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Grade 10 II DSA Review

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Hairstyling that does not alter the natural curl or coil patterns of hair is known as:
a)
trend hairstyling
b)
natural hairstyling
c)
fashion hairstyling
d)
thermal hairstyling
2.
To avoid client misunderstanding and ensure a happy ending to every natural hairstyling service, perform a thorough:
a)
approach
b)
consultation
c)
style
d)
image
3.
During the consultation the stylist must pay special attention to the client’s hair:
a)
style
b)
length
c)
texture
d)
color
4.
In terms of braiding and other natural hairstyling, the diameter of hair refers to whether the hair is:
a)
medium, fine, or smooth
b)
smooth, dry, or wiry
c)
coarse, medium, or fine
d)
straight, wavy, or fine
5.
With regard to the wave pattern or configuration, textured hair is defined as hair with a(n):
a)
very soft curl pattern
b)
smooth wave pattern
c)
oily curl pattern
d)
tight curl pattern
6.
Brushes that are used for stimulating the scalp as well as removing dirt and lint from locks are:
a)
square paddle brushes
b)
boar-bristle brushes
c)
nylon-bristle brushes
d)
combination bristle brushes
7.
Which type of brush is good for releasing tangles, knots, and snarls in short, textured hair and long, straight hair?
a)
boar-bristle
b)
square paddle
c)
vent
d)
round
8.
An excellent comb for design parting and opening and removing braids is a:
a)
finishing comb
b)
wide-tooth comb
c)
pressing comb
d)
tail comb
9.
Which tool is useful for lifting and separating textured hair?
a)
tail comb
b)
pick with rounded teeth
c)
cutting comb
d)
double-toothed comb
10.
A manufactured synthetic fiber used for hair extensions that is durable, soft, and less inclined to tangle than other synthetics is:
a)
Kanekalon
b)
yarn
c)
nylon
d)
cotton
11.
A strong extension material that comes from the domestic ox found in the mountains of Tibet and central Asia is:
a)
lin
b)
wool
c)
yarn
d)
yak
12.
Blowdrying softens textured hair, stretches the hair shaft length, and:
a)
elongates a wave pattern
b)
reduces a wave pattern
c)
shrinks a wave pattern
d)
thickens the diameter
13.
A simple two-strand braid in which the hair is picked up from the sides and added to strands as they are crossed over each other is the:
a)
inverted
b)
extension
c)
fishtail
d)
invisible
14.
The terms single braids, box braids, or individual braids all refer to:
a)
underhand braids
b)
inverted braids
c)
extension braids
d)
free-hanging braids
15.
Narrow rows of visible braids that lie close to the scalp are:
a)
invisible
b)
cornrows
c)
box
d)
fishtail
16.
Most braided styles are appropriate for:
a)
round face shapes
b)
square face shapes
c)
diamond face shapes
d)
oval face shapes
17.
The name for separate networks of curly, textured hair that have been intertwined and meshed together is:
a)
braiding
b)
twisting
c)
locks
d)
cornrows
18.
When testing synthetic hair or fibers by burning, the hair will either ball up, melt, or burn:
a)
quickly with no odor
b)
slowly with no odor
c)
quickly with a strong odor
d)
slowly with a strong color
19.
A disadvantage of human hair is the hair’s reaction to:
a)
cutting
b)
conditioning
c)
humidity
d)
styling
20.
The artificial hair covering that completely conceals the client’s hair is a:
a)
wig
b)
hairpiece
c)
wigless
d)
switch
21.
The wig type recommended for a client with no hair or extremely thin hair is the:
a)
capless wig
b)
cascade
c)
toupee
d)
cap wig
22.
Capless wigs are more popular than cap wigs as they are considered ready-to-wear and:
a)
less expensive
b)
more expensive
c)
tight and uncomfortable
d)
underknotted
23.
The least expensive wig option is:
a)
hand-tie
b)
semi-hand-tie
c)
machine made
d)
capless wig
24.
To achieve a natural look when cutting a wig, the ends should be:
a)
blunt
b)
tapered
c)
short
d)
even
25.
When using heat on human hair wigs, the temperature setting on the styling tool should be:
a)
low
b)
high
c)
fast
d)
strong
26.
When styling a wig without a natural-looking hairline or a lace front, you should soften the hairline by:
a)
tapering around the ears
b)
backcombing around the hairline
c)
trimming the hairline with a razor
d)
styling the hair when wet
27.
To clean a wig, follow the manufacturer’s directions and select a shampoo that is:
a)
alkaline
b)
medicated
c)
gentle
d)
sulfur based
28.
A small wig used to cover the top or crown of the head is a:
a)
toupee
b)
cap
c)
switch
d)
weft
29.
In the braid-and-sew method of hair extensions, the angle of the track determines:
a)
how the hair will fall
b)
the amount of hair
c)
the size of extension
d)
the length of extension
30.
The technical term that refers to the overgrowth of hair on the body is:
a)
hypothermia
b)
depilatory
c)
hypertrichosis
d)
epilation
31.
The two major categories of hair removal are:
a)
temporary and permanent
b)
semi and permanent
c)
waxing and epilation
d)
epilation and depilatories
32.
Client questionnaires used for hair removal services should contain information about client medications and:
a)
employment and allergies
b)
allergies and skin disorders
c)
age and finances
d)
vitamins and diet routine
33.
A hair removal service should not be performed on clients taking a medication containing:
a)
alcohol
b)
niacin
c)
Retin-A
d)
vitamin D
34.
Facial waxing should not be performed on clients with the condition of:
a)
rosacea
b)
seborrhea
c)
hypertrichosis
d)
hirsutism
35.
The natural arch of the eyebrow or the curved line of the eye socket follows what bone?
a)
orbis
b)
orbital
c)
temporal
d)
frontal
36.
Heated wax should be spread in a thin coat using:
a)
fingers
b)
a wooden applicator
c)
a metal applicator
d)
cotton pads
37.
To avoid contaminating wax, the applicator used on each client should be inserted into the wax:
a)
often
b)
daily
c)
smoothly
d)
once
38.
The important part of the facial treatment that determines skin type, condition, and the recommended treatment is the:
a)
case history
b)
skin analysis
c)
skin review
d)
home treatment
39.
Clients who present skin abnormalities, open sores, or fever blisters should be referred to a(n):
a)
podiatrist
b)
physician
c)
stylist
d)
aestetician
40.
Obvious pores on the surface of the skin indicate:
a)
dry skin areas
b)
alipidic skin
c)
oily skin areas
d)
sudoriferous areas
41.
Dry skin that is not producing enough sebum is also known as:
a)
combination
b)
alipidic
c)
hydrated
d)
extreme
42.
Pimples that have a pus head are called:
a)
papules
b)
sebum
c)
pustules
d)
comedones
43.
Dark blotches of color on the skin caused by sun exposure or hormone imbalance are known as:
a)
dehydration
b)
hyperpigmentation
c)
hypertrichosis
d)
albinism
44.
Products used to increase the water content of the skin surface are:
a)
freshners
b)
enzymes
c)
moisturizers
d)
toners
45.
The manual or mechanical manipulation sofa the body by rubbing, kneading, or other movements is:
a)
metabolism
b)
massage
c)
absorption
d)
physiology
46.
The direction of movement in massage should always be from insertion of the muscle toward its:
a)
external surface
b)
origin
c)
internal surface
d)
ligaments
47.
Every massage should begin and end with which massage movement?
a)
petrissage
b)
friction
c)
effleurage
d)
kneading
48.
The point over a muscle where pressure or stimulation will cause contraction of the muscle is the:
a)
motor point
b)
muscle connection
c)
relaxation. Center
d)
stimulator
49.
One of the newest trends in makeup is a powder form of foundation, which is:
a)
sticks
b)
cream forms
c)
mineral powder
d)
highlighting
50.
Foundation should be removed from the container using:
a)
hands
b)
fingers
c)
a spatula
d)
a cotton ball
51.
The testing of foundation color should be done on the client’s:
a)
nose
b)
neck
c)
forehead
d)
jawline
52.
When applied properly, lipstick should be even on both sides of the mouth and:
a)
automatic
b)
symmetrical
c)
asymmetrical
d)
shaded
53.
Eye shadow that is lighter than the client’s skin tone is considered a:
a)
complementary color
b)
highlight color
c)
contour color
d)
base color
54.
Any color that is significantly deeper or darker than the client’s skin tone is considered a:
a)
contour color
b)
highlight color
c)
base color
d)
complementary color
55.
Heavy makeup used for theatrical purposes is:
a)
greasepaint
b)
translucent
c)
concealer
d)
oil-based
56.
Which of the following is a main factor to consider when choosing colors for a client?
a)
skin color
b)
eye color
c)
hair color
d)
all of these answers are correct
57.
The facial shape that is usually broader in proportion to its length is the:
a)
diamond shapre
b)
square shapre
c)
round face
d)
oblong face
58.
The procedure of applying individual eyelashes directly on the client’s own lashes at the base is called:
a)
eye tabbing
b)
eye impressing
c)
semilashes
d)
lash tabbing
59.
During the client consultation, a positive answer to which of the following questions would indicate that hair removal services should not be provided for Meghan?
a)
do you suffer from oily skin patches?
b)
have you ever had a mud mask?
c)
do you currently use Retin-A?
d)
are you a frequent tanning salon client?
60.
When Meghan shapes her own eyebrows with a pair of tweezers, she is using a method called:
a)
permanent hair removal
b)
photoepilation
c)
sugaring
d)
temporary hair removal
61.
If Meghan wanted to learn more about permanent hair removal methods, Amy would suggest:
a)
electrolysis, tweezing, and epilation
b)
photoepilation, shaving, and depilatories
c)
laser hair removal, electronic tweezers, and waxing
d)
electrolysis, photoepilation, and laser hair removal
62.
A quick and easy method of temporary hair removal for removing the hair on Meghan's legs that would leave the skin smooth but requires a patch test:
a)
a depilatory
b)
photoepilation
c)
sugaring
d)
tweezing
63.
A milder but equally way of removing Meghan's facial hair could be to:
a)
wax
b)
tweeze
c)
shave
d)
sugar
64.
To minimize the irritation Meghan sometimes feels when she has her facial hair waxed, Montgomery suggests the use of this method, pictured below:
a)
threading
b)
waxing
c)
sugaring
d)
tweezing
65.
Before beginning any service for Izaia, Amelia asks him to sign a(n):
a)
client marketing form
b)
do not call form
c)
client release form
d)
intake form
66.
Based on his description of activities, it sounds like Izaia would like to have the hair on his ______ removed.
a)
face and neck
b)
chest and back
c)
back and arms
d)
arms and legs
67.
Men who participate in sports such as swimming, body building, and soccer often remove hair from their:
a)
arms and head
b)
legs and back
c)
arms and legs
d)
arms and ankles
68.
The unusual overabundance of hair on Izaia's back is caused by:
a)
hirsuties
b)
rosacea
c)
pediculosis capitis
d)
epilation
69.
If using soft wax on Izaia's body, Amelia must be sure to:
a)
cleanse the area to be waxed
b)
pretreat the area to be waxed
c)
tweeze the area to be waxed
d)
epilate the area to be waxed
70.
When Amelia finds a mole on Izaia's back, she should:
a)
wax it
b)
not apply wax to it
c)
remove the hair from it
d)
heat it