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DS 3262 Ch 41- Normal anatomy & physiology of the females pelvis

Total questions: 281

Worksheet time: 2hrs 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following statements about ultrasound approaches for evaluating the female pelvis is True?

a)

transabdominal ultrasound provides a more detailed study than endovaginal ultrasound

b)

endovaginal ultrasound requires a full bladder for optimal imaging

c)

transabdominal ultrasound offers a wider field of view but less detail

d)

a complete pelvic examination consists only of endovaginal ultrasound

2.

What is the recommended bladder status for a transabdominal ultrasound of the female pelvis?

a)

empty bladder

b)

full bladder

c)

bladder status does not matter

d)

catheterized bladder

3.

Which ultrasound approach provides a more detailed study of the female pelvic structures?

a)

transabdominal ultrasound

b)

endovaginal ultrasound

c)

both provide equal detail

d)

neither approach provides detailed images

4.

Why is endovaginal ultrasound limited in its imaging capabilities?

a)

it requires a full bladder

b)

it has a lower image resoluation

c)

it has limited filed of view and depth

d)

it cannot image the uterus

5.

Which of the following is a characteristic of transabdominal ultrasound?

a)

empty bladder

b)

more detailed images

c)

limited depth

d)

wider field of view

6.

At what stage of life do ALL ova begin their development?

a)

during puberty

b)

at birth

c)

during embryonic life

d)

at menarche

7.

What constitutes a complete pelvic ultrasound examination?

a)

transabdominal ultrasound only

b)

endovaginal ultrasound only

c)

both transabdominal and endovaginal ultrasound

d)

only if abnormalities are found

8.

How many bones make up the bony pelvis?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

9.

Which bones form the anterior and lateral margins of the bony pelvis?

a)

sacrum and coccyx

b)

ilium and ischium

c)

two innominate bones

d)

pubic bones

10.

The sacrum and coccyx together form which part of the bony pelvis?

a)

anterior wall

b)

lateral margins

c)

posterior wall

d)

pelvic floor

11.

What is the role of the sacrum in the pelvic structure?

a)

supports the bladder

b)

forms the anterior wall

c)

forms the posterior wall

d)

connects the femur

12.

Which of the following is NOT one of the bones that make up the bony pelvis?

a)

Innominate bone

b)

Sacrum

c)

Coccyx

d)

Femur

13.

What are the two main compartments of the pelvis?

a)

upper pelvis and lower pelvis

b)

anterior pelvis and posterior pelvis

c)

true pelvis and false pelvis

d)

medial pelvis and lateral pelvis

14.

which anatomical marks the division between the true and false pelvis?

a)

the ischial tuberosity

b)

the pelvic brim

c)

the sacroiliac joint

d)

the acetabulum

15.

The plane that divides the true and false pelvis passes through which of the following?

a)

Inferior border of the sacrum to the inferior margin of the pubic symphysis

b)

Iliac crest to the obturator foramen

c)

superior border of the sacrum to the superior margin of the pubic symphysis

d)

Ischial spine to the sacrospinous ligament

16.

The iliopectineal line is associated with which pelvic structure?

a)

pelvic outlet

b)

ischial spine

c)

division between true and false pelvis

d)

attachment of the gluteus medius

17.

Where is the true pelvis located?

a)

above the pelvic brim

b)

below the pelvic brim

c)

at the level of the iliac crest

d)

b/w the coccyx and sacrum

18.

Which of the following best describes the false pelvis?

a)

it is located below the pelvic brim and houses pelvic organs

b)

it is the space b/w the sacrum and the pubic symphysis

c)

it is located above the pelvic brim and communicates with the abdominal cavity superiorly

d)

it is a separate compartment that does not connect with the abdominal or pelvic cavity

19.

The false pelvis communicates with which of the following?

a)

the vertebral column and the gluteal region

b)

the perineum and the inguinal canal

c)

the abdominal cavity superiorly and the pelvic cavity inferiorly

d)

the urinary bladder and rectum

20.

which of the following statements is FALSE?

a)

the true pelvis lies below the pelvic brim

b)

the false pelvis is part of the abdominal cavity

c)

the false pelvis contains most of reproductive organs

d)

the false pelvis is continuous with the abdominal cavity

21.

Which muscles form the pelvic floor?

a)

piriformis and obturator internus

b)

coccygeus and piriformis

c)

levator ani and coccygeus

d)

iliopsoas and obturator internus

22.

Which of the following organs is located in the ANTERIOR pelvic cavity?

a)

rectum

b)

colon

c)

ovary

d)

ileum

23.

how do pelvic muscles appear on ultrasound viewed in their long axis?

a)

hyperechoic with anechoic striations

b)

isoechoic with no striations

c)

hypoechoic with hyperechoic striations

d)

hyperechoic with shadowing

24.

which muscles combine to form the iliopsoas muscle?

a)

psoas major and obturator internus

b)

psoas major and iliacus

c)

iliacus and coccygeus

d)

levator ani and psoas

25.

the right and left iliopsoas muscles are located:

a)

posterior to the uterus

b)

anterior to the vagina

c)

lateral to the urinary bladder

d)

medial to the rectum

26.

on ultrasound, which muscle is identified with black arrows?

a)

ilipsoas

b)

piriformis

c)

obturator internus

d)

levator ani

27.

on ultrasound, which muscle is identified with the white arrows?

a)

iliopsoas

b)

piriformis

c)

obturator internus

d)

levator ani

28.

Where are the curved levator ani muscles located relative to the vagina?

a)

anterior and lateral

b)

posterior and lateral

c)

medial and anterior

d)

superior and posterior

29.

Which muscle is indicated by black arrows ?

a)

obturator internus

b)

iliopsoas

c)

piriform muscle

d)

levator ani

30.

When empty, the bladder remains:

a)

in the false pelvis

b)

above the symphysis pubis

c)

behind the anterior abdominal wall

d)

entirely within the true pelvis

31.

Where is the bladder located within the pelvic cavity?

a)

Posterior portion of the pelvic cavity

b)

Anterior portion of the pelvic cavity

c)

Superior portion of the abdominal cavityLateral portion of the pelvic cavity

32.

What anatomical structure lies directly anterior to the bladder?

a)

Sacrum

b)

Uterus

c)

Pubic symphysis

d)

Rectum

33.

What happens when the bladder becomes distended?

a)

It shifts into the retroperitoneal space

b)

It descends into the perineum

c)

It rises behind the anterior abdominal wall

d)

It compresses the spinal cord

34.

Ureters enter the bladder at which location?

a)

ureteropelvic junction

b)

fundus

c)

trigone

d)

apex

35.

From where do the ureters descend?

a)

liver

b)

bladder

c)

kidneys

d)

urethra

36.

What is the general direction of the ureters as they descend?

a)

superior and lateral

b)

inferior and posterior

c)

anterior and medially

d)

posterior and laterally

37.

Which muscle do the ureters pass anterior to?

a)

Gluteus maximus

b)

Rectus abdominis

c)

Psoas muscle

d)

Obturator internus

38.

How can the ureters be identified sonographically?

a)

By detecting peristalsis in the urethra

b)

By observing urine pooling in the renal cortex

c)

By locating the ureteral jets in the posteroinferior bladder

d)

By measuring bladder wall thickness

39.

The vagina lies:

a)

anterior to the urethra and bladder

b)

posterior to the bladder and anterior to the rectum

c)

between the rectum and color

d)

posterior to the rectum and anterior to the urethra

40.

What structure is described as a collapsed muscular tube?

a)

urethra

b)

fallopian tube

c)

vagina

d)

ureter

41.

The vagina extends from the external genitalia to what structure?

a)

urethra

b)

cervix of the uterus

c)

bladder

d)

rectum

42.

Which structure lies directly anterior to the vagina?

a)

rectum

b)

cervix

c)

urethra and urinary bladder

d)

sigmoid colon

43.

Which structure is located posterior to the vagina?

a)

ovaries

b)

bladder

c)

pubic symphysis

d)

rectum

44.

The uterus develops from:

a)

endodermal folds

b)

embryonic mullerian ducts

c)

wolffian bodies

d)

mesonephric tubules

45.

The uterus is derived from which embryonic structure?

a)

wolffian ducts

b)

mesonephric ducts

c)

mullerian ducts

d)

cloacal membrane

46.

When do the mullerian ducts fuse to form the uterine lumen?

a)

Between the 4th and 6th weeks of development

b)

Between the 7th and 12th weeks of development

c)

at birth

d)

after puberty

47.

Which of the following best describes the shape of a normal uterus?

a)

cylindrical

b)

oval

c)

pear-shaped

d)

round

48.

Which are the main anatomical divisions of the uterus?

a)

Fundus, body, and ovary

b)

Fundus, body, cervix

c)

Isthmus, ovary, and cervix

d)

Corpus, ovary, and infundibulum

49.

What is the average length of a menarcheal uterus?

a)

3-4 cm

b)

4-6 cm

c)

6-8 cm

d)

8-10 cm

50.

What are the typical anterior-posterior and transverse dimensions of a menarcheal uterus?

a)

2-3 cm

b)

3-5 cm

c)

5-7 cm

d)

7-9 cm

51.

Which of the following factors influence the size of the uterus?

a)

BMI and blood pressure

b)

Age and parity

c)

Hormone levels only

d)

Ethnicity and weight

52.

The fallopian tubes enter the uterus at the:

a)

isthmus

b)

cornua

c)

endometrium

d)

cervix

53.

What is the widest and most superior portion of the uterus called?

a)

cervix

b)

body

c)

fundus

d)

cornua

54.

What structure is located at the lateral borders of the fundus where the fallopian tubes enter the uterus?

a)

cervical os

b)

cornua

c)

isthmus

d)

infundibulum

55.

What is the largest portion of the uterus?

a)

fundus

b)

body

c)

cornua

d)

cervix

56.

Where is the body of the uterus located?

a)

Between the cervix and vagina

b)

Between the ovaries and fallopian tubes

c)

Between the fundus and the cervix

d)

Between the bladder and rectum

57.

The internal and external os are part of the:

a)

fundus

b)

myometrium

c)

endocervix

d)

ectocervix

58.

What is the cervix?

a)

The upper dome-shaped portion of the uterus

b)

The widest part of the uterus

c)

The lower cylindrical portion of the uterus

d)

The muscular layer of the uterus

59.

What is the endocervix?

a)

The external surface of the cervix

b)

The area where the fallopian tubes enter

c)

The canal within the cervix

d)

The outer muscular layer of the cervix

60.

The endocervix is constricted at its upper and lower ends by which two structures?

a)

Internal os and fundus

b)

External os and isthmus

c)

Internal os and external os

d)

Cornua and vagina

61.

What is the ectocervix?

a)

The opening into the uterine body

b)

The portion of the cervix continuous with the vagina

c)

The internal lining of the endometrium

d)

The muscular layer of the uterus

62.

Which layer of the uterus is muscular and the thickest?

a)

endometrium

b)

myometrium

c)

serosa

d)

peritoneum

63.

What is the outermost layer of the uterine wall called?

a)

endometrium

b)

myometrium

c)

serosa

d)

peritoneum

64.

Which layer of the uterus is the thickest and composed of smooth muscle?

a)

endometrium

b)

serosa

c)

cervical canal

d)

myometrium

65.

What type of muscle is found in the myometrium?

a)

Skeletal muscle

b)

Cardiac muscle

c)

Smooth muscle

d)

Voluntary muscle

66.

The muscle fibers in the myometrium are arranged in which patterns?

a)

Spiral and oblique

b)

Longitudinal and circular

c)

Horizontal and diagonal

d)

Vertical and transverse

67.

What is the innermost layer of the uterus called?

a)

myometrium

b)

endometrium

c)

perimetrim

d)

cervix

68.

What type of tissue is the endometrium composed of?

a)

cartilage

b)

connective tissue

c)

mucous membrane

d)

adipose tissue

69.

Which ligament supports the uterus in its midline position?

a)

broad ligament

b)

round ligament

c)

uterosacral ligament

d)

all of the above

70.

How many layers does the endometrium have?

a)

one

b)

two

c)

three

d)

four

71.

What is the name of the superficial layer of the endometrium that sheds during menstruation?

a)

Zona basalis

b)

Zona functionalis

c)

Myometrium

d)

Serosa

72.

What is the role of the zona basalis?

a)

It stores menstrual blood

b)

It supports the myometrium

c)

It regenerates the new endometrium

d)

It initiates ovulation

73.

Which layer of the endometrium contains blind ends of endometrial glands?

a)

Zona functionalis

b)

Zona basalis

c)

Myometrium

d)

Serosa

74.

The appearance of the endometrium on ultrasound varies based on what factor?

a)

Patient’s age only

b)

Diet and exercise

c)

Hormone levels and menstrual status

d)

Size of the uterus

75.

What causes dynamic changes in the endometrium?

a)

Progesterone only

b)

Uterine contractions

c)

Cyclic hormonal flux from ovulation

d)

Temperature changes in the uterus

76.

the mesosalpinx encloses the:

a)

ovary

b)

fallopian tube

c)

uterine artery

d)

cervix

77.

What are the broad ligaments composed of?

a)

Smooth muscle

b)

Connective tissue

c)

Double fold of peritoneum

d)

Adipose tissue

78.

Where do the broad ligaments extend?

a)

From the ovaries to the cervix

b)

From the uterus to the bladder

c)

From the lateral aspect of the uterus to the pelvic sidewall

d)

From the rectum to the sacrum

79.

What structures are contained within the broad ligaments?

a)

Only lymph nodes

b)

Fallopian tubes and ovaries

c)

Uterine blood vessels and nerves

d)

Ligaments and cartilage

80.

What is the name of the upper fold of the broad ligament?

a)

Mesometrium

b)

Mesosalpinx

c)

Mesovarium

d)

Mesocervix

81.

What structure does the mesosalpinx enclose?

a)

Ovary

b)

Uterus

c)

Fallopian tube

d)

Bladder

82.

What is the name of the posterior fold of the broad ligament?

a)

Mesometrium

b)

Mesocervix

c)

Mesovarium

d)

Mesosalpinx

83.

What does the mesovarium enclose?

a)

uterine artery

b)

ovary

c)

cervix

d)

urethra

84.

What is the function of the round ligaments?

a)

Support the ovaries

b)

Suspend the fallopian tubes

c)

Help hold the uterine fundus and body in a forward position

d)

Attach the uterus to the pelvic floor

85.

Which ligaments help maintain the forward position of the uterus?

a)

Uterosacral ligaments

b)

Broad ligaments

c)

Round ligaments

d)

Ovarian ligaments

86.

What is the role of the cardinal and uterosacral ligaments?

a)

Keep the fallopian tubes in place

b)

Hold the cervix in a fixed position

c)

Support the bladder

d)

Suspend the ovaries

87.

Which of the following ligaments does not contribute to holding the cervix fixed?

a)

Cardinal ligament

b)

Uterosacral ligament

c)

Round ligament

d)

None of the above

88.

Which ligaments help hold the cervix in a fixed position?

a)

Round ligaments

b)

Broad ligaments

c)

Cardinal and uterosacral ligaments

d)

Ovarian ligaments

89.

What is the average position of the uterus ?

a)

Retroverted and retroflexed

b)

Anterverted and anteflexed

c)

Midline and upright

d)

Inverted and rotated

90.

What does anteverted mean?

a)

The uterus is tilted backward

b)

The fundus is aligned with the cervix

c)

The Fundus and body are bent forward, forming a 90 degree angle with the vaginal canal

d)

The cervix points straight down

91.

What does anteflexed mean?

a)

The uterine body curves backward over the cervix

b)

The uterine body is straight and rigid

c)

The body and Fundus curve forward over the cervix

d)

The cervix curves toward the sacrum

92.

In a nulliparous female, what helps maintain the anteverted, anteflxed position of the uterus?

a)

Broad ligaments

b)

Uterosacral ligaments

c)

Round ligaments

d)

Ovarian ligaments

93.

What term describes the position when the entire uterus is tilted posteriorly, and the cervical canal forms an angle greater than 90 degrees with the vaginal canal?

a)

anteverted

b)

retroflexed

c)

retroverted

d)

midposition

94.

In which uterine position does the uterine fundus & body curve backward upon the cervix?

a)

retroverted

b)

anteflexed

c)

retroflexed

d)

dextroverted

95.

A uterus that is retroflexed differs from one that is retroverted because it:

a)

is tilted entirely forward

b)

has the cervix forming a 90-degree angle with the vaginal canal

c)

bends backward at the junction of the body and cervix

d)

is only found in nulliparous females

96.

In multiparous females, what change in uterine position is commonly observed?

a)

The uterus moves anteriorly and becomes anteverted

b)

The uterus often remains in the same position ad before pregnancy

c)

The entire uterus may tip, altering its normal orientation

d)

The cervix becomes fixed and immobile

97.

What term describes a uterus that is titled to the right of midline?

a)

Levoverted

b)

Retroverted

c)

Dextroverted

d)

Anterflexed

98.

When the uterus is titled to the left of midline, it is referred to as:

a)

Dextrovertedq

b)

Levoverted

c)

Anteverted

d)

Retroflexed

99.

Uterine prolapse occurs when:

a)

The uterus is retroverted and retroflexed

b)

The bladder is too full

c)

The uterine ligaments and pelvic floor muscles are weak

d)

The cervix becomes more rigid

100.

What is a consequence of uterine prolapse?

a)

The uterus rotates laterally

b)

The uterus protrudes into the vaginal canal

c)

The cervix shortens

d)

The uterine fundus enlarges

101.

How does a full bladder typically affect the position of an anteverted and anteflexed uterus?

a)

it tips the uterus forward

b)

it causes the uterus to rise superiorly

c)

It pushes the uterus laterally

d)

It tips the uterus backward

102.

What is the typical length of the fallopian tubes?

a)

4-8 cm

b)

6-8 cm

c)

10-12 cm

d)

14-16 cm

103.

What is the approximate diameter range of the fallopian tubes?

a)

0.5 to 1mm

b)

1 to 4mm

c)

4 to 6mm

d)

5 to 8 mm

104.

How many anatomic portions in each fallopian tube divided into?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

105.

Which of the following is NOT an anatomical portion of the fallopian tube?

a)

Infundibulum

b)

Ampulla

c)

Corpus

d)

Interstitial

106.

The fallopian tubes open into which of the following at the lateral end?

a)

Uterine cavity

b)

Cervical canal

c)

Vagina

d)

Peritoneal cavity

107.

What is the most lateral portion of the fallopian tube?

a)

Ampulla

b)

Isthmus

c)

Infundibulum

d)

Interstitial

108.

What is the shape of the opening of the infundibulum?

a)

Round

b)

Trumpet-shaped

c)

Funnel-shaped

d)

Oval

109.

What are the finger-like projections on the infundibulum called?

a)

Villi

b)

Papillae

c)

Fimbriae

d)

Cilia

110.

What is the approximate length of the infundibulum?

a)

1 cm

b)

2 cm

c)

3 cm

d)

4 cm

111.

Which part of the fallopian tube is the WIDEST and LONGEST?

a)

Infundibulum

b)

Isthmus

c)

Interstitial

d)

Ampulla

112.

What is the approximate length of the ampulla?

a)

2 cm

b)

3 cm

c)

4 cm

d)

5 cm

113.

Which characteristic best describes the shape and structure of the ampulla?

a)

straight and rigid

b)

narrow and flat

c)

convoluted and curving over the ovary

d)

spiral and fixed

114.

What is a key functional feature of the ampulla?

a)

It houses the fimbrae

b)

It connects directly to the uterus

c)

It is the most common site for fertilization

d)

It is where implantation occurs

115.

The ampulla is described as having which of the following wall characteristics?

a)

Thick and stiff

b)

Thin and dilatable

c)

Muscular and rigid

d)

Spongy and immobile

116.

Which portion of the fallopian tube is located medially, closest the uterus?

a)

Infundibulum

b)

Ampulla

c)

Isthmus

d)

Interstitial

117.

What is the approximate length of the isthmus?

a)

1 cm

b)

2 cm

c)

3 cm

d)

5 cm

118.

What is the approximate diameter of the isthmus>

a)

1 mm

b)

2 mm

c)

3 mm

d)

4 mm

119.

Which portion of the fallopian tube passes through the uterine cornu?

a)

Infundibulum

b)

Ampulla

c)

Isthmus

d)

Interstitial

120.

What is the approx. length of the interstitial portion of the fallopian tube?

a)

2 cm

b)

3 cm

c)

1 cm

d)

4 cm

121.

The interstitial portion of the fallopian tube is located:

a)

Near the ovary

b)

Outside the uterus

c)

Within the uterine wall

d)

B/w the ampulla and fimbriae

122.

Why are fallopian tubes difficult to distinguish on US?

a)

They are always filled with fluid

b)

They are the same echogenicity as bone

c)

They resemble surrounding ligaments & vessels

d)

They are NOT located in the pelvis

123.

What imaging technique may help differentiate fallopian tubes from prominent blood vessels?

a)

M-mode

b)

3D reconstruction

c)

doppler interrogation

d)

harmonic imaging

124.

On ultrasound. fallopian tubes are most often mistaken for:

a)

muscles

b)

ovaries

c)

ligaments and vessels

d)

bladder wall

125.

What is the typical shape of the ovaries?

a)

round

b)

pear-shaped

c)

almond-shaped

d)

triangular

126.

What is the approx. length of the ovary in a menarcheal female?

a)

1 cm

b)

2 cm

c)

3 cm

d)

4 cm

127.

The ovaries are suspended from which part of the broad ligament?

a)

anterior aspect

b)

lateral edge

c)

posterior aspect

d)

medial base

128.

Where are the ovaries usually located in relation to the external iliac vessels?

a)

Lateral

b)

Posterior

c)

Medial

d)

Superior

129.

In relation to the internal iliac vessels and ureter, the ovaries are typically located?

a)

Posterior

b)

Inferior

c)

Anterior

d)

Lateral

130.

Ovaries receive a dual blood supply from the ovarian artery and the:

a)

Internal iliac artery

b)

uterine artery

c)

renal artery

d)

external iliac artery

131.

The ovarian arteries arise directly from which vessel?

a)

IVC

b)

internal iliac artery

c)

renal artery

d)

aorta, below the renal arteries

132.

On the right side, the ovarian vein drains directly into the:

a)

left renal vein

b)

IVC

c)

aorta

d)

uterine vein

133.

On the left side, the ovarian drains into the

a)

IVC

b)

Aorta

c)

Left renal vein

d)

Common iliac vein

134.

Which of the following is TRUE about ovarian venous drainage?

a)

both sides drain directly into the IVC

b)

The left ovarian vein drains into the uterine vein

c)

The right ovarian vein drains into the renal vein

d)

The left ovarian vein drains into the renal vein and the right into the IVC

135.

What part of the ovary contains follicles in various stages of development?

a)

medulla

b)

tunica albuginea

c)

cortex

d)

germinal epithelium

136.

What is the cortex in relation to the medulla?

a)

It lies deep to the medulla

b)

It surrounds the central medulla

c)

It is located in the ovarian hilum

d)

It is the central core of the ovary

137.

What type of tissue makes up the tunica albuginea?

a)

smooth muscle

b)

epithelial tissue

c)

dense connective tissue

d)

cartilage

138.

What layer surrounds the tunica albuginea?

a)

medulla

b)

germinal epithelium

c)

peritoneum

d)

ovarian capsule

139.

The central medulla of the ovary contains all of the following except:

a)

blood vessels

b)

lymphatics

c)

follicles

d)

nerves

140.

What is the reproductive cell produced by the ovaries called?

a)

zygote

b)

ovum

c)

embryo

d)

follicle

141.

Which hormone is secreted by ovarian follicles?

a)

progesterone

b)

estrogen

c)

testosterone

d)

prolactin

142.

What is one function of progesterone?

a)

stimulating ovulation

b)

increasing bone density

c)

preparing the uterus for implantation

d)

suppressing estrogen production

143.

Progesterone contributes to which of the following?

a)

milk ejection reflex

b)

muscle development in the uterus

c)

maintenance of secondary gender characteristics

d)

breakdown of the uterine lining

144.

Which hormone is involved in the development of the mammary glands in females?

a)

estrogen

b)

progesterone

c)

FSH

d)

oxytocin

145.

Which ligament supports the ovaries medially?

a)

broad ligament

b)

suspensory ligament

c)

ovarian ligament

d)

round ligament

146.

Which ligament supports the ovaries laterally?

a)

round ligament

b)

broad ligament

c)

ovarian ligament

d)

suspensory ligament

147.

The ovaries are attached to the posterior aspect of the broad ligament via the:

a)

round ligament

b)

mesosalpinx

c)

mesovarium

d)

mesometrium

148.

The broad ligament primarily functions to:

a)

anchor the ovaries to the uterine fundus

b)

support the uterus only

c)

provide lateral support to the female reproductive organs

d)

connect the ovaries the fallopian tubes

149.

The common iliac arteries course in which direction relative to the psoas muscles?

a)

posterior and lateral

b)

anterior and medial

c)

superior and medial

d)

inferior and lateral

150.

The common iliac arteries supply blood to the:

a)

abdominal organs only

b)

uterus and ovaries only

c)

pelvic cavity and lower extremities

d)

kidneys and adrenal glands

151.

Into which two branches do the common iliac arteries bifurcate?

a)

femoral and profunda femories arteries

b)

aorta and renal arteries

c)

external and internal iliac arteries

d)

inferior and superior epigastric arteries

152.

what is another name for the internal iliac artery?

a)

iliolumbar artery

b)

hypogastric artery

c)

median sacral artery

d)

gonadal artery

153.

The external iliac arteries continue as:

a)

internal iliac arteries

b)

femoral arteries

c)

common iliac arteries

d)

inferior epigastric arteries

154.

The internal iliac arteries are primarily responsible for perfusing which region?

a)

lower limbs

b)

abdominal wall

c)

pelvic structures

d)

thoracic cavity

155.

Which of the following structures is NOT typically supplied by branches of the internal iliac artery?

a)

Urinary bladder

b)

Uterus

c)

Rectum

d)

Small intestine

156.

Which pelvic organ receives blood supply from the internal iliac artery?

a)

Kidney

b)

Ovary

c)

Uterus

d)

Liver

157.

The vagina receives arterial blood supply primarily from branches of the:

a)

External iliac artery

b)

Renal artery

c)

Internal iliac artery

d)

Abdominal Aorta

158.

The uterine artery arises from which artery?

a)

External iliac artery

b)

Ovarian artery

c)

Anterior branch of the internal iliac artery

d)

Renal artery

159.

At what level does the uterine artery enter the uterus?

a)

fundus

b)

body

c)

cornua

d)

cervix

160.

The uterine artery travels within which structure to reach the uterine cornua?

a)

round ligament

b)

suspensory ligament

c)

broad ligament

d)

uterosacral ligament

161.

Which uterine layer receives the blood supply from the uterine artery?

a)

endometrium

b)

serosa

c)

myometrium

d)

perimetrium

162.

What is a notable characteristic of the uterine artery's course?

a)

it runs straight up the uterus

b)

it forms a circular loop around the uterus

c)

it is tortuous and spirals along the uterine sides

d)

it descends from the fundus to the cervix

163.

Which vessels encircle the uterus and are formed by the uterine artery?

a)

Radial arteries

b)

Spiral arteries

c)

Arcuate vessels

d)

Straight arteries

164.

The radial arteries extend through which uterine layer?

a)

Perimetrium

b)

Endometrium

c)

Myometrium

d)

Cervical canal

165.

Which arteries branch from the radial arteries to supply the zona basalis of the endometrium?

a)

Spiral arteries

b)

Uterine arteries

c)

Arcuate arteries

d)

Straight arteries

166.

Spiral arteries supply which part of the endometrium?

a)

Zona basalis

b)

Zona functionalis

c)

Myometrium

d)

Cervical canal

167.

What happens to blood from the spiral arteries during menstruation?

a)

It is absorbed back into the uterus

b)

It nourishes the ovum

c)

It is shed

d)

It supplies the fallopian tubes

168.

Which 3 endocrine structures are essential for the normal physiology of the menstrual cycle? **

a)

Thyroid, pituitary and adrenal glands

b)

Hypothalamus, pituitary, and ovarian axis

c)

Pineal gland, uterus and ovary

d)

Pancreas, ovary and hypothalamus

169.

The reproductive years typically begin at what age range ?

a)

8-10 years

b)

11-13 years

c)

14-16 years

d)

17-19 years

170.

The reproductive years generally end around what age?

a)

40

b)

45

c)

50

d)

55

171.

When does the menstrual cycle begin?

a)

After ovulation

b)

With implantation

c)

With the first day of bleeding

d)

With hormone secretion

172.

What is the average length of a typical menstrual cycle?

a)

21 days

b)

25 days

c)

28 days

d)

35 days

173.

What term describes menstrual cycles with intervals shorter than 21 days?

a)

Amenorrhea

b)

Polymenorrhagia

c)

Oligomenorrhagia

d)

Menometrorrhagia

174.

What terms describes menstrual cycles that occur more than 35 days apart?

a)

amenorrhea

b)

polymenorrhagia

c)

oligomenorrhagia

d)

dysmenorrhea

175.

What terms refers to the physiological state before the onset of menstruation?

a)

menopause

b)

menarche

c)

premenarche

d)

oligomenorrhea

176.

Menarche is defines as:

a)

The first ovulation

b)

The time when menstruation permanently stops

c)

The onset of regular menstrual cycles after puberty

d)

Irregular menstrual bleeding

177.

What terms describes the cessation (brought to an end) of menstruation?

a)

Menarche

b)

Premenarche

c)

Polymenorrhagia

d)

Menopause

178.

Which part of the brain regulates the menstrual cycle?

a)

cerebellum

b)

pituitary gland

c)

hypothalamus

d)

hippocampus

179.

The menstrual cycle is primary dependent on the cyclic release of which two ovarian hormones?

a)

LH and FSH

b)

Estrogen and progesterone

c)

Testosterone and prolactin

d)

Oxytocin and cortisol

180.

When does ovulation typically occur in a 28 day menstrual cycle?

a)

day 7

b)

day 10

c)

day 14

d)

day 21

181.

How often is an ovum released from the ovary under normal conditions?

a)

weekly

b)

twice a month

c)

once a month by one of the two ovaries

d)

every 3 months

182.

It is speculated that ovum release alternates b/w:

a)

fallopian tubes

b)

hormonal cycles

c)

menstrual cycles

d)

the two ovaries

183.

In what state do immature oocytes remain until menarche?

a)

primary follicles

b)

secondary follicles

c)

suspended animation within preantral follicles

d)

atretic bodies

184.

approx. how many oocytes does each ovary contain at birth?

a)

50,000

b)

100,000

c)

200,000

d)

500,000

185.

What happens to the majority of oocytes during a woman's reproductive years?

a)

they are fertilized

b)

they remain dormant

c)

they degenerate

d)

they all undergo ovulation

186.

Ovulation is primarily regulated by which structure in the brain?

a)

cerebrum

b)

cerebellum

c)

pituitary gland

d)

hypothalamus

187.

The hypothalamus begins the pulsatile release of which hormone to initiate ovulation

a)

estrogen

b)

progesterone

c)

gonadotropin- releasing hormone (GnRH)

d)

luteinizing hormone (LH)

188.

What does GnRH (gonadotropin releasing hormone) stimulate?

a)

ovaries to release progesterone

b)

posterior pituitary gland to release oxytocin

c)

anterior pituitary gland to release gonadotropins

d)

hypothalamus to release estrogen

189.

Which two gonadotropins are secreted by the anterior pituitary in response to GnRH (gonadotropin releasing hormone)?

a)

estrogen and progesterone

b)

LH and prolactin

c)

FSH and LH

d)

GnRH and oxytocin

190.

What gland secretes FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone)?

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Adrenal Gland

c)

Pituitary Gland

d)

Thyroid Gland

191.

FSH is responsible for stimulating:

a)

endometrial shedding

b)

growth of the uterine lining

c)

ovarian follicle development

d)

progesterone release

192.

The follicular phase begins on:

a)

the day of ovulation

b)

the first day of bleeding

c)

the last day of menstruation

d)

day 21 of the cycle

193.

How long does the follicular phase typically last in a 28-day cycle?

a)

7 days

b)

10 days

c)

14 days

d)

28 days

194.

As ovarian follicles develop, what to they fill with and secrete?

a)

blood and LH

b)

fluid and estrogen

c)

mucus and progesterone

d)

GnRH and estrogen

195.

How many preantral follicles typically begin to develop during each cycle?

a)

2-3

b)

4-6

c)

5-8

d)

9-12

196.

What is the name of the dominant follicle that matures?

a)

primary follicle

b)

antral follicle

c)

graafian follicle

d)

luteinized follicle

197.

approx. how large is the graafian follicle right before ovulation?

a)

1 cm

b)

1.5 cm

c)

2 cm

d)

3 cm

198.

What happens as estrogen levels rise in the blood?

a)

FSH levels increase

b)

The pituitary gland stops producing LH

c)

The pituitary is inhibited from producing more FSH

d)

ovulation is suppressed

199.

What hormone does the pituitary begin to secrete in response to rising estrogen?

a)

FSH

b)

Progesterone

c)

GnRH

d)

LH (luteinizing hormone)

200.

LH is secreted by which gland?

a)

hypothalamus

b)

thyroid gland

c)

pituitary gland

d)

adrenal gland

201.

The LH surge typically occurs how long before ovulation?

a)

48-72 hours

b)

24-36 hours

c)

12-18 hours

d)

6-10 hours

202.

What is the LH surge commonly used to predict?

a)

menopause

b)

fertility decline

c)

timing of ovulation for conception

d)

onset of menstruation

203.

LH levels peak approx. how many hours before ovulation?

a)

24 hours

b)

6 hours

c)

10 to 12 hours

d)

48 hours

204.

What does the LH surge trigger?

a)

menstruation

b)

ovulation

c)

implantation

d)

follicular development

205.

on what day of the menstrual cycle does ovulation typically occur?

a)

day 7

b)

day 10

c)

day 14

d)

day 28

206.

what phase follows ovulation?

a)

menstrual phase

b)

follicular phase

c)

luteal phase

d)

ovulatory phase

207.

How long does the luteal phase typically last?

a)

7 days

b)

10 days

c)

14 days

d)

21 days

208.

What structure is formed from the ruptured follicle after ovulation?

a)

graafian follicle

b)

primordial follicle

c)

corpus albicans

d)

corpus luteum cyst

209.

what hormone is secreted by the corpus luteum?

a)

estrogen

b)

FSH

c)

progesterone

d)

LH

210.

what happens to the corpus luteum 9 to 11 days after ovulation if there is NO pregnancy?

a)

it enlarges

b)

it secretes estrogen

c)

it degenerates

d)

it implants in the uterus

211.

What hormone's decline leads to menstruation?

a)

estrogen

b)

LH

c)

progesterone

d)

FSH

212.

what event is triggered by the decline in progesterone levels?

a)

ovulation

b)

fertilization

c)

menstruation

d)

implantation

213.

if PREGNANCY occurs, what hormone is produced by the zygote?

a)

FSH

b)

LH

c)

Estrogen

d)

hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin)

214.

What is the function of hCG during early pregnancy?

a)

inhibits estrogen

b)

triggers menstruation

c)

causes corpus luteum to persist

d)

stimulates ovulation

215.

how long does the corpus luteum continue to secrete progesterone during early pregnancy?

a)

1 month

b)

until the end of the menstrual cycle

c)

3 months

d)

6 months

216.

what structure eventually takes over progesterone production during pregnancy?

a)

corpus albicans

b)

hypothalamus

c)

ovary

d)

placenta

217.

ovulation is the release of an ovum from which structure?

a)

corpus luteum

b)

antral follicle

c)

graafian follicle

d)

primordial follicle

218.

what is commonly seen sonographically mid-cycle as a result of ovulation?

a)

thickened endometrium

b)

enlarged uterus

c)

small amounts of fluid in the posterior cul-de-sac

d)

follicle rupture on both ovaries

219.

some women can detect ovulation due to:

a)

increased urination

b)

abdominal bloating

c)

dull ache pain in the lower abdomen

d)

sharp chest pain

220.

the term "mittelschmerz" refers to:

a)

the first menstrual period

b)

ovulation-related pain

c)

postmenopausal bleeding

d)

pain from implantation

221.

mittelschmerz typically occurs:

a)

during menstruation

b)

after menopause

c)

at ovulation, mid-cycle

d)

during implanation

222.

What is one of the main roles of progesterone in the menstrual cycle?

a)

Stimulates the release of LH during the mid-cycle surge

b)

Induces secretory activity in the endometrial glands primed by estrogen

c)

Inhibits endometrial development after ovulation

d)

Increases estrogen levels directly

223.

What is one of the main roles of progesterone in the menstrual cycle?

a)

Stimulates the release of LH during the mid-cycle surge

b)

Induces secretory activity in the endometrial glands primed by estrogen

c)

Inhibits endometrial development after ovulation

d)

Increases estrogen levels directly

224.

What is one of the main roles of progesterone in the menstrual cycle?

a)

Stimulates the release of LH during the mid-cycle surge

b)

Induces secretory activity in the endometrial glands primed by estrogen

c)

Inhibits endometrial development after ovulation

d)

Increases estrogen levels directly

225.

How does progesterone help prepare the uterus for a fertilized ovum?

a)

By promoting the thickening of the myometrium

b)

By increasing LH levels to maintain ovulation

c)

By inducing secretory changes in the endometrium

d)

By stimulating follicle growth in the ovary

226.

What is one of the primary roles of progesterone in the endometrium?

a)

To stimulate follicle development

b)

To increase LH secretion

c)

To trigger menstruation

d)

To induce secretory activity in endometrial glands

227.

How does progesterone affect basal body temperature?

a)

lowers it

b)

keeps it stable

c)

has no effect

d)

increases it

228.

What is the effect of progesterone on LH secretion?

a)

Stimulates a mid-cycle surge

b)

Inhibits LH to prevent ovulation

c)

Has no effect on LH

d)

Increases LH to maintain the corpus luteum

229.

Which of the following are main functions of progesterone?

a)

Induces secretory changes in the endometrium primed by estrogen and to prepare a site for the fertilized ovum

b)

Increases basal body temperature

c)

Inhibits LH secretion to prevent the LH surge and ovulation

d)

All of the above

230.

How many phases are typically recognized in the endometrial cycle?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

231.

What are the three main phases of endometrial changes?

a)

Follicular, Ovulatory, Luteal

b)

Menstrual, Proliferative, Endometrial

c)

Menstrual, Proliferative, Secretory

d)

Early, Mid, Late

232.

How long does the menstrual phase typically last?

a)

1-3 days

b)

1-5 days

c)

5-10 days

d)

7-14 days

233.

What hormonal change triggers the start of the menstrual phase?

a)

Rising estrogen levels

b)

Declining estrogen levels

c)

Declining estrogen levels

d)

Declining progesterone levels

234.

What part of the endometrium is shed during the menstrual phase?

a)

Zona basalis

b)

Zona functionalis

c)

Entire endometrium

d)

Myometrium

235.

The menstrual phase of the uterine cycle coincides with which phase of the ovarian cycle?

a)

Luteal phase

b)

Ovulatory phase

c)

Follicular phase

d)

Secretory phase

236.

What hormone stimulates regeneration of the superficial endometrial layer during the menstrual phase?

a)

progesterone

b)

estrogen

c)

LH

d)

FSH

237.

Which hormone primarily influences the proliferative phase?

a)

Progesterone

b)

Estrogen

c)

LH

d)

FSH

238.

When does the proliferative phase typically end?

a)

At the start of menstruation

b)

Around day 10 of the cycle

c)

At the luteinization of the Graafian follicle, around ovulation (day 14)

d)

At the implantation of the fertilized ovum

239.

The proliferative phase of the endometrial cycle corresponds to which phase of the ovarian cycle?

a)

Luteal phase

b)

Menstrual phase

c)

Ovulatory phase

d)

Follicular phase

240.

What is the primary function of estrogen during the proliferative phase?

a)

To maintain the corpus luteum

b)

To trigger ovulation

c)

To stimulate endometrial growth

d)

To inhibit LH secretion

241.

Which hormone primarily controls the secretory phase?

a)

estrogen

b)

LH

c)

progesterone

d)

FSH

242.

What happens to the endometrial glands during the secretory phase?

a)

They shrink and degenerate

b)

They become fibrotic

c)

They enlarge and prepare for implantation

d)

They release eggs

243.

When does the secretory phase occur in the menstrual cycle?

a)

Day 1 to 5

b)

Day 6 to 14

c)

Day 15 until the onset of menses

d)

Throughout the entire cycle

244.

The secretory phase of the endometrial cycle corresponds to which phase of the ovarian cycle?

a)

Follicular phase

b)

Menstrual phase

c)

Ovulatory phase

d)

Luteal phase

245.

What is the main purpose of the endometrial changes during the secretory phase?

a)

To support ovulation

b)

To regenerate the zona basalis

c)

To prepare the uterus for implantation

d)

To shed the uterine lining

246.

How is the early proliferative endometrium typically described on imaging?

a)

Thick and echogenic

b)

Normal and thin

c)

Irregular and heterogeneous

d)

Not visualized

247.

What is a characteristic ultrasound appearance of the late proliferative endometrium?

a)

Homogeneous and hyperechoic

b)

Thick and irregular

c)

Triple layer appearance

d)

Poorly defined margins

248.

What is the typical ultrasound appearance of the early secretory endometrium?

a)

Anechoic

b)

Isoechoic

c)

Hypoechoic

d)

Hyperechoic

249.

How does the late secretory endometrium typically appear on ultrasound?

a)

Thin and hypoechoic

b)

Thick and hyperechoic

c)

Thin and hyperechoic

d)

Thick and hypoechoic

250.

What is the typical ultrasound appearance of the postmenstrual endometrium?

a)

Thick and hyperechoic

b)

Normal and thin

c)

Triple layer pattern

d)

Irregular and heterogeneous

251.

How does the thickness of the endometrium change during menstruation?

a)

It increases

b)

It decreases

c)

It remains the same

d)

It becomes irregular

252.

During the early proliferative phase, the endometrium typically appears as:

a)

A thick, hyperechoic line

b)

A thin, echogenic line

c)

A triple layer pattern

d)

A thick, hypoechoic structure

253.

What is the “three-line sign” in the proliferative phase referring to?

a)

Zona basalis anteriorly and posteriorly, and a central line representing the uterine cavity

b)

Three separate layers of the myometrium

c)

Three blood vessels within the endometrium

d)

Triple layering of the zona functionalis

254.

During the proliferative phase, the endometrium thickens to an average of:

a)

1 to 3 mm

b)

4 to 8 mm

c)

9 to 12 mm

d)

12 to 15 mm

255.

How is the endometrial thickness measured on ultrasound?

a)

As a single layer thickness from anterior to posterior

b)

As a double layer thickness from anterior to posterior

c)

From the fundus to the cervix

d)

Only on the posterior wall

256.

During which phase does the endometrium reach its thickest dimension?

a)

Menstrual phase

b)

Early proliferative phase

c)

Secretory phase (after ovulation)

d)

Follicular phase

257.

What is the typical thickness range of the endometrium during the secretory phase?

a)

2 – 5 mm

b)

4 – 8 mm

c)

7 – 14 mm

d)

15 – 20 mm

258.

How does the endometrium appear on ultrasound during the secretory phase?

a)

Thin and hypoechoic

b)

Echogenic with blurring of the 3-line appearance

c)

Triple-layered and hypoechoic

d)

Anechoic and thin

259.

How does the endometrium typically appear in anovulatory patients?

a)

Thick and hyperechoic

b)

Thin and echogenic line

c)

Thick with a triple-layer pattern

d)

Irregular and hypoechoic

260.

What is the normal endometrial thickness limit for postmenopausal patients not on hormone replacement therapy (HRT)?

a)

Less than 3 mm

b)

Less than 5 mm

c)

Less than 8 mm

d)

Less than 10 mm

261.

Postmenopausal patients on hormone replacement therapy (HRT) or taking Tamoxifen may have a normal endometrial thickness of up to:

a)

5 mm

b)

6 mm

c)

8 mm

d)

10 mm

262.

What is menorrhagia?

a)

Short or light periods

b)

Heavy or long periods

c)

Absence of menstruation

d)

Irregular bleeding between cycles

263.

Menorrhagia is often associated with all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Uterine fibroids

b)

Intrauterine devices (IUDs)

c)

Hormonal imbalance

d)

Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)

264.

What does polymenorrhagia refer to?

a)

Heavy bleeding with normal cycle length

b)

Shortening of the menstrual cycle to less than 21 days

c)

. Long menstrual cycles over 35 days

d)

Complete absence of menstruation

265.

Oligomenorrhagia means:

a)

Heavy or prolonged periods

b)

Shortening of the menstrual cycle

c)

Short or light periods occurring more than 35 days apart

d)

Bleeding between cycles

266.

Oligomenorrhagia can be associated with all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)

b)

Emotional and physical stress

c)

Chronic illnesses

d)

Uterine fibroids

267.

What is amenorrhea?

a)

Heavy menstrual bleeding

b)

Absence of menstruation

c)

Painful periods

d)

Irregular menstruation

268.

Primary amenorrhea is defined as:

a)

Absence of menstruation after age 18 without previous cycles

b)

Cessation of menstruation after having regular cycles

c)

Painful menstruation caused by endometriosis

d)

Heavy or prolonged menstrual bleeding

269.

Secondary amenorrhea refers to:

a)

Absence of menstruation by age 18

b)

Cessation of menses in women who previously had menstrual cycles

c)

Painful menstruation

d)

Shortening of the menstrual cycle

270.

Dysmenorrhea means:

a)

Absence of menstruation

b)

Heavy menstrual bleeding

c)

Painful periods

d)

Irregular menstrual cycles

271.

Dysmenorrhea is commonly associated with which condition?

a)

Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)

b)

Endometriosis

c)

Uterine fibroids

d)

Hormonal imbalance

272.

Where is the vesicouterine recess located?

a)

Between the uterus and rectum

b)

Between the bladder and uterus, anterior to the uterine fundus

c)

Between the bladder wall and the pubic symphysis

d)

Behind the bladder

273.

The rectouterine recess (Pouch of Douglas) is located:

a)

Anterior to the uterus

b)

Posterior to the uterus between the uterus and rectum

c)

Between the bladder and pubic symphysis

d)

Inside the urinary bladder

274.

Which of the following is the most inferior and posterior region of the peritoneal cavity?

a)

Vesicouterine recess

b)

Rectouterine recess (Pouch of Douglas)

c)

Retropubic space

d)

Subcutaneous fat space

275.

The retropubic space is located:

a)

Between the uterus and bladder

b)

Between the bladder wall and the pubic symphysis

c)

Between the uterus and rectum

d)

Behind the rectum

276.

What does the retropubic space normally contain?

a)

Fluid

b)

Muscle tissue

c)

Subcutaneous fat

d)

Bone

277.

What might cause displacement of the urinary bladder posteriorly in the retropubic space?

a)

Pregnancy

b)

Hematoma or abscess

c)

Uterine fibroids

d)

Menstrual bleeding

278.

Where is it normal to observe a small accumulation of free fluid during the menstrual cycle?

a)

Anterior cul-de-sac

b)

Posterior cul-de-sac (Pouch of Douglas)

c)

Retropubic space

d)

Vesicouterine recess

279.

Which of the following conditions can cause hemorrhage or infection within the free fluid in the posterior cul-de-sac?

a)

Ruptured cyst

b)

Ascites

c)

Ruptured corpus luteum cyst

d)

All of the above

280.

Which of the following is NOT typically associated with free fluid accumulation in the posterior cul-de-sac?

a)

Ectopic pregnancy

b)

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

c)

Uterine fibroids

d)

Ruptured corpus luteum cyst

281.

True or False: Some women may have a small amount of fluid in the posterior cul-de-sac continuously.

a)

True

b)

False