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Principles of Flight Quiz

Total questions: 225

Worksheet time: 2hrs 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Density:

a)

reduces as altitude increases

b)

is unaffected by temperature change

c)

increases with altitude increase

d)

reduces with temperature reduction

2.

The presence of water vapor:

a)

in air will increase its density

b)

in the atmosphere will increase the power output of a piston engine

c)

in the atmosphere will increase the amount of lift generated by an aircraft for a given true airspeed

d)

in air will reduce its density

3.

Atmospheric pressure:

a)

acts only vertically downwards

b)

is measured in Pascals per square inch

c)

acts in all directions

d)

increases with altitude

4.

The air pressure that acts on anything immersed in it:

a)

is also known as Dynamic Pressure

b)

is also known as Static Pressure

c)

is greater at altitude than at sea level

d)

is also known as Total Pressure

5.

What properties of the Earth's atmosphere most influence the performance of aircraft?

a)

its carbon dioxide content, temperature, pressure and humidity

b)

Its oxygen content, pressure, and water vapor content

c)

Its water vapor content, temperature, pressure and density

d)

Its nitrogen content, oxygen content, temperature and pressure

6.

A piston engine aircraft flies in that layer of the atmosphere called:

a)

The Stratosphere

b)

The Troposphere

c)

The Mesosphere

d)

The Tropopause

7.

The respective percentages of the four most abundant gases that make up the atmosphere are?

a)

Nitrogen 78% Oxygen 21% Argon 0.95% Carbon Dioxide 0.05%

b)

Oxygen 78% Nitrogen 21% Argon 0.95% Carbon Dioxide 0.05%

c)

Nitrogen 78% Oxygen 21% Argon 0.95% Carbon Monoxide 0.05%

d)

Oxygen 78% Nitrogen 21% Argon 0.95% Carbon Monoxide 0.05%

8.

When considering the changes in density of the air with altitude, which of the following four options is correct?

a)

The temperature increase with increasing altitude causes density to increase

b)

The reduction in pressure with increasing altitude causes density to reduce

c)

The temperature reduction with increasing altitude causes density to increase

d)

The increase in pressure with increasing altitude causes density to reduce

9.

Assuming that the pressure at sea level is ISA, but the temperature is 10°C higher than ISA, the density will be:

a)

as per ISA

b)

greater than ISA

c)

less than ISA

d)

unaffected

10.

Which of the following options contains the main constituent gases of the Earth's atmosphere?

a)

Hydrogen, Carbon Dioxide and Helium

b)

Nitrogen, Oxygen and Water Vapor

c)

Nitrogen, Argon and Carbon Dioxide

d)

Helium, Nitrogen and Carbon Monoxide

11.

Complete the following sentence to give the most correct statement. At constant air temperature and volume, if the pressure of the air increases:

a)

its density will decrease

b)

its density will be unaffected because the volume remains constant

c)

its density will be unaffected because the temperature remains constant

d)

its density will increase

12.

What is the definition of Relative Humidity?

a)

The amount of water vapor present in a mass of air, at any temperature, expressed as a percentage of the maximum amount of water vapor that the air could support at the ISA sea-level temperature

b)

The amount of water vapor present in a mass of air relative to the density of air

c)

The amount of water vapor present in a mass of air expressed as a percentage of the maximum amount of water vapor that the air can support at the same temperature

d)

The amount of water vapor present in a given volume of air expressed as a percentage of the total mass of the air

13.

What will be the effect on air density of a reduction in air pressure while humidity and temperature remain constant?

a)

The air density will decrease

b)

The air density will increase

c)

The air density will remain unchanged

d)

The density of the air is independent of pressure at constant volume

14.

What is the equivalent temperature in Celsius of 77° Fahrenheit?

a)

45° Celsius

b)

25° Celsius

c)

60° Celsius

d)

172° Celsius

15.

If, on a given day, the actual outside air temperature at 3 000 feet is 12°C, what is the approximate difference between the actual and ISA temperature?

a)

1°C

b)

11°C

c)

7°C

d)

3°C

16.

Dynamic pressure equals:

a)

total pressure plus static pressure

b)

static pressure minus total pressure

c)

total pressure divided by static pressure

d)

total pressure minus static pressure

17.

Relative airflow is __________ and __________ the movement of the aircraft.

a)

perpendicular to opposite to

b)

parallel to opposite to

c)

perpendicular to in the same direction as

d)

parallel to in the same direction as

18.

In straight and level flight, the free stream airflow pressure compared to the pressure of the air flowing under the forward section of a wing is:

a)

Equal

b)

Higher

c)

Lower

d)

of equal pressure but travelling faster

19.

The velocity of air flowing over the upper surface of the wing of typical training light-aircraft increases when compared to the velocity of the free airflow. Which of the options below best describes the pressure considerations of the air flowing over the wing:

a)

its dynamic pressure will decrease and its static pressure increase

b)

its dynamic pressure will remain constant and its static pressure will decrease

c)

its dynamic pressure will increase and its static pressure decrease

d)

its dynamic pressure will decrease and its static pressure remain constant

20.

The air flow over the wing's upper surface in straight and level flight, when compared with the airflow that is unaffected by the wing, will have:

a)

a higher velocity

b)

a higher density

c)

a reduced velocity

d)

the same velocity

21.

Which of the four answer options most correctly completes the sentence? Increasing speed also increases lift because

a)

lift is directly proportional to velocity

b)

lift is directly proportional to the square of the airspeed

c)

the increased velocity of the relative wind overcomes the increased drag

d)

increasing speed decreases drag

22.

1-Air has mass 2- Air is not compressible 3- Air is able to flow or change its shape when subject to even small pressures 4- The viscosity of air is very high 5 -Moving air has kinetic energy The correct combination of true statements, from the above options, is:

a)

1,2, 3 and 5

b)

2, 3 and 4

c)

1 and 4

d)

1,3, and 5

23.

A moving mass of air possesses kinetic energy. An object placed in the path of such a moving mass of air will be subject to:

a)

static pressure and dynamic pressure

b)

static pressure

c)

dynamic pressure

d)

dynamic pressure minus static pressure

24.

The Principle of Continuity states that, in a Stream tube of decreasing cross-sectional area, the speed of a subsonic and incompressible airflow will:

a)

remain the same

b)

decrease

c)

increase

d)

always become sonic

25.

The angle of attack of an aerofoil is defined as:

a)

the angle between the chord line of the aerofoil and the horizon

b)

the angle between the chord line of the aerofoil and the relative airflow

c)

the angle between the chord line of the aerofoil and the aircraft's longitudinal axis

d)

the angle between the mean camber line of the aerofoil and the relative airflow

26.

An aerofoil section is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the:

a)

negative air pressure below and a vacuum above the surface

b)

higher air pressure below the surface and lower air pressure above the surface

c)

vacuum below the surface and greater air pressure above the surface

d)

higher air pressure at the leading edge than at the trailing edge

27.

Which of the sentences below makes the most correct statement about lift?

a)

Lift acts perpendicularly to the wing chord line

b)

Lift acts parallel to the wing chord line

c)

Lift acts perpendicularly to the wing mean camber line

d)

Lift acts perpendicularly to the relative airflow

28.

On aerofoil section, the force of lift acts perpendicular to and the force of drag acts parallel to the:

a)

relative airflow

b)

longitudinal axis

c)

chord line

d)

aerofoil section upper surface

29.

A positively cambered aerofoil starts to produce lift at an angle of attack of approximately:

a)

4 to 6 degrees

b)

0 degrees

c)

minus 4 degrees

d)

16 degrees

30.

If the Angle of Attack and other factors remain constant, and the airspeed is doubled, lift will be:

a)

Doubled

b)

one quarter of what it was

c)

the same

d)

quadrupled

31.

Which of the answer options most correctly completes the sentence? The amount of lift a wing produces is directly proportional to:

a)

the dynamic pressure minus the static pressure

b)

the square root of the velocity of the air flowing over it

c)

the air density

d)

the air temperature

32.

The centre of pressure is:

a)

the force opposing gravity

b)

the point through which the aircraft weight acts

c)

the point through which total lift acts

d)

the central point of the engine oil system

33.

-The total lift force is considered to act through which location in an aircraft's wing?

a)

The wing's upper surface

b)

Always forward of the Centre of Gravity (C of G)

c)

The wing's C of G

d)

The Centre of Pressure

34.

Static pressure acts:

a)

parallel to airflow

b)

parallel to dynamic pressure

c)

in all directions

d)

downwards

35.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

Lift acts perpendicular to the horizontal and drag parallel in a rearwards direction

b)

Drag acts parallel to the chord and opposite to the direction of motion of the aircraft and lift acts perpendicular to the chord

c)

Lift acts at right angles to the top surface of the wing and drag acts at right angles to lift

d)

Drag acts parallel to the relative airflow, opposing the motion of the aircraft, and Lift acts perpendicularly to the relative airflow

36.

In which of the conditions described below will the Coefficient of Lift of a wing be at its maximum?

a)

At the aircraft's maximum rate of climb speed

b)

At or just before the stall

c)

In level flight at an angle of attack of between 4° and 6°

d)

At the aircraft's maximum angle of climb speed

37.

The formula for lift is:

a)

L = W

b)

L = 1/2 pV (CL) 2 S

c)

L = CL 1/2 pV 2 S

d)

L = CL 1/2 p 2 V S

38.

Which of the following statements best accounts for how a lift force can be generated by a wing of aerofoil cross section whose upper surface is positively cambered and whose undersurface is uncambered?

a)

The air flowing over the upper surface has a longer distance to travel than the air flowing under the wing

b)

An upwards-acting reaction force is generated by the wing as it turns the airflow around it in a downwards direction

c)

There is an upwards acting reaction to the airflow which bounces off the under surface of the wing as the airflow strikes the undersurface at a positive angle of attack

d)

A wing of the aerofoil section described will naturally produce positive lift at any angle of attack

39.

Which of the following statements best accounts for how the airflow around a wing of standard aerofoil cross section contributes to the lift force produced by the wing?

a)

A wing of standard aerofoil cross-section acts like an inverted venturi tube

b)

Because the total energy in the air passing above the wing is greater than the total energy in the air flowing beneath the wing

c)

Lift is produced by the wing 'skipping' over the airflow in the same way as a flat stone might skip over water

d)

The downwards turning of the airflow by the wing produces a rate of change of momentum in the airflow, the reaction to which is a force acting on the wing in an upwards direction

40.

Total pressure sensed by a Pitot Tube comprises:

a)

pitot pressure plus dynamic pressure

b)

pitot pressure minus dynamic pressure

c)

static pressure plus dynamic pressure

d)

dynamic pressure minus static pressure

41.

Two identical aircraft of the same weight fly at two different altitudes (in straight and level flight and the same angle of attack). Assuming that other factors remain constant, that the air is incompressible, and that ISA conditions prevail, how do the true air speeds of the two aircraft compare?

a)

They are the same

b)

The True Air Speed (TAS) of the higher aircraft will be the greater

c)

The TAS of the lower aircraft will be the greater

d)

Altitude has no effect on the True Air Speed required to support a given aircraft weight at constant angle of attack

42.

In accordance with Bernoulli's Theorem, where PT = Total Pressure, PS = Static pressure and q = Dynamic pressure:

a)

PT + PS = Q

b)

PT = PS – Q

c)

PT - PS = Q

d)

PS + PT = Q

43.

When (normally at high angles of attack) the Boundary Layer separates from the surface of an aerofoil (at the Separation Point), airflow characteristics aft of the Separation Point can best be described as:

a)

unpredictable and haphazard, leading to an abrupt decrease in lift force

b)

smooth and laminar, leading to an increase in lift

c)

a turbulent Boundary Layer, leading to a slight reduction in lift

d)

smooth and laminar, creating a favorable Pressure Gradient

44.

The symbol for dynamic pressure is:

a)

Q

b)

P

c)

R

d)

D

45.

As indicated Air Speed (IAS) is reduced, in order to maintain altitude, the pilot must:

a)

increase the angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force

b)

decrease the angle of attack to reduce the drag

c)

deploy the speed brakes to increase drag

d)

reduce the thrust

46.

Dynamic Pressure may be expressed by the formula:

a)

Q = 1/2 p V 2

b)

Q = p V 2

c)

Q = p V

d)

Q = 2 p V

47.

The smooth flow of air, where each molecule follows the path of the preceding molecule, is a definition of:

a)

Wind

b)

turbulent flow

c)

free-stream flow

d)

laminar flow

48.

If the cross sectional area of an airflow is mechanically reduced:

a)

the mass flow remains constant and the static pressure increases

b)

the velocity of the airflow remains constant and the mass flow increases

c)

the mass flow remains constant and the velocity of the airflow increases

d)

the velocity of the airflow remains constant and the kinetic energy increases

49.

Dynamic pressure is:

a)

the pressure change caused by heating when a moving airflow is brought completely to rest

b)

the pressure due to the mass of air pressing down on the air beneath

c)

the amount by which the pressure rises at a point where a moving airflow is brought completely to rest

d)

the total pressure at a point where a moving airflow is brought completely to rest

50.

The dynamic pressure exerted by the air on an aircraft's frontal surface is equal to:

a)

air density times speed squared

b)

half the air density times the true airspeed squared

c)

half the true airspeed times the air density squared

d)

half the air density times the indicated airspeed squared

51.

The term angle of attack is defined as:

a)

the angle between the relative airflow and the horizontal axis

b)

the angle between the wing chord line and the relative airflow

c)

the angle that determines the magnitude of the lift force

d)

the angle between the wing and tailplane incidence

52.

An aircraft carries out a given journey, on two separate days. On both days, the pilot flies at an indicated airspeed of 120 knots. On the first day, the air density is greater than on the subsequent day. How will the forces of Lift and Drag acting on the aircraft compare on the two days?

a)

On the first day both Lift and Drag will be less than on the subsequent day

b)

On the first day the Lift will be greater and Drag will be less than on the subsequent day

c)

On the first day the Lift will be less and Drag will be greater than on the subsequent day

d)

The forces of Lift and Drag acting on the aircraft will remain unchanged

53.

As airspeed increases, induced drag:

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

is dependent on the weight of the aircraft

d)

remains unchanged

54.

As airspeed increases induced drag______, parasite drag __ and total drag ____

a)

increases increases increases

b)

increases decreases increases then decreases

c)

decreases decreases decreases

d)

decreases increases decreases then increases

55.

By changing the Angle of Attack of a wing, the pilot can control the aeroplane's:

a)

lift and airspeed, but not drag

b)

lift, gross weight and drag

c)

lift, airspeed and drag

d)

lift and drag, but not airspeed

56.

That portion of the aircraft's total drag created by the production of lift is called;

a)

parasite drag, which is greatly affected by changes in airspeed

b)

induced drag, which is not affected by changes in airspeed

c)

induced drag, which is greatly affected by changes in airspeed

d)

parasite drag, which is inversely proportional to the square of the airspeed

57.

If the Indicated Air Speed of an aircraft is increased from 50 kt to 100 kt, parasite drag will be:

a)

four times greater

b)

six times greater

c)

two times greater

d)

one quarter as much

58.

Resistance, or skin friction, due to the viscosity of the air as it passes along the surface of a wing, is a type of:

a)

induced drag

b)

form drag

c)

parasite drag

d)

interference drag

59.

How do Lift and Parasite Drag vary with airspeed?

a)

lift and Parasite Drag both decrease as the square of the airspeed

b)

lift decreases as the square of the airspeed while Parasite Drag increases as the square of the airspeed

c)

lift increases as the square of the airspeed while Parasite Drag decreases as the square of the airspeed

d)

lift and Parasite Drag both increase as the square of the airspeed

60.

Parasite drag varies with:

a)

the square of the airspeed

b)

CL max

c)

the airspeed

d)

the weight of the aircraft, only

61.

Choose one of the four options below to make an accurate statement. As airspeed increases:

a)

induced drag increases

b)

induced drag is unaffected

c)

form drag decreases

d)

induced drag decreases

62.

Which of the following is the cause of wing tip vortices?

a)

air spilling from the top surface to the bottom surface at the wing tip

b)

air spilling from the bottom surface to the top surface at the wing tip

c)

the increased form drag at the wing tip

d)

the increased parasite drag at the wing tip

63.

Wing tip vortices are caused by unequal pressure distribution on the wing which results in airflow from:

a)

bottom to top round the trailing edge

b)

top to bottom round the trailing edge

c)

bottom to top round the wingtip

d)

top to bottom round the wingtip

64.

Which of the following is the correct formula for drag?

a)

1/2 pV 2 CL S

b)

1/2 prV(CD) 2 S

c)

1/2 p 2 V CD S

d)

CD 1/2.pV 2 S

65.

Choose the option below which best describes aircraft drag considerations as True Air Speed increases:

a)

parasite drag decreases and induced drag increases

b)

parasite drag increases and induced drag increases

c)

parasite drag decreases and induced drag decreases

d)

parasite drag increases and induced drag decreases

66.

In straight and level flight which of the following is correct? (L/D = Lift/Drag ratio)

a)

L/D is maximum at the speed for minimum total drag

b)

L/D decreases with increasing lift

c)

L/D is maximum when lift equals weight

d)

L/D is maximum when lift equals zero

67.

If, in level flight, the airspeed decreases below that for maximum Lift / Drag. the effect will be that:

a)

drag decreases because of lower induced drag

b)

drag increases because of increased induced drag

c)

drag increases because of increased parasite drag

d)

drag decreases because of lower parasite drag

68.

How does an aircraft's all-up weight affect its best power-off glide angle, in still air?

a)

The best glide angle will be shallower

b)

The best glide angle will be steeper

c)

The best glide angle will not be affected

d)

It is advisable not to carry out a power-off glide at maximum all-up weight

69.

An aircraft's glide angle is solely a function of:

a)

Its lift/drag ratio

b)

Its all-up weight

c)

The aircraft's state of trim.

d)

The position of the C of G

70.

Which of the following light aircraft performance criteria are achieved at L/D MAX

a)

Endurance will be at a maximum

b)

Angle of climb will be at a maximum

c)

Service ceiling will be highest

d)

Best rate of climb and maximum cruising range will be achieved

71.

Choose the correct statement option below:

a)

Weight and mass are conceptually the same.

b)

Weight and mass are both forces.

c)

Weight and mass are two different concepts; weight is a force and mass is a quantity of matter.

d)

The weight and mass of a given body will be equal only in deep space.

72.

Choose the correct statement option below.

a)

The scientific unit of mass is the Newton.

b)

The scientific unit of force is the kilogram.

c)

The scientific unit of force is the meter per second 2

d)

The scientific unit of mass is the kilogram.

73.

The weight of an aircraft is:

a)

The force acting on the aircraft's mass and directed towards the center of the Earth.

b)

The same as the aircraft's mass.

c)

The mass of the aircraft when the aircraft is assumed to have zero weight.

d)

The force acting on the aircraft to accelerate it in the horizontal plane.

74.

Choose the correct statement option below.

a)

A body always possesses the same mass and weight whatever the strength of the gravitational field.

b)

The mass of a body is dependent on the strength of the gravitational field in which the body is situated.

c)

A body always possesses the same mass but in zero gravity will have no weight.

d)

The weight of a body is independent of the strength of the gravitational field in which the body is situated.

75.

Choose the correct equation below.

a)

weight (Newtons) = mass (kg) x linear acceleration (m/s 2)

b)

weight (Newtons) = mass(kg) x acceleration due to gravity (m/s 2)

c)

weight (kg) = force (Newtons) x acceleration (m/s 2)

d)

weight (Newtons) = mass (kg)

76.

On Earth:

a)

weight (Newtons) = mass(kg) x linear acceleration (m/s 2)

b)

weight (Newtons) = mass (kg) * 32 m/s 2

c)

weight (Newtons) = mass (kg) x 9.81 m/s 2

d)

weight (Newtons) = mass (kg) * m/s 2

77.

On the moon:

a)

the weight of a body will be approximately 1/6 of its weight on the Earth.

b)

the weight of a body will be approximately 6 times its weight on the Earth.

c)

the weight of a body will be the same as its weight on the Earth.

d)

the mass of a body will be approximately 1/6 of its mass on the Earth.

78.

When considering the linear acceleration of a body under the action of a given force:

a)

It is the body's weight that will determine the magnitude of the acceleration.

b)

Neither the body's mass nor its weight affects the magnitude of the acceleration.

c)

It is the body's mass that will determine the magnitude of the acceleration,

d)

A force cannot cause a linear acceleration

79.

When considering lifting a body in a gravitational field:

a)

It is the body's mass which is crucial to the consideration.

b)

Neither a body's mass nor its weight affects the consideration.

c)

A body of finite weight cannot be lifted in a gravitational field

d)

It is the body's weight which is crucial to the consideration.

80.

Despite the difference in concepts between weight and mass, weight may be expressed in kilograms on Earth because:

a)

In a constant gravitational field mass is always equal to weight.

b)

Given that the acceleration due to gravity is constant at 9.81 m/s 2, mass is directly proportional to weight, and, therefore, weighing devices may be calibrated to read mass in kilograms.

c)

In a constant gravitational field there is no difference between mass and weight.

d)

In a constant gravitational field mass and weight have no meaning

81.

A propeller blade is twisted along its length in order to:

a)

give a progressively increasing blade angle from root to tip

b)

give a progressively increasing angle of attack from root to tip when the propeller is rotating

c)

compensate for the decreasing linear speed of the blade from root to tip

d)

maintain the most efficient angle of attack along the whole length of the propeller blade when the propeller is rotating

82.

Blade angle ______ from the hub to the tip of a propeller blade in order to maintain an optimal _______ from hub to tip during propeller rotation.

a)

Increases angle of attack

b)

decreases geometric pitch

c)

increases effective pitch

d)

decreases angle of attack

83.

As an aircraft with a variable-pitch, constant-speed propeller accelerator, along the runway:

a)

the angle of attack will decrease and the engine RPM remain constant

b)

the blade pitch angle increases, maintaining a constant angle ol attack and constant RPM

c)

the angle of attack will remain constant and the engine RPM will increase

d)

the linear velocity of the propeller tip will gradually decrease

84.

In a dive, with the throttle setting constant, the engine RPM of an aircraft fitted with a fixed-pitch propeller will:

a)

decrease as the airspeed increases

b)

remain constant whatever the airspeed

c)

increase if the airspeed is allowed to increase

d)

decrease as long as the throttle setting is not changed

85.

In a single-engine, propeller-driven aircraft, the torque reaction of a clockwise rotating propeller (as seen from the pilot's seat) will tend to cause:

a)

left roll and right yaw during take off

b)

left roll and left yaw during take off

c)

right roll and right yaw during take off

d)

left yaw and right roll during take off

86.

Which of the following combinations will decrease the angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller blade?

a)

Increased TAS and increased RPM

b)

Increased TAS and decreased RPM

c)

Decreased TAS and increased RPM

d)

Decreased TAS and decreased RPM

87.

Which of the following combinations will increase the angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller blade?

a)

increased TAS and increased RPM

b)

increased TAS and decreased RPM

c)

Decreased TAS and increased RPM

d)

Decreased TAS and decreased RPM

88.

The advantage of a constant speed propeller over a fixed pitch propeller is that:

a)

a greater maximum thrust is available

b)

a higher maximum efficiency is attained

c)

more blade surface area is made available

d)

optimal efficiency is achieved over a wide speed range

89.

The angle of attack of a fixed, coarse-pitch propeller on a touring light aircraft:

a)

will be lower during the take-off run than in flight

b)

will be optimal in all flight conditions

c)

will be most efficient at the cruising speeds published in the pilot's operating manual

d)

will decrease with decreasing airspeed at constant engine RPM

90.

A propeller blade is twisted from root to tip:

a)

to provide maximum thrust at the root

b)

to provide maximum thrust at the tip

c)

so that propeller efficiency remains high, at any engine RPM

d)

so that thrust remains approximately constant along the whole length of the propeller blade, at any engine RPM

91.

The angle of attack of a fixed-pitch propeller designed for cruising flight is:

a)

optimal for steady cruising flight only

b)

increases with an increase in TAS

c)

decreases with an increase in RPM

d)

will always be positive in a power off glide

92.

Propeller-blade angle of attack is the angle between the blade chord line and the:

a)

plane of rotation of the propeller

b)

aeroplane's gradient of climb

c)

the airflow relative to the propeller

d)

helix angle

93.

What is the purpose of increasing the number of propeller blades?

a)

To reduce noise

b)

To improve power absorption

c)

To increase the efficiency of the variable pitch mechanism

d)

To enable a longer undercarriage to be fitted

94.

What would be the gyroscopic effect of a clockwise rotating propeller (viewed from the pilot's seat) on a single-engine, tail-wheel aircraft as it raises its tail during the takeoff run?

a)

The aircraft would yaw to the right

b)

The aircraft would yaw to the left

c)

The aircraft would roll to the right

d)

The aircraft would roll to the left

95.

During the take-off roll, what effect does torque have on an aircraft with an anti-clockwise rotating propeller, as seen from the pilot's seat?

a)

Weight on left wheel decreased, weight on right wheel increased

b)

Weight on left wheel increased, weight on right wheel remain constant

c)

Weight on left wheel increased, weight on right wheel decreased

d)

Weight on right wheel increased, weight on left wheel remain constant

96.

Which of the following definitions of propeller parameters is correct?

a)

Blade Angle is the angle between chord line and the relative airflow

b)

Critical tip speed is the propeller speed at which there is a risk of the flow separating at some part of the propeller

c)

Blade angle of attack is the angle between the blade chord line and propeller's plane of rotation

d)

Geometric pitch is the theoretical distance that the propeller travels forward in one rotation

97.

Which of the following gives the most correct explanation of why a propeller blade angle decreases from root to tip?

a)

To compensate for the change in blade cross section from root in tip

b)

To provide increased thrust at the root

c)

To provide increased thrust at the tip

d)

To compensate for the increase in rotational velocity from root to tip.

98.

On an aircraft fitted with a fixed pitch propeller, why does a change in airspeed always cause a corresponding change in engine RPM, even though the pilot may not move the throttle lever?

a)

Because a change in airspeed causes a change in inlet manifold pressure which affects engine power output

b)

Because an increase in airspeed causes a decrease in propeller angle of attack , thus reducing propeller torque, while a decrease in airspeed has the opposite effect

c)

Because of the asymmetric blade effect

d)

Because of the slipstream effect

99.

Choose the most correct answer from the options below. As a coarse blade pitch is efficient at cruising speeds, why should a pilot ever choose to select fine pitch?

a)

In order to minimize fuel consumption

b)

Because of noise limitations on climbing away from the airfield over built up areas

c)

in order to increase engine RPM to the most fuel efficient level

d)

In order to optimize the aircraft's performance on take-off

100.

Which of the answers below is the most correct? What performance advantages does an aircraft possess if it is fitted with a fine pitch propeller?

a)

It will produce maximum thrust at higher cruising speeds

b)

Its engine will be less likely to overheat in a climb, at high RPM and relatively low forward speed

c)

The propeller will give optimal thrust for the take-off and initial climb

d)

it will be able to fly at high speeds without exceeding the maximum permissible engine RPM

101.

What are the advantages of a constant-speed propeller?

a)

Cruise performance will be improved

b)

Take off performance will be improved

c)

The engine can never over-speed whatever the circumstances

d)

It provides an efficient blade angle of attack over a wide range of airspeeds

102.

What type of aircraft would most-likely be fitted with a fine, fixed pitch propeller?

a)

A touring aircraft

b)

A glider tug

c)

A high-performance, military, turbo-prop training aircraft

d)

A turbo-prop passenger aircraft

103.

If the throttle is moved to adjust the power in level flight, the resulting change in propeller slipstream will primarily affect:

a)

the aircraft's trim in the pitching and yawing planes

b)

the aircraft's trim in the rolling plane

c)

the longitudinal stability

d)

the lateral stability

104.

Which of the four options below most accurately describes the relationship between the forces acting on an aircraft in flight for those forces to be in equilibrium?

a)

Lift equals drag, and thrust equals weight

b)

Lift equals weight, and thrust equals drag

c)

Lift equals thrust plus drag

d)

Lift equals thrust, and weight equals drag

105.

An aircraft has a nose down pitching moment due to the lift / weight couple and nose up pitching moment due to the thrust / drag couple. When power is increased:

a)

it will pitch nose up

b)

it will pitch nose down

c)

the couples both increase in magnitude but remain balanced

d)

the couples both decrease in magnitude but remain balanced

106.

In straight and level powered flight the following principal forces act on an aircraft:

a)

thrust, lift, weight

b)

thrust, lift, drag, weight

c)

thrust, lift, drag

d)

lift, drag, weight

107.

Considering the forces acting upon an aeroplane, at constant airspeed, which statement is correct?

a)

Weight always acts vertically downwards towards the center of the Earth

b)

Lift acts perpendicular to the chord line and must always be greater than weight

c)

Thrust acts parallel to the relative airflow and is always greater than drag

d)

The lift force generated by the wings always acts in the opposite direction to the aircraft's weight

108.

The tailplane or horizontal stabilizer usually provides a downwards load in level flight because:

a)

the main-plane lift is always positive

b)

the lift/weight and thrust/drag couples combine to give a nose down pitch

c)

the lift produced is greater than required at high speed

d)

this configuration gives less interference

109.

Scientifically speaking, an aircraft's mass is a measure of:

a)

its weight

b)

how big it is

c)

how much matter it contains

d)

its volume

110.

An aircraft rotates about:

a)

its wings

b)

its center of gravity

c)

its main undercarriage

d)

its rudder

111.

In a steady gliding descent, assuming zero thrust from the propeller, the three forces acting on the aeroplane are weight, lift and drag. These three forces are in equilibrium, but:

a)

weight and lift are the same

b)

weight is greater than lift

c)

weight is less than lift

d)

weight and drag are the same

112.

If an aircraft increases speed while maintaining a constant angle of attack with its wings:

a)

the lift generated by its wings will remain constant but total drag will increase

b)

the lift generated by its wings will decrease and total drag will increase

c)

the lift generated by its wings will increase but total drag will remain constant

d)

both the lift generated by its wings and total drag will increase

113.

Complete the following sentence to make the most correct statement.

In a steady, un-accelerated climb, the four forces acting on the aeroplane (weight, lift, thrust and drag) are in equilibrium, but:

a)

lift is greater than weight

b)

lift is equal to weight

c)

thrust is equal to aerodynamic drag

d)

lift is less than weight

114.

Most light aircraft are designed so that, the center of pressure is behind the center of gravity. This means that to maintain straight and level flight:

a)

the tailplane must produce a downwards force

b)

tailplane must produce an upwards force

c)

the tailplane does not need to provide an upwards or a downwards force; it is only used to maneuver the aircraft

d)

the tailplane does not need to produce an upwards or downwards force, the thrust/drag couple balances the forces

115.

If the turn coordinator is indicating Rate 1, the aircraft is changing heading at:

a)

3° per second

b)

6°per second

c)

360° per minute

d)

90° per minute

116.

An aircraft performs a steady level turn at 30° Angle of Bank at 80 knots IAS if the level turn is maintained at the same IAS, but the Angle of Bank is increased to 45°, what will be the effect on the radius and rate of the turn?

a)

The radius and rate of the turn will be increased

b)

The radius of the turn will remain unchanged

c)

The radius of the turn will be smaller, and the rate of the turn will increase.

d)

For a given radius of turn, the aircraft can have only one airspeed

117.

An aircraft's rate of turn is dependent on:

a)

the angle of bank and power available

b)

the angle of bank and thrust available

c)

The true airspeed and angle of bank

d)

the indicated airspeed and the angle of attack

118.

The leading-edge slot allows flight at higher angles of attack:

a)

providing an extra lifting surface and hence increase the lift available

b)

changing the shape and hence the lift characteristics of the wing

c)

re-energizing the airflow over the top of the wing, and delaying separation of the boundary layer

d)

decreasing lift and hence induced drag

119.

The maximum gliding distance from 6000 feet, in still air, for an aircraft in clean configuration, with a lift/drag ratio of 8:1, is approximately 8 nautical miles. If flaps are deployed:

a)

the maximum gliding distance will increase

b)

the maximum gliding distance will be less

c)

Lift / Drag ratio will be unaffected but will be achieved at a lower airspeed

d)

the maximum gliding distance will be unaffected

120.

The maximum speed at which the aircraft can be flown with flaps extended is called:

a)

VYSE

b)

VFE

c)

VNE

d)

Vno

121.

In which of the following approach scenarios would you normally select full flap?

a)

When commencing the final approach

b)

On going around

c)

When landing into a strong headwind

d)

In the latter stages of the approach, when satisfied that you can safely touch down in the designated landing area

122.

Which of the following four options describes the consequence of taking off with the manufacturer's recommended take off flap setting selected?

a)

An increase in the length of the take off run compared to a non-flap take off

b)

A decrease in the length of the take off run compared to a non-flap take off

c)

A greater angle of climb

d)

Easier avoidance of obstacles at the end of a runway

123.

With the flaps lowered, the stalling speed will:

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

increase, but occur at a higher angle of attack

d)

remain the same

124.

When flaps are lowered the stalling angle of attack of the wing:

a)

remains the same, but CLMAX increases

b)

increases and CLMAX increases

c)

decreases, but CLMAX increases

d)

decreases, but CLMAX remains the same

125.

A pilot lowers the flaps while keeping the airspeed constant. In order to maintain level flight, the nose of the aircraft:

a)

must be lowered

b)

must be raised

c)

must be held at the same attitude but power must be increased

d)

must be held at the same attitude and power required wiil be constant

126.

If a landing is to be made without flaps the landing speed will be:

a)

Reduced

b)

Increased

c)

the same as for a landing with flaps

d)

the same as for a landing with flaps but with a steeper approach

127.

Lowering the flaps during a landing approach:

a)

permits approaches at a higher indicated airspeed

b)

decreases the angle of descent without increasing power

c)

eliminates floating

d)

increases the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed

128.

With a forward Centre of Gravity, an aircraft will have:

a)

reduced longitudinal stability

b)

lighter forces for control movements

c)

decreased elevator effectiveness when flaring

d)

shorter take off distances

129.

An aft Centre of Gravity will give:

a)

increased longitudinal stability

b)

Heavy forces for control Movements

c)

increased elevator effectiveness when flaring

d)

longer take off distances

130.

An aircraft is disturbed from its flight path by a gust of wind. If, over a short period of time, it tends to return to its original attitude without pilot intervention. the aircraft is said to possess:

a)

Instability

b)

negative dynamic stability

c)

neutral dynamic stability

d)

positive dynamic stability

131.

An aircraft is disturbed from its flight path by a gust of wind. The aircraft is neutrally stable if, with no intervention from the pilot, it tends to:

a)

Return to its original attitude without further deviation from its original attitude.

b)

return to its original attitude following further deviation from its original attitude

c)

maintain the new attitude

d)

continue to deviate from its original attitude

132.

Complete the following sentence in order to give the most satisfactory definition of stability. An aeroplane which is inherently stable will:

a)

require less effort to control

b)

be difficult to stall

c)

not spin

d)

have a built-in tendency to return to its original state following removal of any disturbing force

133.

After a disturbance in pitch, an aircraft oscillates in pitch with increasing amplitude. It is:

a)

statically and dynamically unstable

b)

statically stable but dynamically unstable

c)

statically unstable but dynamically stable

d)

statically and dynamically stable

134.

Longitudinal stability is provided by:

a)

the fin

b)

the wing dihedral

c)

the tailplane

d)

the ailerons

135.

An aircraft wing is constructed with dihedral in order to give:

a)

lateral stability about the longitudinal axis

b)

longitudinal stability about the lateral axis

c)

lateral stability about the normal axis

d)

directional stability about the normal axis

136.

If the wing Centre of Pressure is forward of the C of G:

a)

changes in lift produce a wing pitching moment which acts to reduce the change of lift

b)

changes in lift produce a wing pitching moment which acts to increase the change of lift

c)

changes in lift give no change in wing pitching moment

d)

when the aircraft sideslips, the C of G causes the nose to turn into the sideslip thus applying a restoring moment

137.

When the C of G is close to the forward limit:

a)

small movements are required on the control column to maneuver the aircraft in pitch

b)

longitudinal stability is reduced

c)

larger control movements are required to maneuver the aircraft in pitch because the aircraft is very stable

d)

control movements are the same as required for an aft C of G

138.

If a disturbing force causes an aircraft to roll and slip towards its lower wing:

a)

wing dihedral will cause a rolling moment which tends to correct the sideslip

b)

the fin will cause a yawing moment which reduces the sideslip

c)

Wing dihedral will cause a yawing moment which tends to correct the sideslip

d)

wing dihedral will cause a nose up pitching moment

139.

Wing dihedral produces a stabilizing rolling moment by causing an increase in lift:

a)

on the up-going wing when the aircraft rolls

b)

on the up-going wing when the aircraft is sideslipping

c)

on the lower wing when the aircraft is sideslipping

d)

on the lower wing whenever the aircraft is in a banked attitude

140.

A high wing configuration with no dihedral, compared to a low wing configuration with no dihedral, will have:

a)

greater longitudinal stability

b)

the same degree of longitudinal stability as any other configuration because dihedral gives longitudinal stability

c)

less lateral stability

d)

greater lateral stability

141.

If an aircraft with strong lateral stability and weak directional stability suffers a lateral disturbance and enters a sideslip, the aircraft will:

a)

go into a spiral dive

b)

develop simultaneous oscillations in roll and yaw, known as Dutch Roll

c)

develop oscillations in pitch

d)

develop an unchecked roil

142.

A wing whose angle of incidence decreases from root to tip is said to have

a)

Washout

b)

Taper

c)

Sweep

d)

anhedral

143.

The lateral axis of an aircraft is a line which

a)

passes through the wing tips

b)

passes through the Centre of Pressure, at right angles to the direction of the airflow

c)

passes through the quarter-chord point of the wing root, at right angles to the longitudinal axis

d)

passes through the Centre of Gravity, parallel to a line through in wing tips

144.

Loading an aircraft so that the C of G exceeds the aft limits could result in

a)

loss of longitudinal stability

b)

excessive upward force on the tail, and the nose pitching down

c)

excessive load factor in turns

d)

high stick forces

145.

Stability about the normal axis:

a)

is increased if the keel surface behind the C of G is increased

b)

is given by the lateral dihedral

c)

depends on the longitudinal dihedral

d)

is greater if the wing has no sweepback

146.

If the Centre of Gravity (C of G) of an aircraft is found to be within limits for take off:

a)

the C of G will always be within limits for landing

b)

the C of G limits for landing must be checked, allowing for planned fuel consumption

c)

the C of G will not change during the flight

d)

the flight crew will always be certain of being able to adjust the C of G during flight in order to keep it within acceptable limits for landing

147.

An aeroplane is in straight and level flight and a gust causes one wing to drop. If the aeroplane tends to return towards wings level without any intervention from the pilot:

a)

the aircraft has neutral stability

b)

the aircraft is stable

c)

the aircraft is unstable

d)

the aircraft cannot return to wings level unless the pilot intervenes

148.

The surface that gives an aircraft directional stability is:

a)

the rudder

b)

tailplane

c)

the rudder trim tab

d)

the fin

149.

Movement of the aircraft about its normal (vertical) axis is known as:

a)

Yawing

b)

Roiling

c)

Pitching

d)

side slipping

150.

When an aircraft is disturbed from its established flight path by, for example, turbulence, it is said to have positive stability if it subsequently tends to:

a)

remain on the new flight path

b)

re-establish its original attitude without any input from the pilot

c)

become further displaced from its original attitude

d)

continue to pitch in the disturbed direction until the displacement is resisted by opposing control forces

151.

When an aircraft is disturbed from its trimmed attitude by, for example, turbulence, it is said to have neutral stability if it subsequently:

a)

oscillates about its original attitude before settling back to that original attitude

b)

immediately re-establishes its original attitude

c)

remains in the new attitude

d)

continues to move in the disturbed direction until the displacement is resisted by opposing control forces

152.

By design, the Centre of Pressure on a particular aircraft remains behind the aircraft's C of G. If the aircraft is longitudinally stable and is displace pitch, nose down, by turbulence:

a)

the tailpiane will generate an increased upward force

b)

neither an upward nor a downward force will be generated by tailpiane, as

c)

he aircraft will already be in equilibriumthe aircraft will maintain its nose-down attitude

d)

the tailplane will generate an increased downward force

153.

The tendency of an aircraft to develop forces which restore it to its original flight situation, when disturbed from a condition of steady flight, is known as:

a)

Maneuverability

b)

Controllability

c)

Stability

d)

Instability

154.

An aircraft has directional static stability. If it sideslips to the right:

a)

the aircraft will initially tend to roll to the left

b)

the aircraft will initially tend to yaw to the left

c)

the aircraft will initially tend to yaw to the right

d)

the nose will remain pointing forward

155.

Which of the following components provides longitudinal stability?

a)

Engines

b)

Wing

c)

Fuselage

d)

Horizontal stabilizer (tailplane)

156.

To improve lateral stability certain features may be built into an aircraft. Which of the following lists of features would best contribute to an aircraft overall lateral stability?

a)

High wing, dihedral, high keel surface, sweepback

b)

Dihedral, high keel surface, Frise ailerons

c)

Wash-out, dihedral, Frise ailerons

d)

Slats, dihedral, Fowler flaps

157.

Which of the following provides aerodynamic balance?

a)

A weight on an arm which protrudes forward of it

b)

An area of control surface forward of its hinge line

c)

A fixed trim tab

d)

A simple, adjustable trim tab

158.

Which flying control surface(s) give(s) control about the aircraft's normal axis?

a)

The rudder

b)

The ailerons

c)

The elevator

d)

The flaps

159.

A control surface may have a mass balance fitted to it, in order to:

a)

help prevent a rapid and uncontrolled oscillation which is called "flutter"

b)

keep the control surface level

c)

lighten the forces needed to control the surface

d)

provide the pilot with "feel"

160.

On an aircraft fitted with a stabilator incorporating an anti-balance tab, pulling back on the control column will cause the:

a)

stabilator to move up and the tab to move up

b)

stabilator to move down and the tab to move down

c)

stabilator to move down and the tab to move up

d)

stabilator to move up and the tab to move down

161.

The respective primary and secondary effects of the rudder control are:

a)

yaw and pitch

b)

pitch and yaw

c)

roll and yaw

d)

yaw and roll

162.

Fixed trim tabs on ailerons:

a)

can be adjusted during flight

b)

should never be adjusted

c)

can be adjusted on the ground after a test flight to make wings-level flight easier

d)

can be adjusted on the ground after a test flight to make turning easier

163.

The respective primary and secondary effects of the aileron control are:

a)

roll and pitch

b)

pitch and yaw

c)

roll and yaw

d)

yaw and roll

164.

On an aircraft with a simple trim tab incorporated into a control surface, when the control surface is moved, the tab remains in the same position relative to the:

a)

relative airflow

b)

control surface

c)

boundary layer airflow

d)

aircraft horizontal plane

165.

The primary and secondary effects of applying the left rudder alone are:

a)

left yaw and left roll

b)

left yaw and right roll

c)

right yaw and left roll

d)

right yaw and right roll

166.

Which flying control surface(s) give(s) longitudinal control?

a)

The rudder

b)

The ailerons

c)

The elevator

d)

The flaps

167.

Ailerons give:

a)

lateral control about the lateral axis

b)

longitudinal control about the lateral axis

c)

directional control about the normal axis

d)

lateral control about the longitudinal axis

168.

Yawing is a rotation about:

a)

the normal axis controlled by the rudder

b)

the lateral axis controlled by the rudder

c)

the longitudinal axis controlled by the ailerons

d)

the normal axis controlled by the elevator

169.

The purpose of differential ailerons is to:

a)

increase the yawing moment which opposes a turn

b)

reduce the adverse yawing moment when making a turn

c)

induce a pitching moment to prevent the nose from turn

d)

improve the rate of roll

170.

When displacing the ailerons from the neutral position:

a)

the up-going aileron causes an increase in induced drag

b)

induced drag remains the same, the up-going aileron causes a smaller increase in profile drag than the down-going aileron

c)

both cause an increase in induced drag

d)

the down-going aileron causes an increase in induced drag

171.

The purpose of aerodynamic balance on a flying control surface is:

a)

to bring the aircraft into balance

b)

to prevent flutter of the flying control surface

c)

to reduce the control load to zero

d)

to make it easier for the pilot to move the control surface in flight

172.

An aileron could be balanced aerodynamically by:

a)

making the up aileron move through a larger angle than the down aileron

b)

attaching a weight to the control surface forward of the hinge

c)

having the hinge set back behind the leading edge of the aileron

d)

having springs in the control circuit to assist movement

173.

A control surface may be mass balanced by:

a)

fitting a balance tab

b)

attaching a weight acting forward of the hinge line

c)

fitting an anti-balance tab

d)

attaching a weight acting aft of the hinge line

174.

If the control column is moved to the right, a balance tab on the left aileron should:

a)

move up relative to the aileron

b)

move down relative to the aileron

c)

not move unless the aileron trim wheel is turned

d)

move to the neutral position

175.

The purpose of an anti-balance tab is to:

a)

trim the aircraft

b)

reduce the load required to move the controls at all speeds

c)

reduce the load required to move the controls at high speeds only

d)

ensure that the pilot's physical control load increases with increase of control surface deflection

176.

When the control column is pushed forward, a balance tab on the elevator:

a)

will move up relative to the control surface

b)

will move down relative to the control surface

c)

will only move if the trim wheel is operated

d)

moves to the neutral position

177.

A fixed trim tab on an aileron should:

a)

be adjusted on the ground after a test flight to achieve laterally level flight

b)

not be adjusted once it has been set by the manufacturer

c)

be adjusted on the ground after a test flight to achieve longitudinally level flight

d)

be adjusted from the cockpit to achieve laterally level flight

178.

The purpose of a spring-bias trim system is:

a)

to maintain a constant tension in the trim tab system

b)

to increase the feel in the control system

c)

to reduce to zero the effort required by the pilot to counter stick force after making a control movement

d)

to compensate for temperature changes in cable tension

179.

The purpose of a trim tab is:

a)

to assist the pilot in initiating movement of the controls

b)

to zero the load on the pilots controls in the flight attitude required

c)

to provide feel to the controls at high speed

d)

to increase the effectiveness of the controls

180.

To trim an aircraft which tends to fly nose heavy with hands off, the top of the elevator trim wheel should be:

a)

moved forward to alleviate the back-pressure needed to hold (h^ attitude, and this would cause the elevator trim tab to move down

b)

moved backwards to alleviate the back-pressure needed to hold tin: attitude, and this would cause the elevator trim tab to move down

c)

moved backwards to alleviate the back-pressure needed to hold lit- attitude, and this would cause the elevator trim tab to move up

d)

moved backwards to alleviate the back-pressure needed to hold iii*- attitude, and this would cause the elevator trim tab to move up

181.

Compared with an aircraft with a central or aft C of G, following re-trimming for straight and level flight, in an aircraft with a C of G near its forward limit. and an elevator fitted with a conventional trim-tab:

a)

nose-up pitch authority will be reduced

b)

nose-down pitch authority will be reduced

c)

longitudinal stability will be reduced

d)

tailplane down-load will be reduced

182.

An aircraft's rudder is fitted with a balance tab. Movement of the rudder bar to the right, to yaw the aircraft to the right, will:

a)

move the rudder to the left; the balance tab will move to the left

b)

move the rudder to the right; the balance tab will move to the right

c)

move the rudder to the left; the balance tab will move to the right

d)

move the rudder to the right; the balance tab will move to the left

183.

Adverse yaw is partially counteracted by:

a)

Fowler flaps

b)

a fixed aileron trim tab

c)

aileron anti-balance tabs

d)

differential ailerons

184.

'Differential Ailerons' are a design feature that helps to counteract:

a)

stability about the longitudinal axis

b)

adverse yaw

c)

positive aircraft stability

d)

adverse roll

185.

Controls are mass balanced in order to:

a)

eliminate control flutter

b)

aerodynamically assist the pilot in moving the controls

c)

provide equal control forces on all three controls

d)

return the control surface to neutral when the controls are release

186.

Where are mass balance weights located relative to a control surface hinge line?

a)

Always on the hinge line, irrespective of the type of aerodynamic balance

b)

On the hinge line if the control surface does not have an inset hinge

c)

On the hinge line if the control surface has an inset hinge

d)

In front of the hinge line

187.

Roll is:

a)

a result of aileron deflection and is motion about the lateral axis

b)

Rotation about the normal Axis

c)

a pitching movement about the lateral axis

d)

rotation about the longitudinal axis

188.

If mass balance is used to eliminate flutter, it should be attached to a control surface:

a)

on the hinge

b)

behind the hinge

c)

above the hinge

d)

in front of the hinge

189.

If the pilot moves the cockpit trim lever or wheel such that the trim tab on the elevator moves up relative to the control surface, how has the aircraft's trim been altered?

a)

It has not been altered

b)

More nose up

c)

More nose down

d)

More nose left

190.

An aeroplane will stall at the same:

a)

angle of attack and attitude with relation to the horizon

b)

airspeed regardless of the attitude with relation to the horizon

c)

angle of attack regardless of the attitude with relation to the horizon

d)

indicated airspeed regardless of altitude, bank angle and load factor

191.

A typical stalling angle of attack for a wing without sweepback is:

a)

b)

16°

c)

30°

d)

45°

192.

If the aircraft weight is increased, the stalling angle of attack will:

a)

remain the same

b)

decrease

c)

increase

d)

the position of the C of G does not affect the stall speed

193.

If the angle of attack is increased above the stalling angle:

a)

lift and drag wilt both decreaselift and drag wilt both decrease

b)

lift will decrease and drag will increase

c)

lift will increase and drag will decrease

d)

lift and drag will both increase

194.

The angle of attack at which an aeroplane stalls

a)

will occur at smaller angles of attack flying downwind than when flying upwind

b)

is dependent upon the speed of the airflow over the wing

c)

is a function of speed and density altitude

d)

will remain constant regardless of gross weight

195.

In a steady, level turn, at 60° angle of bank, the stalling speed of an aircraft which has a straight flight stalling speed of 60 knots IAS, would be:

a)

43 kt

b)

60 kt

c)

84 kt

d)

120 kt

196.

The stalling speed of an aircraft in a steady turn would be:

a)

the same as in level flight

b)

lower than in level flight

c)

higher than in level flight, and a lower angle of attack

d)

higher than in level flight and at the same angle of attack

197.

Awing with washout would have:

a)

the tip chord less than the root chord

b)

the tip angle of incidence less than the root angle of incidence

c)

the tip angle of incidence greater than the root angle of incidence

d)

the tip camber less than the root camber

198.

If aircraft weight is increased, stalling speed will:

a)

remain the same

b)

decrease

c)

increase

d)

weight does not affect the stalling speed

199.

Stalling may be delayed until a higher angle of attack is reached by:

a)

increasing the adverse pressure gradient

b)

increasing the surface roughness of the wing top surface

c)

distortion of the leading edge by ice build-up

d)

increasing the kinetic energy of the boundary layer

200.

Slots increase the stalling angle of attack by:

a)

Increasing leading edge camber

b)

Retarding the onset of turbulence and delaying separation of the boundary layer

c)

Reducing the effective angle of attack

d)

Reducing span-wise flow

201.

An aeroplane wing stalls when

a)

The indicated airspeed is too low

b)

The critical angle of attack is exceeded

c)

The laminar airflow becomes turbulent

d)

It is subjected to unusually high 'G' forces

202.

The stalling speed of an aircraft is a function of the:

a)

Inverse of the Load Factor

b)

Indicated airspeed

c)

Square of the weight

d)

Square root of the Load Factor

203.

If the Angle of Attack is increased beyond the Critical Angie of Attack, the wing will no longer produce sufficient lift to support the weight of the aircraft:

a)

Unless the airspeed is greater than the normal stall speed

b)

Regardless of airspeed or pitch attitude

c)

Unless the pitch attitude is on or below the natural horizon

d)

In which case, the control column should be pulled-back immediately

204.

With the flaps lowered, the stalling speed will:

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Increase, but occur at a higher angle of attack

d)

Remain the same

205.

The reason for washout being designed into an aircraft wing is to:

a)

Increase the effectiveness of the flaps

b)

Cause the outboard section of the wing to stall first

c)

Decrease the effectiveness of the ailero

d)

Cause the inboard section of the wing to stall first

206.

When the aircraft is in a spin, the direction of spin is most reliably found by reference to which of the following indications?

a)

Artificial horizon

b)

Slip indicator

c)

Direction indicator

d)

Turn needle

207.

At the stall, the Centre of Pressure moving backwards will cause the nose to ________ and the decreased lift will cause the aircraft to ________.

a)

Yaw, reduce speed

b)

Drop, lose height

c)

Rise, sink

d)

Drop, reduce speed

208.

When flaps are lowered the stalling angle of attack of the wing:

a)

Remains the same, but CLMAX increases

b)

Increases and CLMAX increases

c)

Decreases, but CLMAX increases

d)

Decreases, but CLMAX remains the same

209.

On a given type of aircraft, the C of G moves forward as fuel is used; therefore;

a)

The stalling speed will increase

b)

The stalling speed will decrease

c)

The stalling speed will remain exactly the same

d)

Any of the above could be true

210.

If a wing drops at the stall:

a)

The down going wing becomes more stalled while the up going wing becomes less stalled

b)

The wings should be immediately leveled by use of aileron

c)

The secondary effect of yaw should be utilized

d)

The up going wing becomes more stalled than the down going wing

211.

Following a stall from straight flight, which of the symptoms below best describes the fully developed stall?

a)

The airspeed begins to decrease

b)

The nose pitches down and the aircraft loses height

c)

The nose pitches up and the aircraft controls become sloppy

d)

A wing tends to drop

212.

When is the coefficient of lift at a maximum?

a)

At or just before the stall

b)

With the elevator fully deflected upwards

c)

When the lift/drag ratio is at its most favorable

d)

At about 4° angle of attack

213.

If an aircraft is flown at its design maneuvering speed VA :

a)

it is possible to subject the aircraft to a load greater than its limit load during high 'g' maneuvers

b)

It is not possible to exceed the limit load because the aircraft will stall before this is reached.

c)

it is only possible to subject the aircraft to a load greater than its limit load during violent increases in incidence, i.e. when using excessive stick force to pull-out of a dive

d)

it must be immediately slowed down if turbulence is encountered

214.

VNE is:

a)

the airspeed which must not be exceeded except in a dive

b)

the maximum airspeed at which maneuvers approaching the stall may be carried out

c)

the maximum airspeed at which the aircraft may be flown

d)

the maximum speed above which flaps should not be extended

215.

The maximum allowable airspeed with flaps extended ( VEE ) is lower than cruising speed because:

a)

flaps are used only when preparing to land

b)

too much drag is induced

c)

flaps will stall if they are deployed at too high an airspeed

d)

the additional lift and drag created would overload the wing and flap structure at higher speeds

216.

What is the significance of the speed known as VNO?

a)

It is the maximum speed at which abrupt movements of the controls will result in a stall, before the aircraft's positive load limit is exceeded

b)

It is the speed beyond which structural failure of the airframe will occur

c)

It signifies the upper limit of the normal operating speed range

d)

It signifies the airspeed which must never be exceeded

217.

The stalling speed in a turn or in the pull-out from a dive is increased because:

a)

the angle of attack must be increased

b)

the load factor increases

c)

the aircraft's speed increases

d)

the pitch angle increases

218.

Vs is:

a)

the velocity-never-to-exceed

b)

the maximum normal operating speed

c)

the stall speed when the aircraft is subject to a Load Factor of 1

d)

the stall speed when the aircraft is subject to no Load Factor at all

219.

The lower end of the white arc on the Airspeed Indicator marks:

a)

the stall speed clean, in steady straight flight, at maximum all up weight, gear down and power off

b)

the stall speed with flaps fully extended, in steady straight flight, at maximum all up weight, gear down and power off

c)

the stall speed with flaps fully extended, at maximum all up weighs, gear down and in a 2g turn

d)

the stall speed with flaps in the take-off position, in steady straight flight, at maximum all up weight, gear down and power off

220.

The lower end of the green arc on the Airspeed Indicator marks:

a)

the stall speed clean, in steady straight flight, at maximum all up weight, gear down and power off

b)

the stall speed with flaps fully extended, in steady straight flight, .it maximum all up weight, gear down and power off

c)

the stall speed with flaps fully extended, at maximum all up weight, gear down and in a 2g turn

d)

the stall speed with flaps in the take-off position, in steady straight flight, at maximum all up weight, gear down and power off

221.

The top end of the yellow arc on the Airspeed Indicator marks:

a)

the maximum maneuvering speed

b)

the maximum normal operating speed

c)

the design dive speed

d)

the velocity never-to-exceed

222.

Above VA:

a)

the aircraft may stall before the positive limit load factor has been reached

b)

when the aircraft stalls, the positive limit load factor will have been exceeded

c)

structural damage to the airframe is highly likely at any speed

d)

the aircraft may be flown in smooth air only

223.

The inertial forces acting on an aircraft is a function of:

a)

The square of the aircraft's indicated airspeed, its mass and the maneuver radius

b)

The aircraft's altitude

c)

The square of the aircraft's true airspeed, its mass and the maneuver radius

d)

The rate of turn only

224.

An aircraft's stall speed during a positive g maneuver is equal to the product of its straight flight,1g, stall speed and:

a)

The square root of the load factor

b)

The cosine of the angle of bank

c)

The sine of the bank angle

d)

The number of g pulled in the maneuver

225.

In a steady, level turn, the load factor acting on an aircraft is equal to:

a)

The indicated airspeed divided by 10, plus 7

b)

The Cosine of the bank angle

c)

1 divided by the Cosine of the bank angle.

d)

The true airspeed multiplied by the square root of the straight flight stall speed