to buy less.
18.
The federal minimum wage law demonstrates
a)
a price ceiling
b)
a price floor
c)
a price equilibrium
d)
a market price
19.

What is the Profit Maximizing Formula?

a)

Revenue > Expenses

b)

MR > ATC

c)

MR = MC

d)

AFC + AVC = ATC

20.

What is the difference between Accounting (Normal) Profit and Economic Profit?

a)

Merchandise Costs

b)

Opportunity Cost

c)

Labor Cost

d)

Expenses

21.

Bob currently earns $50,000 per year as a financial planner. If he quit his job and opened an ice cream stand on the beach, earning $25,000 per year in accounting profit, what is his Economic Profit?

a)

$25,000

b)

$50,000

c)

$75,000

d)

-$25,000

22.

According to the Profit Maximizing Formula, how many units should this firm produce?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

23.

Which of the following is the best definition for Marginal Cost?

a)

The cost of producing more units

b)

The cost of producing one additional unit

c)

Fixed costs

d)

Variable Costs

24.

Which costs change based on the number of units produced?

a)

Fixed

b)

Variable

25.

Labor, utilities, and raw materials are an example of which of these?

a)

Fixed Costs

b)

Variable Costs

26.

A change in Fixed Costs affect which of the following? (check all that apply)

a)

AFC

b)

AVC

c)

ATC

d)

MC

27.

A change in Variable Costs affect which of the following? (check all that apply)

a)

AFC

b)

AVC

c)

ATC

d)

MC

28.

Does an increase in Fixed Costs affect a firm's output?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Maybe

29.

Does an increase in Variable Costs affect a firm's output?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Maybe

30.

Which of the following best explains why firms experience Increasing Marginal Returns?

a)

Workers can specialize

b)

Workers reach the limit of fixed resources

c)

Managers motivate workers to produce more

d)

Poor management leads to low motivation

31.

Which of the following best explains why firms experience Decreasing Marginal Returns?

a)

Workers can specialize

b)

Workers reach the limit of fixed resources

c)

Managers motivate workers to produce more

d)

Poor management leads to low motivation

32.

With which worker does this firm begin to experience Diminishing Marginal Returns?

a)

First

b)

Second

c)

Third

d)

Fourth

33.

With which worker does this firm begin to experience Negative Marginal Returns?

a)

Second

b)

Third

c)

Fourth

d)

Fifth

34.

What is the best definition for Short Run?

a)

A period of time in which at lease one resource is fixed

b)

A period of time in which all resources can change

c)

A period of 1 to 5 years

d)

A period of 5 or more years

35.

What is the best definition for Long Run?

a)

A period of time in which at lease one resource is fixed

b)

A period of time in which all resources can change

c)

A period of 1 to 5 years

d)

A period of 5 or more years

36.

A firm expands its fixed resources and its overall costs of production go down. It is experiencing...

a)

Increasing returns to scale

b)

Constant returns to scale

c)

Negative returns to scale

37.

A firm expands its fixed resources and its overall costs of production go up. It is experiencing...

a)

Increasing returns to scale

b)

Constant returns to scale

c)

Negative returns to scale

38.

Which type of market have we studies in this unit?

a)

Perfect Competition

b)

Monopolistic Competition

c)

Oligopoly

d)

Monopoly

39.

Which of these is NOT a characteristic of Perfectly Competitive markets?

a)

Many small firms

b)

Virtually identical products

c)

High barriers to entry

d)

No need to advertise

40.

Which of these best explains why Mr. Darp is horizontal?

a)

Demand in that market is perfectly elastic

b)

Demand in that market is perfectly inelastic

c)

Firms can sell as many units as they want for the same price

d)

Mr. Darp is taking a nap

41.

If a firm's Marginal Costs increase, its output will...

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Stay the Same

d)

Shut down

42.

If a firm's Marginal Revenue increases, its output will...

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Stay the Same

d)

Shut down

43.

In the long run, a Perfectly Competitive Firm will..

a)

Earn zero economic profit

b)

Earn an economic profit

c)

Make an economic loss

d)

Shut down

44.

Which of the following best describes Productive Efficiency?

a)

Minimum ATC

b)

Minimum AVC

c)

Minimum MC

d)

Minimum AFC

45.

Which of the following best describes Allocative Efficiency?

a)

D = ATC

b)

D = AVC

c)

D = MC

d)

Run = DMC

46.

What will happen when there is short-term PROFIT in a market?

a)

Firms will enter the market, and prices will rise.

b)

Firms will enter the market, and prices will fall.

c)

Firms will leave the market, and prices will rise.

d)

Firms will leave the market, and prices will fall.

47.

What will happen when there is short-term LOSS in a market?

a)

Firms will enter the market, and prices will rise.

b)

Firms will enter the market, and prices will fall.

c)

Firms will leave the market, and prices will rise.

d)

Firms will leave the market, and prices will fall.

48.

Which of the following would be considered a substitute for a strawberry?

a)

Lemon

b)

Rubber

c)

Oil

d)

Raspberry

49.

If a good or service has a lot of substitutes, it is considered to be.

a)

Elastic

b)

Inelastic

50.

According to the concept of price signals, if skinny jeans are selling at high prices, what will happen?

a)

More skinny jeans will be made

b)

Less skinny jeans will be made

51.

Stephen decided that his job as a doctor is too stressful, even if they do make $125,000 a year. He quit his medical practice and opened up a comic book store.


The start up costs were $20,000 but he made $70,000 his first year.


Overall, what was Stephen's economic profit from making the switch? (Remember to account for opportunity costs)

a)

$75,000 loss

b)

$50,000 loss

c)

$75,000 gain

d)

$50,000 gain

52.

From an economic standpoint, if the explicit and implicit wage and benefits outweigh the explicit and implicit costs of making a decision, you should make the decision.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

For his fast food place, Louie's Sub Shop, Louie decided that he needed to get an oven to make toasted subs since they are all the rage. A new oven to toast his subs will cost $10,000 if he wants a quality one.


In this example, what type of cost is the oven?

a)

Variable Cost

b)

Fixed Cost

54.

Lisa's Pizza Joint has a major problem: this year there is a shortage of tomatoes due to a drought, making the prices for tomatoes skyrocket. Although her customers won't like it, Lisa has to raise the prices on her pizzas.


In this example, what type of cost are the tomatoes?

a)

Variable Costs

b)

Fixed Costs

55.

What is the equation for the Total Cost of something?

a)

Fixed costs + variable costs

b)

Fixed costs - variable costs

56.

If Louie's oven cost $10,000 and he's made 1,000 pizzas since he got it, what is the average cost of the oven so far?

a)

$10/pizza

b)

$100/pizza

c)

$1,000/pizza

d)

$10,000/pizza

57.
At 100 units of output, a firm's total cost is $10,000. If the firm's total fixed cost is $4,000, its average variable cost is equal to:
a)
$140
b)
$100
c)
$60
d)
$40
58.
As output of a firm increases, the difference between the firm’s average total cost and its average variable cost gets smaller because the firm’s
a)
total cost is increasing
b)
marginal cost is increasing
c)
average fixed cost is decreasing
d)
marginal product of labor is decreasing 
59.
Shelby is an entrepreneur who has decided to open a small advertising firm. She rents office space at a cost of $25,000 per year, she has employed an assistant at a salary of $30,000 per year, and she incurs annual utility and office supply expenses of $20,000. Her best alternative is to work elsewhere and to earn a salary of $50,000 per year. How much annual revenue must her firm receive so that Shelby earns zero economic profit? 
a)
$50,000
b)
$75,000
c)
$100,000
d)
$125,000
60.
A firm produces 400 books and sells each book for $15. If the explicit cost of producing the books is $4,500 and the implicit cost is $1,000, the firm’s economic profit is:
a)
$0
b)
$500
c)
$1,000
d)
$1,500
61.
The marginal cost curve typically does which of the following?
a)
Increases at a fixed rate.
b)
Decreases and eventually increases.
c)
Decreases at a decreasing rate.
d)
Increases and eventually decreases.
62.
The property whereby long-run average total cost falls as the quantity of output increases.
a)
Economies of Scale
b)
Efficient Scale
c)
Constant Returns to Scale
d)
Diseconomies of Scale
63.
What is the only curve that continues to fall as output increases?
a)
Average Fixed Cost
b)
Average Variable Cost
c)
Average Total Cost
d)
Marginal Cost
64.

A graphic portrayal showing how a change in the amount of a single variable input affects total outputs.

a)

Theory of Production

b)

Law of Variable Proportions

c)

Production Function

d)

Stages of Production

e)

Marginal Product

65.

Production Period long enough to change the amount of variables and fixed inputs used in production.

a)

Diminishing Returns

b)

Long Run

c)

Short Run

d)

Stages of Production

e)

Raw Materials

66.
Input costs that may not have a direct outlay of money.  Value of the opportunity cost.
a)
Fixed Cost
b)
Variable Cost
c)
Implicit Cost
d)
Explicit Cost
67.
Measure of profit which includes explict costs and depreciation of capital.
a)
Accounting Profit
b)
Economic Profit
c)
Total Profit
d)
Marginal Profit
68.

If a higher level of production allows workers to

specialize in particular tasks, a firm will likely exhibit

________ of scale and ________ average total cost.

a)

economies, falling

b)

economies, rising

c)

diseconomies, falling

d)

diseconomies, rising

69.

What is the goal of a firm?

a)

to make profits

b)

to maximize profits

c)

to maximize revenue

d)

none of the above

70.

Total Revenue (minus) Explicit and Implicit cost =

a)

Accounting Profit

b)

Economic Profit

c)

Economic Cost

d)

Total Profit

71.

What is the profit maximizing condition?

a)

MR = D

b)

MR = MC

c)

MC = D

d)

D = Profits

72.

The image above shows a firm making

a)

Economic Profit

b)

Economic loss

c)

Breaking even

d)

Shutting down

73.

Should the following firm shutdown?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Not enough information present

74.

During the winter, theme parks in Orlando close earlier than in the summer. The reason the theme parks close early during the winter is because during that season the marginal revenue from staying open later is ________ the marginal cost.

a)

greater than

b)

less than

c)

equal to

d)

zero compared to

75.

The above figure shows a perfectly competitive firm. If the market price is $15, the firm

a)

is incurring an economic loss.

b)

is making an economic profit.

c)

is making zero economic profit.

d)

will immediately shut down.

e)

might shut down but more information is needed about the AVC.

76.

The above figure shows a perfectly competitive firm. If the market price is more than $20 per unit, the firm

a)

will definitely shut down to minimize its losses.

b)

will stay open to produce and will make zero economic profit.

c)

will stay open to produce and will incur an economic loss.

d)

will stay open to produce and will make an economic profit.

e)

might shut down but more information is needed about the fixed cost.

77.

The figure above shows a perfectly competitive firm. If the market price is $20 per unit, then the firm produces ________ units and makes an economic profit that is ________.

a)

more than 30; more than $100

b)

30; more than $100

c)

20; less than $400

d)

0; zero

e)

30; zero