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WorksheetsMicrobiology Final Exam
Total questions: 282
Worksheet time: 2hrs 21mins
Pertussis has been making a big comeback in the last few years, after being on the decline for quite a long time. Why is this?
The pertussis vaccine does not seem to protect for a lifetime, so those who received the vaccine as kids may become susceptible in adulthood.
Few people have ever received pertussis vaccines because there have been links to autism.
People eat so much refined sugars and starches that our immune systems are much weaker, thereby not being able to adequately protect against pertussis bacteria.
The strain of Bordetella pertussis that is now the major cause of pertussis is much more virulent than earlier strains.
Legionella pneumophila
causes fever, cough, and diarrhea.
often lives intracellularly in amoebas.
requires special lab growth media.
always causes a severe pneumonia.
Which of the following is not true of influenza?
Influenza B viruses undergo both antigenic drift and antigenic shift.
Influenza has glycoprotein spikes of hemagglutinin (H) and neuraminidase (N).
Antigenic drift changes the antigens to reduce immune recognition.
H5N1 is the bird flu strain that may cause a pandemic.
Differentiate between disease caused by Haemophilus influenzae and the disease caused by influenza virus.
One organism is a virus while the other is a fungus.
One causes an upper respiratory disease, and the other causes a lower respiratory disease.
One organism causes symptomatic disease, while the other organism always causes asymptomatic disease.
One causes a mild flu, and the other causes a severe flu.
Pertussis has all of the following characteristics except
the catarrhal stage has persistent, hacking coughs with "whoops."
the pathogen has virulence factors to destroy the action of respiratory cilia.
transmission is by respiratory droplets.
the early stage resembles a cold with nasal discharge and sneezing.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
has a capsule.
lives in the soil.
can survive for 8 months in fine aerosol particles.
integrates its genome into host cell DNA.
A factor in the development of multidrug-resistant strains of Mycobacterium tuberculosis is that
many TB patients live in less-than ideal circumstances.
the daily multidrug regimen lasts up to 9 months.
multiple antibiotics must be taken in the daily regimen.
All of the above contribute to the development of resistant strains of Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
What is the function of normal biota of the respiratory tract?
Provides antibodies
All of these three functions are correct.
Microbial antagonism
Both [competes with pathogens for resources and space] and [microbial antagonism] are correct.
Streptococcus pneumoniae is
alpha-hemolytic on blood agar.
found in up to 50% of people as normal biota
a pathogen with endotoxin.
All of the choices are correct.
The enzyme associated with the influenza virus that hydrolyzes the protective mucous coating of the respiratory tract is ______.
Kinase
Catalase
Neuraminidase
Hyaluronidase
In addition to antimicrobials, patients with diphtheria are treated with ______.
antitoxin
tracheostomy
heart medication
All of the choices correct
T/F: The major reservoir for the hantavirus is the deer mouse.
True
False
T/F: Antibiotic treatment immediately upon the diagnosis of otitis media is standard procedure today.
True
False
Both Streptococcus pyogenes and Corynebacterium diphtheriae are highly pathogenic, and the disease symptomology can be very severe. Why is this?
There are no antibiotics useful for diseases caused by these bacteria.
They induce autoimmune states in the patients.
Both bacteria produce potent exotoxins.
Infants and children are the high-risk groups, and their mortality rate is higher than for other ages.
Hantavirus has all of the following characteristics except
the reservoir is human carriers.
it is a zoonosis.
symptoms are abrupt fever, lung edema, respiratory distress, and hypotension.
the first U.S. outbreak occurred in 1993 in the southwest.
Formation of a pseudomembrane in the back of the throat is seen in cases of _______.
SARS
pertussis
phayngitis
tuberculosis
diptheria
Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci
is an obligate parasite
s a bacterium.
causes serious infection in the elderly, premature infants, and AIDS patients.
lacks ergosterol in its plasma membrane.
Which of the following does not describe S. pyogenes?
Sensitive to bacitracin
Gram-positive
forms endospores
Beta-hemolytic
T/F: The trachea, due to its location in the body, is considered to be part of both the upper and lower respiratory tract.
True
False
Which of the following is true about sinusitis caused by allergy?
Preceded by viral rhinitis
Usually introduced by trauma
Produces a clear, watery discharge
Produces a greenish or yellowish mucous discharge
Which of the following statements is not true regarding streptococcal pharyngitis?
It can lead to scarlet fever if it is an erythrogenic toxin-producing strain.
It presents with a purulent exudate over the tonsils.
It is usually caused by the viridans streptococci.
It can lead to serious sequelae.
Organisms other than bacteria make up the microbiota; non-bacterial microbes that occupy the respiratory tract include ________.
Pseudomonas
Acinetobacter
Prevotella
Candida
T/F: A paroxysmal cough is associated with Legionnaires' disease.
True
False
Which antibody is concentrated in the respiratory tract?
IgE
IgM
IgA
IgG
Influenza vaccines include all of the following except
usually incorporates three or four different strains.
has an overall effectiveness of 70% - 90%.
attenuated, nasal drops vaccine.
provides lifelong immunity.
T/F: The causative organisms for CAP and HCAP differ, but the modes of transmission do not; that are all transmitted via aerosolized droplets which enter the lungs.
True
False
T/F: Treatment for diphtheria requires only penicillin or erythromycin.
True
False
Which of the following causes a noncommunicable pulmonary infection that resembles tuberculosis?
Mycobacterium fortuitum complex
Mycobacterium marinum
Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)
Mycobacterium kansasii
Diphtheria is considered to be an upper respiratory tract infection. However, it can have a very high mortality rate if not caught early and treated. Predict why this is so.
The patient cannot eat or drink and so basically starves to death.
It makes a toxin that can be carried in blood and produce organ damage, particularly the heart.
It successfully hides from the immune system of the patient.
The bacterium moves from the throat to the brain, causing strokes to occur.
T/F: Secondary bacterial infections may occur with the common cold.
True
False
Your dog has flu caused by an H3N8 strain. Assume that you breathe in this strain, after you have already come in contact with an H1N1 strain. Both viruses go into the cells of your upper respiratory tract. During the viral replication cycle inside of your epithelial cells, genetic information for hemagglutinin antigen and for neuraminidase antigen are recombined. Your cells end up producing a new variant---H3N1. Predict what might happen as a result of this set of events.
This is not a problem because the human immune system can respond quickly to any new antigens never seen before.
Only people who have never had flu before will get sick from the new H3N1 variant.
This novel virus will spread through the human population without much resistance
Since this new virus has antigens from a dog strain, the new strain will not be able to infect human cells.
The bright red rash and fever of scarlet fever is due to _______.
erythrogenic toxin
exfoliative toxin
enterotoxins
hemolysins
Hantavirus is transmitted by which of the following ways?
From a mosquito that first bites a deer mouse, and then bites a human
Via the oral-fecal route when deer mouse feces contaminate drinking water
Drectly from the saliva of a deer mouse after being bitten
Aerosolized particles of deer mouse feces, urine, or saliva
Untreated streptococcal pharyngitis can lead to all of the following except _______.
rheumatic fever
scarlet fever
glomerulonephritis
otitis media
The major virulence factor of Corynebacterium diphtheriae that causes serious systemic effect
endotoxin
metachromatic granules
capsule
exotoxin
Which of the following is not a virulence factor of Bordetella pertussis?
Filamentous hemagglutinin
M protein
Endotoxin
Tracheal cytotoxin
Which disease involves transmission by aerosolized water from whirlpool spas, air conditioners, cooling towers, and supermarket vegetable misters?
Traveller's Diarrhea
Pertussis
Plague
Legionellosis
Extrapulmonary TB is more common in
young children and immunosuppressed patients.
the elderly.
organ transplant patients.
all of the above
Influenza virus can exhibit constant mutation of viral glycoproteins, called antigenic ________, or alternatively antigenic ________, which is a more serious phenomenon caused by the exchange of a viral gene with that of another influenza virus strain
exchange, drift
drift, exchange
drift, shift
shift, drift
Which opportunist is the most frequent cause of life-threatening pneumonia in AIDS patients?
Malassezia furfur
Cryptococcus neoformans
Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci
Candida albicans
Which is not correct about Mycobacterium species?
It exhibits a very slow growth rate.
Cell walls have waxy lipids.
Cells appear as long, slender rods via microscopy.
All species are human pathogens.
Drug-resistant strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae are now treated with ______.
ketek
vancomycin
tetracycline
penicliin V
T/F: An induration of less than 5mm in the Mantoux test is negative for TB.
True
False
Rheumatic fever is caused by a(n) _____ infection.
primary viral
endogenous
opportunistic streptococcal
primary streptococcal
T/F: The pathogen that causes Legionnaires' pneumonia also causes a milder infection called Pontiac fever.
True
False
Which of the following is not true of whooping cough?
Secondary infections can occur during the convalescent phase.
It is caused by a small, aerobic, gram-negative rod.
Incubation period is 3-21 days.
Cold-like symptoms are common for the paroxysmal stage.
T/F: People who have received the BCG immunization will generally have a negative tuberculin skin test.
True
False
Annual influenza vaccinations are important for all individuals because
the vaccine prevents secondary infections in individuals with influenza.
the virus is stable so once the vaccine is administered, protection from antibodies is lifelong.
the oral-fecal transmission route makes it easy to pass to others.
the highly contagious nature of the virus means that transmission from a robust individual to those with a weaker immune system, such as the young or the elderly, is facilitated in crowded winter conditions.
Which is incorrect about Mycoplasma pneumoniae?
Has birds as a reservoir
Common cause of primary atypical pneumonia
Initially causes fever, malaise, sore throat, and headache
After 2 to 3 weeks, develops into an unproductive cough and earache
T/F: Pneumonias have different signs and symptoms depending on whether they are classified as CAP or HCAP.
True
False
Tuberculin skin testing
involves the injection of PPD intradermally.
uses a purified protein filtrate of Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
will be positive if person has had previous exposure.
All of the choices are correct.
Your patient has pneumonia. Since there are so many microorganisms causing pneumonia, what might be the best test to do first for identification of the agent?
A Gram stain of a saliva specimen
A culture from a lung aspirate
An antibody test
A skin test
The causative organism of whooping cough is ______.
Cornyebacterium diphtheriae
Haemophilus influenzae
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Bordetella pertussis
Symptoms of influenza include:
fever, sore throat, rash, and cough.
fever, myalgia, sore throat, cough, and nasal discharge.
fever and pneumonia.
nasal discharge, mild fever, and absence of cough.
Which of the following is/are the main causative agent/s of pharyngitis?
Viruses
Aspergillus fumigatus
Both Aspergillus fumigatus and viruses are correct.
Both Streptococcus pyogenes and viruses are correct.
The difference between MDR-TB and XDR-TB is that
MDR-TB strains have a higher mortality rate than XDR-TB strains.
XDR-TB is predominantly seen in the USA whereas MDR-TB is common in India and China.
MDR-TB exhibits resistance to isoniazid and rifampin whereas XDR-TB strains are resistant to bedaquiline.
MDR-TB strains are classified as having resistance to two antibiotics, whereas XDR-TB strains are classified when they are resistant to four antibiotics.
The highest incidence of histoplasmosis in the United States occurs in the ______.
east and Midwest
east and Midwest
southwest
southeast
All of the following pertain to tuberculosis except
lung infection can disseminate to many other organs in extrapulmonary TB.
antimicrobials cannot treat and cure tuberculosis.
symptoms of active TB include low-grade fever, coughing, fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats.
the BCG vaccine is used in other countries.
Normal biota of the respiratory tract
are localized to the nasopharynx only.
can cause disease in immunocompromised patients.
do not include yeasts or viruses.
only include Staphylococcus aureus.
A diagnosis of tuberculosis involves a/an ______.
Chest X-ray
Acid-fast stain of sputum
sputum culture
All of the choices are correct
Which of the following is not part of the upper respiratory tract?
mouth
nasal cavity
trachea
pharynx
Which of the following is not part of the lower respiratory system?
alveoli
bronchi
trachea
sinuses
What features of the respiratory system protect it from infection?
Cilia
Mucus
Macrophages
All of the choices are correct
The most common type of virus leading to rhinitis is _______.
coronavirus
adenovirus
rhinovirus
herpes simplex virus
Cold viruses are transmitted by _______.
droplet contact
indirect contact
direct contact
all of the choices are correct
The most common mode of transmission for sinusitis is _______.
exotoxin
direct contact
indirect contact
endogenous infection
The most common causative agent in fungal sinusitis is _______.
Aspergillus fumigatus
Candida albicans
Haemophilus influenzae
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Infection travels to the middle ear by way of the ______.
auditory canal
sinuses
nasal cavity
eustachian (auditory) tubes
The most common causative agent of otitis media is ______.
Aspergillus fumigatus
Haemophilus influenzae
Candida albicans
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Superantigens
include streptolysin O.
include erythrogenic toxin.
induce production of tumor necrosis factor.
All of the choices are correct.
Virulence factors of S. pyogenes include
lipoteichoic acid.
spiky M proteins.
polysaccharides on the cell wall.
All of the choices are correct.
Which of the following pertains to diphtheria?
Results in meningitis
Symptoms include vomiting and diarrhea
Can be transmitted from mother's birth canal to neonate
Prevented by the DTaP immunization
The major virulence factor of Corynebacterium diphtheriae that causes serious systemic effects is its ______.
capsule
metachromatic granules
exotoxin
endospores
Respiratory syncytial virus
causes serious disease in infants 6 months old or younger.
uses the nasopharynx as its main replication site.
can be treated with the antiviral aerosol ribavirin.
All of the choices are correct.
The tubercles formed in primary tuberculosis are caused by an influx of ______.
neutrophils
basophils
mononuclear cells
antibodies
When the centers of tubercles break down into _____ lesions, they gradually heal by calcification that replaces normal lung tissue.
primary
secondary
necrotic caseous
tertiary
People at greatest risk for pneumococcal infections include all the following except
the elderly.
those with underlying lung disease and viral infections.
patients without a spleen.
adolescents and young adults.
Which of the following is caused by Haemophilus influenzae in the respiratory tract?
Bacterial meningitis
influenza (flu)
otitis media
bronchitis
The vaccine for immunity to Haemophilus influenzae serotype b is ______.
DTaP
Pneumovax
MMR
Hib
Which of the following is a characteristic of Histoplasma capsulatum?
It grows in moist soil, rich in nitrogen from bird and bat droppings.
It is a protozoan.
It is a dermatophyte.
It grows in dry, arid soil.
Which is incorrect about histoplasmosis?
The pathogen grows inside macrophages.
It is transmitted by inhalation of spores.
It causes respiratory infections that range from mild to severe.
It never spreads to sites outside the respiratory tract.
Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci
is a bacterium.
lacks ergosterol in its plasma membrane.
is an obligate parasite.
causes serious infection in the elderly, premature infants, and AIDS patients.
Inhalation of respiratory secretions is involved in the transmission of all of the following except ______.
influenza
rhinitis
legionella
diptheria
Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)
causes high fever, pneumonia, and respiratory distress.
began with an initial outbreak in the United States and then spread to Canada and China.
is caused by the respiratory syncytial virus.
is classified as an opportunistic infection.
Which opportunist is the most frequent cause of life-threatening pneumonia in AIDS patients?
Cryptococcus neoformans
Candida albicans
Malassezia furfur
Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci
T/F: The primary transmission route for acquiring agents of the common cold is by contact with hands and fomites contaminated with the nasal discharges of an infected person.
True
False
T/F: Pertussis outbreaks still occur in the United States.
True
False
T/F: Respiratory syncytial virus is a major cause of global respiratory infection outbreaks in infants 6 months of age or younger.
True
False
T/F: Influenza is predominantly transmitted by the fecal-oral route.
True
False
T/F: Legionellosis is a zoonosis.
True
False
Your dog has flu caused by an H3N8 strain. Assume that you breathe in this strain, after you have already come in contact with an H1N1 strain. Both viruses go into the cells of your upper respiratory tract. During the viral replication cycle inside of your epithelial cells, genetic information for hemagglutinin antigen and for neuraminidase antigen are recombined. Your cells end up producing a new variant---H3N1. Predict what might happen as a result of this set of events.
Only people who have never had flu before will get sick from the new H3N1 variant.
This is not a problem because the human immune system can respond quickly to any new antigens never seen before.
This novel virus will spread through the human population without much resistance.
Since this new virus has antigens from a dog strain, the new strain will not be able to infect human cells.
Otitis media is commonly treated with broad spectrum antibiotics, although there is a lot of push-back or pressure against doing this. Why are these drugs given for this condition?
No other kinds of drugs and antibiotics can kill the bacteria causing otitis media other than the broad-spectrum class of drugs.
The narrow-spectrum drugs are very toxic as opposed to the rather benign broad-spectrum ones.
Otitis media is often caused by a variety of bacteria growing together in a biofilm, and the bacteria often exhibit different susceptibilities to drugs.
Fungi are the most common cause of otitis media, and the fungi do not respond well to the narrow-spectrum drugs.
T/F: The high mortality rate for patients with MDR-TB and XDR-TB is due in part because of the severe side effects from the daily multidrug regimen and the stimulation of a strong cell-mediated immune response.
True
False
The difference between CAP and HCAP is that
CAP symptoms include nausea and vomiting whereas HCAP involves the upper respiratory tract only.
CAP may be caused by a variety of pathogens including Streptococcus pneumoniae, as well as viruses and mycoplasmas, whereas HCAP is predominantly caused by methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus.
CAP has a higher mortality rate that HCAP because the causative organisms are more pathogenic.
CAP is caused by gram-positive bacteria whereas HCAP is caused by gram-negative bacteria.
Which of the following respiratory tract defenses is mismatched?
Complement - second line of defense
Ciliary escalator - first line of defense
Mucous membranes - third line of defense
Nasal hairs - first line of defense
Which of the following statements is false regarding RSV?
While RSV is most prevalent in infants 6 months of age and younger, the highest mortality rate is in those children with underlying risk factors such as prematurity.
Infants aged 6 months and younger are the most susceptible to infection by RSV; however, adults and older children can also become infected with this virus.
RSV infects infants aged 6 months and younger; it is unlikely that a 4-year-old would develop a respiratory disease as a result of this virus.
Although RSV is most prevalent in infants aged 6 months and younger, usually by age 2 most children have been exposed to this virus.
Influenza viruses A and B contain eight RNA strands and influenza virus C has seven strands. During antigenic drift, genes coding for glycoproteins recognized by the host immune system are mutated, whereas during antigenic shift, whole RNA strands can be swapped with those of another influenza virus, greatly increasing the virulence and transmissibility of the virus and minimizing the ability of the host's defenses to recognize it. Which of the following statements is true?
Genetic drift creates a need for an annual flu vaccine to keep up with the seasonal genetic changes, and if genetic shift occurs, an additional vaccine will have to be administered since the shift creates a different strain of virus.
Genetic drift creates a need for an annual flu vaccine to keep up with the seasonal genetic changes, and if a genetic shift occurs, the same vaccine will be effective against both strains.
If a novel strain resulting from antigenic shift appears, it is not necessary to get vaccinated because these strains are typically less pathogenic than seasonal strains.
The worst influenza pandemics throughout history have occurred as a result of genetic drift rather than genetic shift.
The gastrointestinal tract has both a long tube that nutrients traverse from mouth to anus and accessory organs that aid in food digestion. From the following list of organs in the digestive system, identify the mismatch.
Liver; part of the digestive tube
Appendix; accessory organ
Pharynx; part of the digestive tube
Salivary glands; accessory organ
Cells of the immune system are not found in which of the following tissues in the gastrointestinal tract?
Tooth enamel
Appendix
Peyer's patches
Tonsils and adenoids
Most of the bacteria involved in periodontal disease are obligate (strict) anaerobes. Explain why this is the case.
Sugar and other carbohydrates used by the oral bacteria can be more easily consumed anaerobically.
The oral cavity is a low oxygen environment.
Mouthwashes and toothpaste destroy most of the strict aerobes that are found on teeth.
The crevice between the gingiva and the tooth is low in oxygen.
T/F: There are no infectious agents that can penetrate intact skin.
True
False
Which of the following fluids within the gastrointestinal tract is correctly paired with its antimicrobial effect?
Saliva; lysozyme
Pancreatic fluid; IgE
Bile; lactoferrin
Stomach fluid; high pH
GALT refers to
Gut-Associated Lymphoid Tissue.
sterile organs of the GI tract: Gingiva, Appendix, Large intestine, Tonsils.
defenses of the GI tract: Gut microbes, Adenoids, Lysozyme, Tonsils.
Gingival Adhesive Labile Toxin, a virulence factor for gingivitis.
Defenses of the GI tract against pathogens include ______.
mucus, acid, and saliva
secretory IgA and lysozyme
peristalsis
All of the choices are correct.
Which of the following groups of microorganisms is not found among the normal gut microbiota?
Spirilla (Leptospira, Borrelia)
Enterics (Escherichia, Enterobacter)
Protozoa (Entamoeba, Trichomonas)
Firmicutes (Streptococcus, Staphylococcus, Clostridium, Bacillus)
T/F: Despite acidic conditions, some microorganisms have been found residing within the human stomach.
True
False
Oral bacteria on the tooth surface
develop a biofilm.
use fimbriae and slime layers to adhere.
metabolize sucrose, produce sticky glucans, and form plaque.
All of the above are correct.
Which organ of the gastrointestinal tract has a large commensal population of microorganisms?
Large intestine
Liver
Salivary Glands
Pancreas
Because the gut microbiome is a tremendously diverse population, an infection can be viewed as
a change in a person's enterotype.
the presence of helminths instead of the normal bacteria in the gut.
a shift in the relative proportions of the microbes in this environment.
an increase in the overall number of microbes in the gut.
The gastrointestinal microbiota has been implicated in the development of
non-infectious diseases like obesity.
appropriate immune responses to microbial antigens.
dental plaque
All of the responses are correct.
Enterotoxin production is a characteristic of ______.
Clostridium botulinum
Clostridium tetani
Clostridium perfringens
Clostridium difficile
T/F: E. coli O157:H7 secretes shiga exotoxin.
True
False
T/F: Antibiotics are used to treat diarrhea caused by shiga toxin-producing E. coli.
True
False
T/F: Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC) causes gut effacement with shiga toxin.
True
False
Salmonella are ______.
methane producers
motile
gram-positive bacilli
All of the choices are correct.
Which of the following statements is incorrect about shigellosis?
Symptoms include watery diarrhea with bloody, mucoid stools and abdominal cramps.
It frequently complicates to sepsis.
Outbreaks have occurred in day care centers.
It is also called dysentery.
Which of the following statements regarding shiga toxin-producing E. coli is correct?
It synthesizes shiga exotoxin from a bacteriophage.
It synthesizes shiga exotoxin from the E. coli chromosome.
It synthesizes shiga endotoxin from a bacteriophage.
It synthesizes shiga endotoxin from the E. coli chromosome.
Which of the following is not true of enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)?
It can be life-threatening in infants.
It causes a high fever.
Fluid replacement is vital to surviving an infection.
It causes traveler's diarrhea.
Which of the following statements is not true of enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)?
It makes no heat-labile or heat-stable exotoxins.
High fever is present.
It invades the gut mucosa.
Prompt treatment with a broad-spectrum antibiotic is essential to recover from an infection.
Escherichia coli infections
are often transmitted by fecal contaminated water and food.
include EIEC that destroys gut mucosa.
involve enterotoxin in traveler's diarrhea.
All of the choices are correct.
The most common bacterial cause of diarrhea in the United States is ______.
Campylobacter
Shigella
Salmonella
E. coli
It can cause acute temporary paralysis.Which of the following statements regarding Campylobacter infection is incorrect?
It can last over 2 weeks.
It can cause acute temporary paralysis
It is caused by a shiga toxin.
Campylobacter burrows into the mucosa of the ileum and multiplies.
Which of the following statements is not true regarding Clostridium difficile?
It is also called pseudomembranous colitis.
It produces "rice-water" stools.
It is part of the normal intestinal biota.
Infection is precipitated by broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy.
The virulence of Vibrio cholerae is due to its ______.
invasive enzymes
neurotoxin
enterotoxin
capsule
Cholera symptoms are
copious watery diarrhea.
loss of blood volume.
acidosis, sunken eyes, and thirst.
All of the choices are correct.
The most immediate and important treatment needed to prevent death in cholera victims is ______.
antitoxin
surgery
broad-spectrum antimicrobials
water and electrolyte replacement
"Rice-water stools" are associated with disease caused by which organism?
Campylobacter jejuni
Helicobacter pylori
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
Vibrio cholerae
Infection with which apicomplexan has been associated with fecal-contaminated drinking water?
Cryptosporidium
Rotavirus
Ascaris lumbricoides
Entamoeba histolytica
Symptoms of cryptosporidiosis include
a red skin papule that spreads to a large ulcer.
headache, sweats, vomiting, severe abdominal cramps, and diarrhea.
chills, fever, and sweats.
bloody, mucus-filled stools and fever.
The primary viral cause of chronic diarrhea globally is ______.
arbovirus
rotavirus
adenovirus
norovirus
A current news story describes a cruise ship in the Caribbean with an outbreak of diarrheal illness, affecting hundreds of people. With all of those people in a small area, opening and closing doors, using handrails, etc, you are trying to figure out what infectious agent may be the cause. Your most likely guess is that the pathogen is ______.
cholera
norovirus
hepatitis B
Clostridium
All of the following diseases can be transmitted by drinking contaminated water except ______.
trichinosis
giardiasis
cryptosporidiosis
Campylobacter
Which of the following statements regarding Clostridium difficile infection is incorrect?
It is the major cause of diarrhea in hospitals.
It is associated with disruption of normal biota due to broad-spectrum antimicrobials.
It is due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies.
It is a colitis that is a superinfection.
The most common infectious disease in humans is ______.
gastritis
the common cold
dental caries
pharyngitis
Gingivitis
is primarily caused by normal anaerobic biota.
involves the formation of calculus and plaque.
involves a crevice in the gum along the tooth.
All of the choices are correct.
All of the following are true of acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG) except that it
is highly contagious.
is associated with severe pain, bleeding, pseudomembranes, and necrosis.
is common in AIDS patients.
is due to poor oral hygiene, altered host defenses, or prior gum disease.
The causative organism for mumps is ______.
Vibrio cholerae
Paramyxovirus
Streptococcus pyogenes
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Orchitis and epididymitis are seen in young, adult males as a complication of ______.
mumps
gingivitis
hepatitis
tapeworm infestation
Helicobacter pylori causes ______.
gastritis
duodenal ulcers
stomach ulcers
All of the choices are correct
Which is not a characteristic of Helicobacter pylori?
Gram-negative
Lives in the stomach
Produces urease to buffer stomach acidity
Produces enteroxin that causes diarrhea
T/F: In the absence of dietary carbohydrates, bacteria do not cause tooth decay.
True
False
T/F: Research does not indicate a link between the numbers and types of bacteria causing periodontitis and thicker carotid arteries in an individual.
True
False
Your son has not had the MMR vaccine (measles, mumps, rubella) because you are apprehensive about vaccines and their side effects. Your sister says that you are setting him up for a potentially damaging scenario. Which argument has the great scientific validity and why?
Your sister is correct. Even if your son does not get the mumps now when he is young, but gets the infection later in life, there is a possibility of severe side effects.
Your sister is correct in her warnings. If your son gets a severe case of mumps, he will likely develop a fatal secondary infection.
You are correct to be apprehensive because vaccines have been the cause of autism in children.
You are correct in protecting your son. If you can keep him from getting mumps when young, it is no longer a problem. It is simply a childhood disease.
As recently as the 1980s, the medical establishment believed ulcers to be caused by stress and an increase in gastric acidity. How has the current understanding of ulcer development changed patient treatment?
There is no treatment for ulcers, then or now.
Different foods are now suggested for patients having ulcers.
Antibiotics are now used to treat ulcers.
Doctors now give their patients sedatives to calm patients with ulcers.
T/F: The best treatment for acute diarrhea is oral replacement of electrolytes and water.
True
False
T/F: The best treatment for acute diarrhea is oral replacement of electrolytes and water.
True
False
Which of the following antigen types found in gram-negative enterics is mismatched?
H antigen - flagellar
K antigen - capsule
O antigen - cell wall
All of the choices are correct matches.
Shiga toxin-producing E. coli characteristics include all of the following except that it
has a reservoir inside of cattle intestines.
in some cases, leads to the development of hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) with possible kidney failure
is transmitted by ingestion of contaminated, undercooked food, especially hamburger.
only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals.
Which of the following statements regarding Campylobacter jejuni is incorrect?
It causes fever and a watery to bloody diarrhea.
It produces an enterotoxin that stimulates diarrhea.
The cells are gram-negative, curved rods with darting motility.
It infects the stomach.
Giardiasis involves
a protozoan that does not form cysts.
infection of the large intestine.
symptoms of abdominal pain, flatulence, and diarrhea.
All of the choices are correct.
Which of the following is not a normal causative agent of acute diarrhea with vomiting (food poisoning)?
Bacillus cereus
Clostridium difficile
Staphylococcus aureus
Clostridium perfringens
A common food intoxication is caused by enterotoxin-producing strains of ______.
Streptococcus agalactiae
Staphylococcus epidermidis
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Staphylococcus aureus
Which of the following statements is incorrect about Staphylococcus aureus food intoxication?
Symptoms come on quickly and include nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.
Common affected foods include custards, ham, cream pastries, and processed meats.
Food becomes contaminated by a human carrier.
Ingestion of the pathogen allows it to multiply and damage the GI tract lining.
It is now past the normal dinner time, but you do not even want to think about food. Only diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and vomiting are on your mind. This all started a few hours ago after having a ham sandwich for lunch purchased from a street vendor. With your microbiology knowledge, you surmise that it is a Staphylococcus aureus-related disorder. Why do you think this?
Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of gastrointestinal disease.
Ham is notorious for being contaminated with Staphylococcus aureus bacteria.
The toxin produced by Staphylococcus aureus was already in the ham, so the symptoms can occur quickly.
Only Staphylococcus aureus infection causes vomiting, along with cramps and diarrhea.
Outbreaks of which protozoan disease have been associated with fecal-contaminated imported raspberries, fresh greens, and drinking water?
Cyclosporiasis
Cryptosporidiosis
Trichinosis
Toxoplasmosis
T/F: Only feces from humans that contaminates food and water can be involved in transmission of amoebiasis.
True
False
T/F: Boiling will not inactivate Giardia lamblia cysts in contaminated water.
True
False
Just back from a trip to South America, you now have a severe diarrheal illness. Your symptoms, other than diarrhea, are pain, cramps, some fecal blood, and fever. These are symptoms of many of the gastrointestinal diseases, so that information does not help you or the doctors identify the infectious agent. Your doctor wants to send a fecal sample to the microbiology lab for them to look at it under the light microscope. Based upon this protocol selection, the physician believes that you have ______.
amoebiasis
cholera
hepatitis A
salmonellosis
Which of the following attributes is not common to the life and transmission cycles of Opisthorchis sinensis, Clonorchis sinensis, and Fasciola hepatica?
They are transmitted by consuming inadequately cooked fish.
Infection causes obstruction of the bile duct.
Fresh water snails are an intermediate host.
Eggs are released in the feces.
Inflammation of the liver with necrosis of the hepatocytes and swelling due to a mononuclear response is a disease called ______.
hepatitis
cirrhosis
jaundice
mononucleosis
Hepatitis B virus
is principally transmitted by blood.
transmission risks include shared needles, anal intercourse, and heterosexual intercourse.
is transmitted to newborns from chronic carrier mothers.
All of the choices are correct.
Hepatitis B infection
is responsible for most cases of post-transfusion hepatitis.
increases risk for hepatocellular cancer
can be transmitted by the fecal-oral route.
has an incubation of 2 to 3 weeks.
Which of the following statements is incorrect about hepatitis A?
An infection predisposes a person for liver cancer.
The virus produces flu-like symptoms with discomfort near the liver and darkened urine.
It is transmitted by the oral-fecal route.
Havrix is an inactivated vaccine for prevention.
Which of the following hepatitis viruses is mismatched with its description?
Hepatitis A virus - nonenveloped, single-stranded RNA enterovirus
Hepatitis B virus - enveloped DNA virus
Hepatitis C virus - RNA virus
Hepatitis D virus - defective RNA virus that coinfects with hepatitis A virus
The most common cause of liver cancer in the United States is hepatitis ______ virus.
A
B
C
D
T/F: Carriers of Hepatitis B virus are not common.
True
False
T/F: There are vaccines for immunity to the Hepatitis B virus.
True
False
T/F: The only body fluid that can transmit Hepatitis B virus is blood.
True
False
Which of the following is not a virulence factor associated with helminths?
Thick cuticle to escape detection from the host immune system
Specialized structures for attachment to host tissues
Secretion of toxins
Degradative enzymes to damage host tissue
The most definitive test to diagnose a helminth infection is
an ova and parasite smear for microscopy.
a good medical history of the patient, including recent foreign travel.
a serological test for the presence of anti-helminthic antibodies.
a blood cell count to look for elevated levels of eosinophils.
Enterobius vermicularis is
a whipworm.
common only to the tropics and subtropics.
an intestinal helminth that easily contaminates fingers and fomites.
All of the choices are correct.
Which of the following statements about parasitic helminths is incorrect?
They are multicellular animals.
They have a definitive host in which the adult form lives.
They have larval forms that do not affect humans.
They include roundworms and tapeworms.
The transmission cycle of Fasciola hepatica differs from the cycles of Opisthorchis sinensis and Clonorchis sinensis in that
eggs are released from an infected human via the urine.
encystment occurs on a freshwater plant.
freshwater snails release cercariae.
helminth development occurs in the liver.
Which of the following symptoms of trichinosis is most indicative of this disease?
Shortness of breath
Abdominal pain
Eosinophilia
Puffiness around the eyes
General symptoms of helminth infection includes all of the following except
intense abdominal pain.
eggs, larvae, or adult worms found in feces.
increased sensitivity to helminth antigens.
increased eosinophil count.
T/F:Most antihelminthic medications act only against the pathogens, not the human host.
True
False
Which of the following is not a helminth that causes primarily intestinal symptoms?
Diphyllobothrium latum
Trichuris trichiura
Taenia solium
Enterobius vermicularis
Which of the following statements comparing Enterobius vermicularis and Diphyllobothrium latum is incorrect?
D. latum has fish as an intermediate host, whereas E. vermicularis has no intermediate host.
Symptoms of both infections are mild.
Both helminths affect primarily children.
E. vermicularis is best treated with mebendazole, whereas D. latum is susceptible to praziquantel.
Identify the mismatch in the following list of helminths and their common names.
Trichuris trichiura; whipworm
Opisthorchis sinensis; liver fluke
Taenia solium; pinworm
Ascaris lumbricoides; intestinal roundworm
Which of the following helminths is correctly paired with its portal of entry?
Enterobius vermicularis - sexual transmission
Ascaris lumbricoides - enters through the skin
Schistomoma species - carried by an insect vector into human
Taenia solium - eggs or larvae can be ingested
Which of the following statements regarding tapeworms is incorrect?
The body is comprised of proglottids.
Cysticerci are young, infective larvae ingested in undercooked meat.
Proglottids are reproductive segments.
They can produce a variety of toxins.
Which of the following is not a helminth that causes intestinal symptoms accompanied by migratory symptoms?
Necator americanus
Trichuris trichiura
Ascaris lumbricoides
Toxocara
Which of the following statements regarding helminths causing intestinal distress plus migratory symptoms is incorrect?
Tissues along the migratory route of the helminth experience inflammation.
All of these infections are associated with eosinophilia, which can be detected in a complete blood count.
Praziquantel is the best treatment option for infection with these helminths.
Nearly all newborn puppies in the U.S. are infected with Toxocara species.
Ascaris lumbricoides
is an intestinal roundworm.
spreads to humans by ingestion of Ascaris eggs in food.
larvae penetrate into lymphatics and capillaries around intestines.
larvae migrate to the pharynx, get swallowed, and return to intestines to mature.
All of the choices are correct.
The most dangerous outcome of a Taenia solium infection occurs when humans ingest tapeworm eggs rather than cysticerci. This type of transmission occurs by
consuming plants that haven't been thoroughly washed of soil.
drinking water contaminated with feces from infected animals.
consuming undercooked pork with encysted Taenia.
consuming "chitlins," pig intestines from an infected animal.
The most dangerous outcome of a Taenia solium infection occurs when
the host immune system fails to react against it.
cysticerci are ingested.
eggs are ingested.
larvae cross the placenta.
Both Taenia and Trichinella can be found as cysts embedded in pork muscle. Which of the following statements about these organisms is incorrect?
Only Taenia can be transmitted from one human to another.
Both organisms release eggs in the feces to propagate the helminth.
Both helminths can exit the digestive system and migrate to other tissues.
For both organisms, cyst envelopes are digested in the stomach, releasing the larvae to the intestine.
Trichinella species spend their entire life within the body of a mammalian host, but can move from one species to another upon consumption of an infected animal. Which of the following statements regarding trichinosis is incorrect?
Venison (deer) is safe from trichinosis because deer are herbivores not carnivores.
Ground pork is safe, as the grinding process both inactivates the Trichinella cysts and mixes it with meats from multiple animals, effectively diluting any remaining cysts.
Affected muscle tissue has multiple cysts. Upon consumption, this generates a population that includes both males and females for the infection to propagate.
An important hazard of consuming roadkill meats is the potential presence of Trichinella cysts.
Which of the following statements regarding trichinosis is incorrect?
The disease can be transmitted by the fecal-oral route.
The disease is associated with undercooked pork.
Coiled larvae are encysted in skeletal muscle.
Larvae migrate from intestines to blood and various body tissues.
Because of the complexity of the Schistosoma life cycle, there are several parts of the cycle that could be disrupted to halt the spread of the disease. Which of the following proposals is not likely to succeed in decreasing the prevalence of schistosomiasis?
Install sanitary sewage treatment facilities to prevent the dispersal of eggs present in urine and feces.
Identify a surface protein on Schistosoma miracidia that the immune system can recognize and create a vaccine using that antigen.
Monitor water bodies to detect the presence of infectious miracidia and enforce no bathing rules when they are present.
Apply chemical molluscicides (chemicals targeted to molluscs like snails) to bodies of fresh water.
Which of the following statements regarding schistosomiasis is incorrect?
Efficacy of treatment is assess by observing fecal samples placed in water for whether eggs can hatch to release live miracidia.
Once a person has recovered from an infection with Schistosoma mansoni, they are protected with lifelong immunity.
There is only a single drug available to treat Schistosoma infection, praziquantel, and drug-resistant strains are beginning to arise.
Schistosomiasis is transmitted by exposing the skin to a water source that has been contaminated with sewage.
Which of the following is not true of schistosomiasis?
Larvae called cercariae can penetrate intact skin through hair follicles.
Schistosomiasis is caused by blood flukes.
Schisotosomiasis cases are beginning to appear in the southern U.S., as climate change brings warming waters to the region.
Freshwater snails are the intermediate host.
Which of the following statements concerning archaea in the microbiome is correct?
Archaea evolved under extreme conditions and are not commensal with humans.
The human body is a hostile environment for archaea.
Methanogens are associated with anaerobic regions of the gut and the gingival pockets.
Archaeal infections are treated with translation inhibitors, as their ribosomes are the same as bacterial ribosomes.
A metagenomic study from a never-before-seen type of gingival infection indicates the presence of large numbers of archaea. Which of the following would be a good practice to isolate this organism?
Use an anaerobic medium and incubate in a sealed container.
Adjust the pH of the medium to below 5.
Incubate the isolation medium at about 90°C.
Incubate the isolation medium adjacent to a bright full-spectrum light.
From the surface to the interior of a tooth, the tissues in order are
enamel, pulp, and dentin.
enamel, dentin, and pulp.
dentin, enamel, and pulp.
dentin, pulp, and enamel.
Paramyxoviruses evade the host immune system by
entering new cells by inducing syncytia formation.
producing an inhibitor specific for lymphocyte receptors.
a display of host antigens on its surface.
infecting only red blood cells.
Pathogenicity islands are
a lymphoid tissue present in the small intestine.
gene clusters that confer the ability to become pathogenic.
enzymes like proteases and hemolysins that promote pathogenesis.
closely related groups of pathogenic enteric organisms.
The fact that Salmonella has a high ID50 means that
consuming just a few cells of Salmonella will not result in illness.
it is more pathogenic than 50% of all gut microbes.
an antibiotic dose of 50 μg/ml can be expected to kill the organism.
the most stringent decontamination measures must be used in food preparation facilities.
Identification of the causative microbe for a diarrheal infection often requires a stool culture. The best medium for this purpose is
a medium containing a broad-spectrum antibiotic as a selective agent.
a liquid medium, as the diarrhea conditions are more liquid than solid.
a general purpose medium that supports the growth of the diverse gut microbiota.
a medium containing bile as a selective agent.
Which of the following statements regarding fecal transplant is correct?
Donors and recipients must be carefully matched to prevent an immune reaction in the recipient.
The goal is to completely eradicate Clostridium difficile from a patient's gut microbiota and replace it with a healthy community.
Fecal matter must be carefully disinfected and screened for viruses, cysts, and endospores before transfer to a recipient patient.
This treatment is designed to jump-start the intestinal microbiota after an infection with Clostridium difficile resuts in acute diarrhea.
Vibrio cholerae can be readily isolated and identified in the laboratory from stool samples by
growth on selective media followed by PCR of its 16S rRNA gene.
its ability to grow at high temperature and produce zones of clearing on blood agar.
dark-field microscopy looking for motility.
its robust chemotactic response to the presence of chitin.
Which of the following pathogens has an infectious dose so low that a single infectious particle (cell, cyst, endospore, virus) can cause disease?
Norovirus
Hepatitis A virus
Giardia
Shigella
WASH initiatives are public health initiatives that address WAter, Sanitation, and Hygiene. Which of the following diseases would not be expected to show a decrease in prevalence following a successful WASH campaign?
Shigella infection
Clostridium difficile infection
Schistosomiasis
Ascaris lumbricoides infection
Trichomonas vaginalis
does not produce cysts.
infection is generally asymptomatic in males.
has four flagella and an undulating membrane.
All of the choices are correct.
Restriction factors in the reproductive tract
adjust the pH of the mucosa and are modified during sexual maturation.
are enzymes that hydrolyze the phosphodiester bond in DNA.
provide an innate protective effect against viral infection.
appear to derive from unculturable microbes in the normal microbiota.
Which of the following is not a part of the male genital (reproductive) system?
Vas deferens
Prostate
Ureter
Epididymis
A woman is much more likely than a man to contract a UTI. Which of the following practices would best reduce her chances of getting a UTI?
Using birth control pills
Daily antibiotic dose
Not wearing tight-fitting clothes
Wiping with toilet paper in a front-to-back direction
Lactobacillus in the female reproductive tract
is the causative agent in common yeast infections.
is protective.
can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease.
is indicative of underlying infection.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the normal biota of the female reproductive tract during childbearing years?
Candida albicans is present in small amounts.
Vaginal pH is neutral.
Lactobacilli convert sugars to acid.
Estrogen causes glycogen release.
Which of the following is not a defense of the genitourinary tract?
Mucus secretions
Flushing action of urine
Lysozyme
IgG
Normal biota of the urinary tract in both genders include all of the following except ______.
nonhemolytic Streptococcus
Lactobacillus
Escherichia coli
Staphylococcus
Which of the following statements is true regarding the male urethral biota?
The urethral biota is the same as the anal biota.
The urethral biota in the male is exactly the same biota as in the female urethra.
There are no resident biota in the urethra.
The urethral biota varies with sexual activity of the male.
The vaginal microbiome changes as a female matures because
estrogen has an antibiotic effect on the vaginal microbiome.
episodic treatments with antibiotics for UTIs and antifungals for vaginitis eliminate many of the normal microbiota.
hormonal changes and sexual activity alter the environment of the vagina.
most sexually mature women use douching as a means to eliminate the vaginal microbiome.
Why does the microbiota of the reproductive tract change as the female ages from childhood to adulthood to old age?
Her estrogen and progesterone levels change over time.
The pH of the vagina changes over time.
The microbes in the vagina change the environment, which affects the populations of microbes living there.
All of these statements are true.
The most common causative agent of urinary tract infections is ______.
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pyogenes
Pseudomonas aeurginosa
Escherichia coli
Which of the following organisms causes urinary tract infections?
Group B Streptococcus
Gardnerella vaginalis
Schistosoma haematobium
Proteus mirabilis
Which of the following statements regarding leptospirosis in incorrect?
The causative organism infects the kidneys, liver, brain, and eyes.
It is most common in cattle, horses, pigs, and dogs.
It can be transmitted by animal bites.
Humans acquire it by contact with abraided skin or mucous membranes.
Prostatitis and urinary tract infections (UTIs) are alike in that
both result from the transfer of normal biota from the GI tract.
women are far more susceptible to both infections than men.
untreated cases may complicate by infecting the kidneys.
treatment will minimize the symptoms but will never completely eliminate the disease.
All of the following are signs and symptoms of urinary tract infection except ______.
painful urination
diarrhea
nausea
RBC's in urine
Infection of the urinary bladder is called ______.
vaginitis
PID
cystitis
urethritis
Infected animals shed Leptospira interrogans in their ______.
urine
feces
blood
saliva
Schistosoma haematobium infection
is transmitted via the fecal-oral route.
has no effective treatment at this time.
predisposes victims to bladder cancer.
predisposes victims to liver cancer.
The patient's symptoms are pain upon urination and blood in the urine but no bacteria are cultured from the urine. The doctor suspects schistosomiasis. What question did the doctor asked that gave her a clue about the disease?
Have you been having unprotected sex?
Have you traveled out of the U.S.?
Have you had a blood transfusion?
Have you been eating at places that might not be hygienic?
Janey has been taking antibiotics for 10 days to counter a urinary tract infection caused by E. coli. Her UTI is eliminated, but two weeks later she has a vaginal itch. What is the likely cause?
Clostridium difficile
Escherichia coli
Candida albicans
Staphylococcus aureus
The most common mode of disease transmission in UTIs is ______.
aerosol
opportunism
fomites
endogenous transfer
Leptospirosis
is strictly transmitted by sexual contact.
is contracted by the fecal-oral route.
can be contracted from the environment.
has only humans as a reservoir.
The most common mode for the transmission of Schistosoma haematobium is ______.
fecal-oral route
contaminated water
opportunism
contaminated meat
Which of the following is a causative agent of a discharge disease?
Schistosoma haematobium
Escherichia coli
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Leptospira interrogans
Neisseria gonorrhoeae is
the cause of ophthalmia neonatorum.
the cause of gonorrhea.
called the gonococcus.
All of the choices are correct.
Which of the following statements regarding gonorrhea is incorrect?
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), epididymitis, and infertility are complications.
It is a sexually transmitted infection.
Symptoms include painful urination and discharge.
A chancre-type lesion develops at the portal of entry.
Chlamydia trachomatis causes
nongonococcal urethritis in males.
cervicitis in females.
congenital conjunctivitis.
All of the choices are correct.
Which is not a characteristic of spirochetes?
The cells are always motile.
The cells stain gram-negative.
All are pathogenic.
All cells have a cell wall.
Treponema pallidum
has humans as the sole reservoir.
can cross the placenta.
has a hooked tip to attach to epithelium.
All of the choices are correct.
The chancre of syphilis
occurs during the tertiary stage.
develops into a lesion with firm margins and an ulcerated central crater.
is very painful.
occurs due to small hemorrhaging of capillaries.
The secondary stage of syphilis
occurs within 10 days of the primary stage.
is when gummas develop in tissues.
has no symptoms.
is a time when the pathogen enters and multiplies in the blood.
During which stage of syphilis does fever, lymphadenopathy, and a red to brown rash occur?
Primary
Secondary
Tertiary
Permanent cardiovascular and neurological damage is seen in which stage of syphilis?
Primary
Secondary
Tertiary
During the tertiary stage of syphilis, tumors called _____ develop in the liver, skin, bone, and cartilage.
gummas
nodules
ulcers
chancres
The Tuskegee Study gathered information on ______.
HIV
syphillis
chlamydia
herpes
The rash of secondary syphilis
only lasts a few days.
causes severe itching
is intensely painful.
can last for months.
The latency period of syphilis is ______.
3-6 months
1 year
10 years
20 years or longer
Which of the following has not been an effective treatment for syphilis?
Penicllin G
Vancomycin
Arsenic
Mercury
Herpes simplex-1
is exclusive to oral mucosa.
is exclusive to genitourinary tract.
confers immunity to herpes simplex 2.
None of the choices is correct.
Herpes simplex-2 (HSV-2) causes
genital lesions.
intensely sensitive vesicles on or near the genitals.
symptoms that include urethritis, cervicitis, and itching.
All of the choices are correct.
An occasional serious complication of herpes simplex-1 infection is ______.
infertility
kidney failure
shingles
encephalitis
Which of the following statements regarding HSV-2 (genital herpes) is incorrect?
Virus is shed from active lesions only.
It can be reactivated by bacterial infections.
It can become latent in the sacral ganglion.
It can also infect oral mucosa.
Which of the following statements regarding genital warts is incorrect?
They often occur on the penis, vagina, and cervix.
They are sexually transmitted.
They are not common in the US
Certain strains predispose a person to cancer of the cervix or penis.
T/F: Chlamydia infection can lead to cervicitis, salpingitis, and pelvic inflammatory disease.
True
False
T/F: The antivirals used for herpes simplex infections have the ability to completely destroy the virus and permanently cure the latent infection.
True
False
You, a 29 year old sexually active male, have discovered some small vesicles on the penis. They are fluid-filled, red, and very painful. This is the second time that you have seen this. The first time around, about 2 months ago, you saw them but managed to ignore them. The lesions went away--no doctor, no treatment. But here they are again. You think that perhaps you picked up this infection six months ago, the last time that you had sex. Identify the likely infection.
Syphillis
Chlamydia
HSV-1-infection
HSV-2-infection
The key characteristic of the herpes family of viruses is
their ability to stay in host cells without causing symptoms.
their ability to transform normal cells into cancer cells.
their propensity to destroy bone marrow.
their ability to cause organ death.
The primary virulence factor of Neisseria gonorrhoeae is ______.
fimbriae
protease
an endotoxin
a hemolysin
Which of the following statements about Chlamydia is incorrect?
Reticulate bodies differentiate into elementary bodies.
It is gram-negative.
Elementary bodies are the infectious form.
Elementary bodies lack enzyme systems for making ATP.
The most commonly reported STI in the United States is ______.
Chlamydia infection
HIV infection
gonorrhea
genital herpes
The most common cause of vaginitis is ______.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Streptococcus pyogenes
Escherichia coli
Candida albicans
Candida albicans is a ______.
fungus
bacterium
protozoan
helminth
Trichomonas vaginalis is a ______.
helminth
fungus
protozoan
bacterium
The best way to directly observe Treponema pallidum is through ______ microscopy.
scanning electron
phase contrast
fluorescent
dark-field
Chancroid
is caused by Haemophilus ducreyi.
is caused by a spirochete.
presents with a hard chancre.
is very painful in both sexes.
Warts are caused by ______.
nonenveloped DNA viruses
enveloped RNA viruses
bacteria
nonenveloped RNA viruses
As a couple, you have been trying to get pregnant for a few years, but there appears to be a medical cause for the infertility. After a full checkup, your doctor tells you that there is scar tissue in the uterine tubes. What disease is the most likely cause of this problem?
gonorrhea
syphillis
Leptospirosis
Trichomoniasis
You have been a carrier of HSV-2 for many years, with sporadic outbreaks perhaps once a year. You are pregnant and about to deliver your baby. What does your doctor suggest, now that you currently have an outbreak of herpes lesions?
Delivery by cesarean section
Give you a high dose of antibiotics
Have an abortion
Put the baby on a high dose of antivirals
Which of the following statements regarding vaginosis and vaginitis is correct?
Both conditions result in a vaginal discharge with itching.
Vaginitis may be caused by fungi or protozoans, whereas vaginosis is invariably a viral infection.
Vaginitis can complicate to pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), but vaginosis cannot.
Both conditions can be prevented with vaccinations.
A health care provider who suspects that a woman may have vaginitis caused by Candida infection can confirm that by
submitting a sample of the discharge for metagenomic sequencing.
identifying the characteristic protozoans in a smear examined using a fluorescence microscope.
plating a sample of the discharge on a medium containing salt as a selective agent.
identifying pseudohyphae in a Gram-stained smear examined using a light microscope.
Which of the following characteristics can distinguish vaginitis and vaginosis?
Causative agent
Presence of vaginal inflammation
Presence of discharge
All of the choices are correct.
Which of the following statements regarding prostatitis is incorrect?
The specific causative agent is readily cultured and identified.
It can be chronic or acute.
It is caused by GI tract biota.
It is accompanied by pain and frequent, difficult urination.
Even after a positive test for a microbial cause, chronic prostatitis is unresponsive to antibiotic therapy. Why might this be the case?
Mixed species biofilms are hard to eliminate with antibiotics.
The infection is sporadic.
It is a viral infection.
The side effects of the drug are too great.
The leading cause of pelvic inflammatory disease is ______.
HIV infection
genital herpes
gonorrhea
Chlamydia infection
Pelvic inflammatory disease often leads to ______.
infertility
HIV infection
cervical cancer
multiple births
Research published in January 2017 presented an estimate of the prevalence of HPV infection in American males at 45%. Adult males are an unvaccinated population. What are the consequences of HPV infection in males?
There are no long-term consequences; a course of antiviral medication will clear up the infection.
HPV-infected males should also be screened for gonorrhea, as the two often co-infect.
Males can develop genitourinary tract cancer from HPV infection.
Males with HPV have a significantly higher likelihood of developing prostate cancer.
T/F: Gardasil prevents infection by group B Streptococcus types 6, 11, 16, and 18.
True
False
There is a controversy over pre-teen girls receiving the HPV vaccine. Many parents think that giving this vaccine condones sexual activity at a young age. On the other hand, there are parents who do not want their kids to pick up STIs. Why is the vaccine recommended for 11-12 year old girls? Why not give the vaccine to young adult women who are just becoming sexually active?
Very young women tend to get cancer from HPV, whereas women who are older get warts from HPV.
Once the young woman becomes infected with HPV, the virus gets into cells. It is then too late to vaccinate.
The immune system is strongest in pre-teen girls, so it is best to give the vaccine very early in life.
The vaccine is cheaper for young girls since the dosage of virus in the vaccine is far less than that given for older women.
Which population is at greatest risk for group B Streptococcus infection?
Post-menopausal women
Pregnant women
Neonates
AIDS patients
T/F: Group B Streptococcus infections can cause serious infections in infants through vertical transmission.
True
False
In the final trimester of pregnancy, your test results came back positive for an infection that would likely be damaging for the newborn, so your doctor wants to prescribe an antibiotic. What organism is the likely culprit here?
Leptospira
Herpes simplex 2
Trichomonas
Group B Streptococcus
Common spermicidal preparations have a toxic effect on Lactobacillus species and are associated with increased risk of urinary tract infection. Which of the following statements best explains this observation?
Lactobacillus can cause urinary tract infections when transferred from the reproductive system to the urinary system.
Production of spermicidal chemicals must be rigorously controlled to avoid contamination with organisms like E. coli.
Without the protective coating of Lactobacillus, organisms like E. coli can attach to bladder epithelial cells.
Use of spermicide must be carefully monitored so that it doesn't inadvertently enter the urinary tract.
The population most likely to be affected by catheter-associated urinary tract infections is
elderly women in a nursing home.
urban sex workers.
women who abuse intravenous drugs.
women who have recently delivered a baby by caesarean section.
The pathogenesis of Neisseria gonorrhoeae is dependent upon phase variation. Which of the following statements concerning phase variation is incorrect?
Phase variation allows Neisseria cells to escape immune detection.
Phase variations results from genetic rearrangements in the Neisseria chromosome.
Phase variation involves alterations to the structure of the fimbriae.
Phase variation results in Neisseria cells adopting a pleomorphic morphology.
Which of the following statements regarding the Chlamydia life cycle is incorrect?
Elementary bodies are released from the host cell to continue the infectious cycle.
The elementary body is the infectious stage of Chlamydia.
Elementary bodies differentiate into reticulate bodies in the cell nucleus.
Reticulate bodies multiple by binary fission.
In which of the following ways are Chlamydia and viruses the same?
Both are able to reproduce only within a eukaryotic cell.
Both are best treated with antiviral chemotherapy.
Both can remain dormant in the cell nucleus for long periods of time.
Both have surface proteins that cannot be recognized by the immune system.
The best method for culturing Chlamydia is
a minimal, defined selective medium.
eukaryotic cell culture.
enrichment through several rounds of blood culture.
to incubate the medium at slighty lower than body temperature.
A patient in your clinic has tested positive for syphilis, and following his visit, you must prepare the room for future use. To avoid spreading this organism to other patients, the best approach is to
contact the CDC for guidance on proper cleaning.
clean all surfaces with a common disinfectant.
discard all linens and instruments in biohazard containers.
lock the room and post a sign that it must be professionally decontaminated.
