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Operating System Concepts Quiz

Total questions: 123

Worksheet time: 1hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does the term "cold boot" refer to?

a)

Rebooting the system

b)

Turning on the system after it was completely powered off

c)

Shutting down the system

d)

Putting the system in sleep mode

2.

The process of transferring control from BIOS/UEFI to the bootloader is called:

a)

Bootstrapping

b)

Handshaking

c)

Context switching

d)

Preemption

3.

Which of the following is not a valid state in a process state diagram?

a)

Ready

b)

Blocked

c)

Waiting

d)

Suspended

4.

The Process Control Block (PCB) contains information about the process, except:

a)

Process ID

b)

Program Counter

c)

CPU registers

d)

System clock

5.

Which of the following is used for communication between processes?

a)

Memory mapping

b)

Paging

c)

Shared memory

d)

Virtual memory

6.

What is the main purpose of a process scheduler?

a)

Allocate resources to processes

b)

Manage memory

c)

Schedule processes for CPU execution

d)

Handle file I/O operations

7.

A thread is also referred to as a:

a)

Process Control Block

b)

Lightweight process

c)

Independent process

d)

Kernel process

8.

Which system call is used to create a new process in UNIX-like systems?

a)

exec()

b)

fork()

c)

wait()

d)

clone()

9.

What does the ‘parent process’ do when it terminates a child process?

a)

Releases memory

b)

Sends a termination signal

c)

Deallocates resources

d)

All of the above

10.

The mechanism where processes communicate using messages is called:

a)

Shared memory system

b)

Message passing system

c)

Paging system

d)

Virtual memory system

11.

In a multi-threaded environment, each thread has its own:

a)

Heap memory

b)

Code section

c)

Stack

d)

Data section

12.

In shared memory systems, synchronization between processes is achieved using:

a)

Mutexes

b)

Message queues

c)

Signals

d)

Page tables

13.

Which of the following is a non-preemptive scheduling algorithm?

a)

Round Robin

b)

Shortest Job First

c)

Priority Scheduling

d)

First Come First Served

14.

What is the turnaround time of a process?

a)

Time spent in the ready queue

b)

Time spent in execution

c)

Time from submission to completion

d)

Time in waiting state

15.

Which scheduling algorithm is most suitable for time-sharing systems?

a)

Round Robin

b)

Priority Scheduling

c)

Shortest Job First

d)

First Come First Served

16.

The CPU scheduling criteria that ensures the system is responsive is:

a)

Turnaround time

b)

Waiting time

c)

Throughput

d)

Response time

17.

In Round Robin scheduling, the performance heavily depends on:

a)

Context switch time

b)

Priority levels

c)

Quantum size

d)

Process size

18.

The Shortest Job First (SJF) scheduling algorithm is optimal when:

a)

All jobs arrive at the same time

b)

Jobs arrive in decreasing order of burst time

c)

Jobs are of equal size

d)

Jobs arrive in increasing order of priority

19.

Priority scheduling may cause:

a)

Deadlock

b)

Starvation

c)

High waiting time

d)

Context switching overhead

20.

Which scheduling algorithm ensures that each process gets a fair share of CPU time?

a)

Shortest Job First

b)

Priority Scheduling

c)

Round Robin

d)

First Come First Served

21.

In preemptive scheduling, a process can be interrupted and moved to the ready queue when:

a)

A higher priority process arrives

b)

The process finishes execution

c)

The process requests I/O

d)

All of the above

22.

Throughput is defined as:

a)

Number of processes completed per unit time

b)

Total execution time of all processes

c)

Average waiting time of processes

d)

CPU utilization percentage

23.

Which of the following scheduling algorithms may lead to convoy effect?

a)

Round Robin

b)

First Come First Served

c)

Shortest Job First

d)

Priority Scheduling

24.

The context switching time between processes is considered as:

a)

CPU utilization time

b)

Overhead

c)

Idle time

d)

Throughput

25.

What happens when a process is terminated?

a)

Resources are deallocated

b)

PCB is removed

c)

Parent process is notified

d)

All of the above

26.

Which of the following is true for the preemptive version of Shortest Job First?

a)

It is also known as Shortest Remaining Time First

b)

It is equivalent to First Come First Served

c)

It has the highest waiting time

d)

None of the above

27.

In Priority Scheduling, the process with the highest priority:

a)

Gets the CPU last

b)

Gets the CPU first

c)

Runs in parallel with other processes

d)

Is moved to the waiting queue

28.

Which of the following scheduling algorithms always executes the process that arrived first?

a)

Round Robin

b)

First Come First Served

c)

Priority Scheduling

d)

Shortest Job First

29.

A scheduling algorithm where all processes are executed cyclically is called:

a)

Priority Scheduling

b)

Round Robin Scheduling

c)

Shortest Job First

d)

First Come First Served

30.

In the context of scheduling, aging is a technique used to:

a)

Prevent starvation

b)

Reduce response time

c)

Avoid deadlock

d)

Optimize throughput

31.

What is the main disadvantage of First Come First Served scheduling?

a)

Low throughput

b)

High context switch time

c)

Convoy effect

d)

Starvation

32.

If a process in Round Robin scheduling has a burst time of 10 ms and the time quantum is 4 ms, how many context switches will occur to complete the process?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

33.

What is the main cause of a race condition?

a)

Improper synchronization

b)

High CPU utilization

c)

Deadlock

d)

Excessive paging

34.

The critical section problem involves:

a)

Process scheduling

b)

Synchronization of shared resources

c)

Deadlock resolution

d)

Virtual memory management

35.

Which of the following is not a requirement for a solution to the critical section problem?

a)

Mutual exclusion

b)

Progress

c)

Bounded waiting

d)

Preemption

36.

Peterson's solution is applicable for:

a)

Any number of processes

b)

Two processes

c)

Three processes

d)

N processes with priority

37.

A race condition occurs when:

a)

Two processes compete for the same resource

b)

Two processes access shared data concurrently without synchronization

c)

Processes enter the critical section simultaneously

d)

All of the above

38.

Which of the following is used to implement mutual exclusion?

a)

Critical section

b)

Mutex locks

c)

Paging

d)

Virtual memory

39.

What is a semaphore?

a)

A special type of process

b)

A synchronization tool

c)

A CPU scheduling algorithm

d)

A deadlock prevention mechanism

40.

Which type of semaphore allows at most one process in the critical section?

a)

Binary semaphore

b)

Counting semaphore

c)

Monitors

d)

Deadlock semaphore

41.

Monitors are high-level synchronization constructs that:

a)

Use semaphores internally

b)

Enforce mutual exclusion automatically

c)

Avoid busy waiting

d)

All of the above

42.

In the Producer-Consumer problem, a buffer is implemented as:

a)

Shared memory

b)

Queue

c)

Stack

d)

Both a and b

43.

The Dining Philosophers problem is used to illustrate:

a)

Process synchronization issues

b)

Deadlock prevention

c)

Resource allocation

d)

All of the above

44.

In the Readers-Writers problem, which condition leads to starvation?

a)

Writer starvation

b)

Reader starvation

c)

Both a and b

d)

Neither a nor b

45.

In synchronization problems, busy waiting can be avoided by:

a)

Mutex locks

b)

Semaphores

c)

Monitors

d)

All of the above

46.

The main purpose of synchronization hardware is to:

a)

Prevent starvation

b)

Avoid race conditions

c)

Resolve deadlocks

d)

Optimize CPU scheduling

47.

The main purpose of synchronization hardware is to:

a)

Prevent starvation

b)

Avoid race conditions

c)

Resolve deadlocks

d)

Optimize CPU scheduling

48.

Which synchronization problem uses a bounded buffer?

a)

Producer-Consumer

b)

Dining Philosophers

c)

Readers-Writers

d)

Deadlock detection

49.

Which of the following is not a necessary condition for deadlock?

a)

Mutual exclusion

b)

Circular wait

c)

Preemption

d)

Hold and wait

50.

In a resource allocation graph, a deadlock exists if:

a)

There is no cycle

b)

There is a cycle, and each resource has one instance

c)

There is a cycle, and at least one resource has multiple instances

d)

None of the above

51.

Deadlock prevention ensures that:

a)

Deadlocks never occur

b)

Deadlocks occur occasionally

c)

Resources are used more efficiently

d)

System throughput increases

52.

In deadlock avoidance, the system must have:

a)

Resource allocation graph

b)

Safe state

c)

Deadlock detection algorithm

d)

Recovery mechanism

53.

The Banker's algorithm is used for:

a)

Deadlock prevention

b)

Deadlock avoidance

c)

Deadlock detection

d)

Process synchronization

54.

In the Banker's algorithm, a state is considered safe if:

a)

The system has sufficient resources

b)

There exists a sequence of processes that can execute to completion

c)

There are no deadlocks

d)

The resource allocation graph has no cycles

55.

Deadlock detection is necessary when:

a)

Deadlocks occur frequently

b)

Deadlock prevention is not possible

c)

Deadlock avoidance is not implemented

d)

Both b and c

56.

What is the main drawback of deadlock prevention techniques?

a)

High memory usage

b)

System underutilization

c)

Complex algorithms

d)

Starvation

57.

Which of the following strategies is used to recover from deadlock?

a)

Resource preemption

b)

Process termination

c)

Rollback

d)

All of the above

58.

In deadlock detection, the wait-for graph is used when:

a)

Each resource has a single instance

b)

Multiple instances of resources exist

c)

There are no resources

d)

All processes are independent

59.

Which algorithm involves releasing resources of terminated processes to break deadlocks?

a)

Deadlock prevention

b)

Deadlock avoidance

c)

Deadlock recovery

d)

Starvation handling

60.

The circular wait condition can be eliminated by:

a)

Assigning priorities to resources

b)

Preventing hold and wait

c)

Allowing preemption

d)

Ensuring safe state

61.

In deadlock prevention, hold and wait can be avoided by:

a)

Allocating all resources at once

b)

Allowing preemption

c)

Using a safe sequence

d)

Detecting cycles in the resource allocation graph

62.

Which of the following is a limitation of the Banker's algorithm?

a)

Requires prior knowledge of resource needs

b)

Cannot handle dynamic resource allocation

c)

Low system utilization

d)

All of the above

63.

What happens if a process requests a resource that results in an unsafe state?

a)

The request is denied

b)

The process is terminated

c)

The system enters deadlock

d)

Resources are reallocated

64.

What is the difference between a logical address and a physical address?

a)

Logical address is generated by the CPU; physical address is a reference in memory

b)

Logical address is a reference in memory; physical address is generated by the CPU

c)

Both are generated by the operating system

d)

Both are generated by the CPU

65.

The term "swapping" refers to:

a)

Moving processes between main memory and secondary storage

b)

Exchanging pages between processes

c)

Allocating contiguous memory blocks

d)

Replacing old data with new data in memory

66.

Which memory allocation method divides memory into fixed-size partitions?

a)

Paging

b)

Fixed partitioning

c)

Segmentation

d)

Dynamic partitioning

67.

In variable partitioning, the main drawback is:

a)

External fragmentation

b)

Internal fragmentation

c)

Inefficient CPU utilization

d)

Poor process scheduling

68.

The concept of "address space" includes:

a)

Logical address space only

b)

Physical address space only

c)

Both logical and physical address spaces

d)

Neither logical nor physical address spaces

69.

In paging, a page table maps:

a)

Logical addresses to physical addresses

b)

Pages to frames

c)

Virtual memory to physical memory

d)

Processes to memory blocks

70.

The size of a page is determined by:

a)

The operating system

b)

The hardware

c)

The application program

d)

Both a and b

71.

Which of the following is true for segmentation?

a)

Divides memory into fixed-sized blocks

b)

Divides memory into variable-sized blocks based on logical divisions

c)

Eliminates external fragmentation

d)

Maps pages directly to physical memory

72.

In a paging system, the frame size is:

a)

Equal to the page size

b)

Equal to the block size

c)

Variable depending on the process size

d)

Independent of page size

73.

The main disadvantage of paging is:

a)

Internal fragmentation

b)

External fragmentation

c)

Inefficient memory utilization

d)

Increased CPU overhead

74.

In segmentation, the logical address consists of:

a)

Page number and offset

b)

Segment number and offset

c)

Frame number and offset

d)

Base address and offset

75.

Which memory allocation method best supports dynamic memory allocation?

a)

Paging

b)

Fixed partitioning

c)

Segmentation

d)

Swapping

76.

The page table is stored in:

a)

CPU registers

b)

Main memory

c)

Cache memory

d)

Virtual memory

77.

Virtual memory is:

a)

A memory management technique that allows execution of processes larger than physical memory

b)

Used only in distributed systems

c)

Based on fixed partitioning

d)

Independent of paging and segmentation

78.

Demand paging involves:

a)

Loading all pages of a process into memory before execution

b)

Loading pages only when they are required

c)

Allocating contiguous memory for processes

d)

Eliminating internal fragmentation

79.

Which of the following is not a valid page replacement algorithm?

a)

FIFO

b)

LRU

c)

Optimal

d)

Shortest Job First

80.

Page faults occur when:

a)

The page is not in memory

b)

The page is in memory but inaccessible

c)

The page size is too small

d)

The page table is full

81.

What is thrashing?

a)

Excessive swapping of processes

b)

High CPU utilization

c)

Multiple page faults due to insufficient memory

d)

Allocating contiguous memory to a process

82.

The optimal page replacement algorithm:

a)

Replaces the page that will not be used for the longest period of time

b)

Replaces the least recently used page

c)

Replaces the first page loaded into memory

d)

Replaces the page most frequently used

83.

In the FIFO page replacement algorithm, which page is replaced?

a)

The page that has been in memory the longest

b)

The page that has been in memory the shortest

c)

The page with the least usage

d)

The page that causes the most page faults

84.

The Least Recently Used (LRU) algorithm replaces:

a)

The page that was used least recently

b)

The page with the highest frequency of use

c)

The page that will not be used in the future

d)

The first page loaded into memory

85.

Which of the following algorithms may suffer from Belady's anomaly?

a)

FIFO

b)

LRU

c)

Optimal

d)

Random

86.

What is the primary goal of page replacement algorithms?

a)

Reduce the number of page faults

b)

Minimize memory usage

c)

Maximize CPU utilization

d)

Improve process synchronization

87.

In demand paging, pages are loaded into memory:

a)

Before execution

b)

Only when needed

c)

During compilation

d)

At fixed intervals

88.

A page table entry does not contain:

a)

Frame number

b)

Process priority

c)

Present/absent bit

d)

Access control information

89.

Which page replacement algorithm uses a reference bit?

a)

FIFO

b)

Optimal

c)

Clock

d)

LRU

90.

In segmentation, external fragmentation occurs because:

a)

Memory is divided into variable-sized segments

b)

Memory is divided into fixed-sized pages

c)

Pages are swapped frequently

d)

Processes share the same memory

91.

A TLB (Translation Lookaside Buffer) is used to:

a)

Speed up address translation

b)

Allocate memory dynamically

c)

Perform page replacement

d)

Reduce external fragmentation

92.

The "working set" model is used to:

a)

Predict future page references

b)

Measure CPU utilization

c)

Detect deadlocks

d)

Optimize process scheduling

93.

Page replacement policies aim to:

a)

Minimize CPU overhead

b)

Minimize page faults

c)

Eliminate external fragmentation

d)

Improve disk access speed

94.

Which of the following is not an attribute of a file?

a)

File name

b)

File size

c)

File access control

d)

File disk allocation

95.

Which of the following file operations does not involve modifying the contents of the file?

a)

Write

b)

Delete

c)

Read

d)

Append

96.

Which file type is generally used for storing executable programs?

a)

Data files

b)

Directory files

c)

Executable files

d)

Configuration files

97.

Which access method is used for sequential reading of data in a file?

a)

Direct access

b)

Indexed access

c)

Sequential access

d)

Random access

98.

What is the purpose of file protection mechanisms?

a)

To ensure integrity and restrict unauthorized access

b)

To improve file access time

c)

To allocate memory to files

d)

To compress file content

99.

Which of the following is not a valid file type in file systems?

a)

Regular files

b)

Directory files

c)

Socket files

d)

Reserved files

100.

The 'access time' of a file refers to:

a)

The time it takes to write data to the file

b)

The time it takes to read data from the file

c)

The time required to find the file

d)

The total time for all operations on the file

101.

Which of the following is the main difference between a file and a directory?

a)

A file stores data, while a directory stores other files and directories

b)

A file cannot be accessed sequentially, while a directory can

c)

A file has a fixed size, while a directory has a variable size

d)

A file can store only text, while a directory can store binary data

102.

Which data structure is most commonly used for implementing a file directory?

a)

Linked list

b)

Hash table

c)

Binary tree

d)

Inverted list

103.

Which file allocation method minimizes external fragmentation?

a)

Contiguous allocation

b)

Linked allocation

c)

Indexed allocation

d)

File block allocation

104.

In which allocation method does the file allocation table (FAT) play a central role?

a)

Contiguous allocation

b)

Linked allocation

c)

Indexed allocation

d)

Hybrid allocation

105.

Which of the following is an advantage of indexed allocation over contiguous allocation?

a)

Faster file access

b)

Lower external fragmentation

c)

Easier to implement

d)

Lower internal fragmentation

106.

Which of the following directory implementation methods supports efficient searching?

a)

Linear list

b)

Hash table

c)

Binary search tree

d)

Linked list

107.

In a directory structure, what is the function of a root directory?

a)

It stores all files in the system

b)

It points to the file system metadata

c)

It acts as the starting point for directory traversal

d)

It stores the file allocation table

108.

Which of the following file allocation methods suffers the most from external fragmentation?

a)

Contiguous allocation

b)

Linked allocation

c)

Indexed allocation

d)

Hybrid allocation

109.

What is the main disadvantage of using contiguous file allocation?

a)

Internal fragmentation

b)

High overhead for file operations

c)

External fragmentation

d)

Complex directory structure

110.

Which of the following is not a type of disk storage device?

a)

Magnetic disks

b)

Solid-state disks

c)

Optical disks

d)

Dynamic RAM

111.

Which disk scheduling algorithm minimizes seek time in disk access operations?

a)

First Come First Serve (FCFS)

b)

Shortest Seek Time First (SSTF)

c)

Elevator algorithm (LOOK)

d)

Circular algorithm

112.

In disk scheduling, the SCAN algorithm is also known as the:

a)

Shortest Seek Time First

b)

LOOK algorithm

c)

Elevator algorithm

d)

Circular algorithm

113.

Which of the following is a characteristic of solid-state disks (SSDs) over magnetic disks?

a)

Higher access time

b)

Higher durability

c)

Larger storage capacity

d)

Slower read/write speeds

114.

Which of the following is true for magnetic disks?

a)

Magnetic disks provide faster data access than SSDs

b)

Magnetic disks have no moving parts

c)

Magnetic disks are more durable than SSDs

d)

Magnetic disks use magnetic heads to read/write data

115.

Which of the following disk scheduling algorithms can be described as moving the disk arm toward the end of the disk and then reversing direction when the end is reached?

a)

SCAN

b)

LOOK

c)

C-SCAN

d)

FCFS

116.

The primary advantage of using disk formatting is:

a)

To reduce disk fragmentation

b)

To initialize the disk and prepare it for use

c)

To optimize the disk read/write speeds

d)

To manage the disk sectors efficiently

117.

Which of the following is an advantage of solid-state disks (SSDs) over magnetic disks?

a)

Higher storage capacity

b)

No mechanical parts

c)

Slower read/write speeds

d)

More prone to wear and tear

118.

In the disk structure, the tracks are divided into smaller units known as:

a)

Sectors

b)

Blocks

c)

Clusters

d)

Pages

119.

Which of the following is a method for managing data in a magnetic disk?

a)

Disk partitioning

b)

Data mirroring

c)

Disk defragmentation

d)

Disk formatting

120.

Which of the following techniques is used to allocate data evenly across multiple disks?

a)

Disk striping

b)

Disk mirroring

c)

Disk RAID

d)

Disk formatting

121.

The term "seek time" refers to:

a)

The time it takes to rotate the disk

b)

The time taken to access a specific sector of the disk

c)

The time to format the disk

d)

The time taken to read the data

122.

In a disk drive, the term "cylinder" refers to:

a)

A group of sectors on a single track

b)

A set of tracks that lie at the same position on different platters

c)

A group of platters stacked together

d)

The number of tracks on a single platter

123.

Which of the following is the most widely used disk scheduling algorithm in modern operating systems?

a)

FCFS

b)

SSTF

c)

SCAN

d)

C-SCAN