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WorksheetsATM 6
Total questions: 120
Worksheet time: 3615secs
Transition level is the lowest _____ available for use above the transition altitude.
A. Flight level
B. Altitudes
C. Vertical position
D. Elevation
A flight plan for a flight to be provided with air traffic control service shall be submitted at least _____ before departure
A. 60 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 10 minutes
An aircraft will not be given clearance to take off until the preceding aircraft has:
A. Reported airborne and climbed to 500 ft.
B. Left the aerodrome traffic zone.
C. Crossed the upwind end of the runway or made a turn away from the runway.
D. Reported 'downwind'.
Wake turbulence separation is:
A. Applicable at all times.
B. Applicable only between aircraft of different wake turbulence categories.
C. Applicable only between aircraft at the same level or where the succeeding aircraft is less than 1000 ft below the preceding aircraft.
D. Not applicable to parallel runway operations.
Which part of the AIP contains a list with "Location Indicators"?
A. GEN
B. LOC
C. AD
D. ENR
Definitions - Visual Approach. Also called "Visual Approach" can be performed :
A. when either part or all of an instrument approach procedure is not completed and the approach is executed in visual reference to terrain.
B. during IFR approaches, if the cloud base is 1000 ft higher than the appropriate DA or MDA for that procedure, and the visibility is at least 5.5 km.
C. during IFR and VFR flights in VMC;
D. during IFR flights, if the cloudbase is 1000 ft more than the appropriate DA or MDA for that procedure;
An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if
A. all mentioned answers are correct
B. the aircraft gets radar vectors ;
C. the pilot is following the published approach procedure
D. the pilot has the field and the underlying terrain in sight and will keep it in sight
The EAT[HD1] has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as possible, in case the expected delay is:
A. 10 minutes
B. 20 minutes
C. 5 minutes or more.
D. 15 minutes or more
Except when prescribed in procedures or made possible by agreements, aircraft under radar-control shall not be vectored closer to the boundary of controlled airspace than:
A. 2.5 NM
B. 5 NM
C. 1.5 NM
D. 3 NM
During radar-control, a "radar-controller" shall issue a missed-approach instruction, in case the "tower-controller" has not issued a "landing clearance" at the moment the aircraft is:
A. 2 NM from touch-down;
B. 3 NM from touch-down;
C. 1NM from touch-down;
D. 4 NM from touch-down;
Airspace Classification - Services: During a "Visual Approach" in Controlled Airspace Class C
A. ATC will provide separation with other traffic.
B. ATC will provide separation with arriving but not with departing traffic.
C. ATC will provide separation between flights under IFR, Pilots are responsible for separation between flights under VFR.
D. Pilots are responsible for separation with arriving and departing aircraft.
A Special Air Report comprises a number of sections. In section I the pilot fills in:
A. a position report, including aircraft identification, height, position and time ;
B. urgent messages
C. weather noted ;
D. flight identification and weather noted ;
On a non-precision approach a so-called "straight-in-approach" is considered acceptable, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centreline is
A. 30 degrees or less
B. 20 degrees or less
C. 40 degrees or less
D. 10 degrees or less
To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E:
A. Two way radio communication is not required.
B. A clearance is required.
C. A clearance and/or two-way radio communication is required.
D. A clearance and two-way radio communication is required.
Which statement regarding approach control service is correct ?
A. If it is anticipated that an aircraft has to hold for 30 minutes or more, an Expected Approach Time will be transmitted by the most expeditious means to the aircraft
B. Approach control have to advise the aircraft operators about substantial delays in departure in any event when they are expected to exceed 45 minutes ;
C. During a visual approach an aircraft is maintaining its own separation ;
D. An approach sequence shall be established according to the sequence of initial radio contact between aircraft and approach control ;
Radar Services - Precision Surveillance Radar: At what distance from the end of the runway may a pilot expect that his aircraft can be identified on departure when ATC is equipped with and using PSR?
A. 1NM
B. 2NM
C. 5NM
D. 3NM
Runway-lead-in lighting should consist
A. of group of at least three white lights flashing in sequence towards the runway ;
B. of an arbitrary amount of green lights.
C. of flashing lights only;
D. always of a straight row of lights towards the runway.
Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service is correct?
A. Alerting Service and Flight Information Service may be provided by the same ATS unit
B. The distress phase is established when an aircraft is known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference
C. The Alert phase is established when no communication has been received from an aircraft within a period of thirty minutes after the time a communication should have been received;
Aircraft in the vicinity of an aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference, shall be informed about this
Which provisions on a VFR-flight in Class E airspace are CORRECT?
A. Service provided: Traffic Information as far as practical; ATC Clearance: not required ;
B. Service provided: Air Traffic Control Service; ATC Clearance: not required
C. Service provided: Traffic Information as far as practical; ATC Clearance: required ;
D. Service provided: Air Traffic Control Service; ATC Clearance: required
VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050m (10000 ft) AMSL, are
A. 8 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds ;
B. 8 km visibility, and clear of clouds ;
C. 5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds ;
D. No minima, VFR flights are not permitted
During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two way radio communication failure. You will
A. Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC ;
B. Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATCS
C. Select A7600 and continue according current flight plan to destination ;
D. Descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight ;
Which Freedom of the Air will be exercised by an airline planning a flight that will require a technical stop in a neighboring State?
A. 2nd freedom
B. 3rd freedom
C. 4th freedom
D. 1st freedom
Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be requested to make minor speed adjustments by ATC. These adjustments shall never be more than
A. 20 knots and not within 4 NM of threshold
B. 10 knots and not within 5 NM of threshold
C. 15 knots at any stage
D. 25 knots at any stage
What is the length of an approach lighting system of a precision-approach runway CAT II:
A. 900m
B. 150m
C. 300m
D. 600m
What is a "barrette"?
A. three or more ground lights closely spaced together to appear as a bar of lights.
B. a heighted obstacle near the runway and/or taxiway.
C. a frangible structure on which approach lights are fixed.
D. a CAT II or III holding position.
Which statement is correct?
A. The lower limit of a TMA shall be established at a height of at least 700ft AGL;
B. The upper limit of a CTR shall be established at a height of at least 3000ft AMSL;
C. The lower limit of an UIR may coincide with an IFR cruising level
D. The lower limit of a CTA shall be established at a height of at least 1500ft AGL;
The separation method whereby the vertical and horizontal separation may be reduced till a maximum of half the standard criteria is called
A. Composite separation
B. Reduced separation
C. Essential separation
D. Combined separation
The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published
A. in the NOTAM and in the AIP including Supplement.
B. only in AIP
C. in the NOTAM, AIP and MAL
D. only in NOTAM
Aerodromes signs should be in the following configuration:
A. information signs; yellow or black background with black or yellow inscriptions
B. mandatory instruction signs ; red background with black inscriptions
C. mandatory instruction signs; black background with red inscriptions
D. information signs; orange background with black inscriptions.
In the event that a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flight plan, the appropriate ATS unit has to be informed
A. the TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in the flight plan.
B. the estimated time is in error by more than 10 minutes.
C. of an emergency.
D. it is a deviation from the track.
When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and restore is impossible, than:
A. departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be effected is allowed
B. you are not allowed to commence the flight
C. you must indicate the failure in the fight plan, after which the ATC will endeavor to provide for continuation of the flight;
Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight
A. at least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
B. at least 1000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
C. at least 2000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
D. at least 1000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light
A. on the ground when the engines are running
B. while taxiing, but not when it is being towed;
C. outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground when it is being towed;
D. outside the daylight-period at engine-start. During the daylight-period this is not applicable;
The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that
A. taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways;
B. landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only;
C. this aerodrome is using parallel runways
D. glider flying is performed outside the landing area;
The primary area of an instrument approach segment is
A. A defined area symmetrically disposed about the nominal flight track in which full obstacle clearance is provided.
B. the outside part of the segment where the obstacle clearance increases from o ft to the appropriate minimum
C. the first part of the segment ;
D. the most critical part of the segment where the minimum altitude should be kept very carefully;
Unlawful interference (Hijacking) in non RVSM airspace: If an aircraft is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') in non RVSM airspace and the pilot is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS, he shall try to
A. proceed at a level which differs from the cruising level normally used for IFR flights in that area by 1000 ft if the aircraft is operated above FL 290 or 500 ft if the aircraft is operated below FL 290.
B. slow the speed of the aircraft down to minimum, squawk A7700 and declare emergency on 121.5 MHz.
C. fly the emergency triangle and try to establish radiotelephony contact with the interference coordinator of the appropriate ATS unit on 121.5 MHz.
D. commence as soon as possible an emergency descent in order to minimize the difference between cabin pressure and outside pressure.
Checklist of AIC currently in force shall be issued at least
A. once a month
B. once in 6 months
C. once in 3 months
D. once a year
An AIC contains information
A. of temporary change of long duration and/or information requiring graphics
B. of an administrative nature
C. with graphics only
D. with extensive text only
AIC must be given the same distribution as the
A. AIP, AIP AMDT and AIP SUP
B. AIP, NOTAM and AIP SUP
C. AIP, AIP SUP and PIB
D. NOTAM, PIB and AIP AMDT
Which color is regulated for AIC Viet Nam?
A. yellow
B. blue
C. White
D. Pink
AIC should be colored code by subject as
A. white - Safety
B. white - Administrative
C. white - Maps/Charts
D. white - Air Traffic Control
The List of valid NOTAM shall refer to
A. The latest AIP Amendment
B. Checklist of AIP Supplements
C. Checklist of AIC
D. All of the above
The List of valid NOTAM shall be published
A. At the end of the month
B. On the first day of the month
C. At the middle of the month
D. At the end of the year
How many series of NOTAM are there in Viet Nam List of valid NOTAM
A. Three series (A, B and C)
B. Two series (A and J)
C. Three series (A, C and J)
D. Two series (A and B)
NOTAM List of Viet Nam includes NOTAM in force and is arranged as follows
A. HAN FIR, HCM FIR
B. HAN FIR, HCM FIR, International and Domestic Airports
C. HAN FIR, HCM FIR, International Airports
D. HAN FIR, HCM FIR, Domestic Airports
1 degree = 60 NM, 60 Minutes =
A. 58 NM
B. 62 NM
C. 60 NM
D. 1 NM
If the Magnetic Track is 124º and variation is 1ºW, the True bearing is
A. 123º
B. 124º
C. 125º
D. 142º
A scale of 1: 5.000 is bigger than
A. 1:500
B. 1:250
C. 1:50.000
D. 1:2500
NOTAM notifying unserviceability of aids to air navigation, facilities or communication services shall give at which restoration of service is expected
A. An estimate of the period of unserviceability or the time
B. PERM
C. An estimate of the period of the time
D. None of the above
NOTAM originated for AIP Supplement in accordance with AIRAC procedures shall remain valid in the pre-flight information bulletin for
A. 56 days
B. 42 days
C. 14 days
D. 28 days
advance notice shall be given of the activation of established danger area.
A. 6 fields
A. At least 10 days'
B. At least 3 days'
C. At least 1 month
D. At least 3 days' or 7 days'
A NOTAM containing permanent or temporary information of long duration shall carry appropriate references
A. AIP AMDT
B. AIP SUP
C. AIC
D. AIP/AIP SUP
How many fields are there in Item Q?
A. 6 fields
B. 8 fields
C. 7 fields
D. 9 fields
Units of measurement used in Item F and Item G can be
A. Meter
B. Flight level
C. Feet
D. Both (1) and (3)
All NOTAM Code groups contain a total of
A. 3 letters
B. 4 letters
C. 5 letters
D. 6 letters
Each NOTAM shall deal with only.
A. one subject
B. one condition of the subject
C. Both (1) and (2)
D. Either (1) or (2)
The Checklist of valid NOTAM shall refer to.
A. The latest AIP Amendment
B. The latest AIP Supplements
C. The latest AIC
D. All of the above
When are the Trigger NOTAMs issued?
A. On Effective date
B. On Publication date
C. 28 days before the effective date
D. Both (2) and (3)
......NOTAM contains information of concern to domestic fights
A. A series
B. B series
C. C series
D. S series
NOTAM should not remain in force for more than
A. Six months
B. Four months
C. Three months
D. One month
....Is a presentation of current NOTAM information of operational significance, prepared prior to flight.
A. Pre-flight information bulletin
B. Post flight information
C. NOTAM checklist
D. List of valid NOTAM
Pre-flight Information must be made available at
A. All civil and military airports
B. All aerodromes normally used for international operations
C. All aerodromes serving long-haul flights
D. All aerodromes service regional flights only
Pre-flight information bulletin (PIB) shall be established based on the first stage of the route, from the departure to
A. Alternate aerodrome
B. First landing
C. (1) and (2)
D. (1) or (2)
Pre-flight information bulletins contain information on the status of facilities and services taken from
A. Current NOTAM and made available to flight crews
B. AIP, AIP AMDT
C. AIP SUP, AIP AMDT
D. d. (2) and (3)
When receiving the PIB, crew members shall be required by to sign their full name on the PIB record
A. The AD AIS unit
B. The ATS Reporting Office
C. The MET Briefing Office
D. The Ground Unit
In case the PIBs have been received by crew members and if there are any significant changes in connection with the flight, the contents of that NOTAM shall be informed immediately to the crew members via
A. MET unit
B. SAR unit
C. TWR, ACC or by airlines representatives involved
D. Ground unit
What is the post-flight report?
A. The report that a pilot submits before a flight
B. The report that a pilot submits whenever he has a complaint
C. The report that a pilot submits after a flight
D. In case of fire, what should an on-duty employee do
The purpose of is to ensure that inadequacies of facilities essential to the safety of flight operations, and the presence of birds on or around the airport constituting a potential hazard to aircraft operations, observed by a pilot during the flight, are reported without delay to the authority responsible for those facilities
A. Pre-flight information bulletins
B. Verbal briefing
C. Post-flight information
D. Self-briefing
Post-flight information received at aerodrome/heliport information concerning the State and the operation of air navigation facilities is normally noted by
A. Flight operators
B. Airlines personnel
C. ATC
D. Pilots
In case the Post-flight report of crew members or air operators is confirmed as correct, who shall immediately inform the associated ATS units to alert or directly alert to crew members?
A. The MET Briefing Office at the airport
B. The aerodrome AIS unit at the airport
C. The ATS Reporting Office at the airport
D. The Air traffic services at the airport
On receipt of Post-flight information from the pilot, the AIS unit at the airport shall
A. File it away
B. Wait for notam to be issued by the foreign authority
C. Issue notam
D. Immediately inform relevant organizations, units to verify the accuracy of the information
Which ICAO document provides the standards and recommended practices of AIS?
A. Annex 15
B. Doc 7383
C. Doc 8126
D. Doc 8585
What is the title of Annex 19?
A. Aeronautical Information Services
B. Aerodromes
C. Safety Management
D. Security
Which Annex contains the Standard and Recommended Practices for all types of aeronautical charts?
A. Annex 4
B. Annex 5
C. Annex 14
What is the title of Annex 10?
A. Operation of Aircraft
B. Aeronautical Telecommunications
C. Security
D. Facilitation
In which ICAO document can you find the AIRAC effective dates?
A. Doc 8585
B. Doc 8126
C. Doc 7910
D. Doc 4444
In which ICAO document can you find the postal address of AIS of states?
A. Doc 7910
B. Doc 8126
C. Doc 8585
D. Doc 7383
Which ICAO document contains the location indicators?
A. Doc 8585
B. Doc 7383
C. Doc 7910
D. Doc 8400
In which ICAO document can you find the Q Codes?
A. Doc 8697
B. Doc 7910
C. Doc 7383
D. Doc 8400
Which ICAO document contains the designators for Aeronautical Authorities?
A. Doc 8697
B. Doc 7910
C. Doc 8585
D. Doc 8400
What is the title of Annex 14?
A. Aeronautical Information Services
B. Search and Rescue
C. Aerodromes
D. Rules of the Air
How many annexes are used to publish ICAO's standards and recommended practices?
A. 18
B. 19
C. 16
D. 15
As ICAO recommends in Doc 8126, the detailed information on Heliports in the AIP should be found in
A. AD 0
B. AD 1
C. AD 2
D. AD 3
What is the title of Annex 11?
A. Aeronautical Information Services
B. Search and Rescue
C. Air Traffic Services
D. Rules of the Air
ICAO's standards and recommended practices on Search and Rescue can be found in
A. Annex 9
B. Annex 12
C. Annex 13
D. Annex 16
In case the introduction of new approach and/or departure procedures at international aerodromes are needed, a distribution date of (or even longer) in advance of the effective date should be used
A. 14 days
B. 28 days
C. 42 days
D. 56 days
When the AIS does not receive AIRAC material from the responsible authorities/agencies for publication on the next scheduled AIRAC effective date, it must issue a (or other means).
A. NIL notification by AIP
B. TRIGGER notification by NOTAM
C. NIL notification by NOTAM
D. NON AIRAC notification by NOTAM
When information has not been submitted by the AIRAC date, a NIL notification shall be originated and distributed by NOTAM or other suitable means, not later than one cycle before the concerned
A. AIRAC publication date
B. AIRAC effective date
C. AIRAC distribution date
D. AIRAC delivery date
AIP stands for
A. Airport Information Publication
B. Airport International Publication
C. Aeronautical Information Publication
D. Aerodrome Identification Provision
TORA is
A. Take-Off Distance Available
B. Take-Off Run Available
C. Take-Off Available
D. Take-Off Distance
TODA is
A. Take-Off Distance Available
B. Take-Off Run Available
C. Take-Off Available
D. Take-Off Distance
Runway markings shall be
A. Yellow
B. Green
C. Red
D. White
Taxiway markings and aircraft stand markings shall be
A. Yellow
B. Green
C. Red
D. White
An ILS CAT I can guide an arriving aircraft to
A. Decision height of 30 m
B. Outer marker
C. Middle marker
D. Decision height of 60 m
The width of a precision approach runway should be not less than where the code number is 1 or 2.
A. 23m
B. 30 m
C. 45m
D. 60m
The width of a precision approach runway should be not less than where the code number is 4.
A. 23m
B. 30 m
C. 45m
D. 60m
TORA shall be calculated equal
A. The length of RWY
B. The length of RWY and SWY
C. The length of RWY and CWY
D. Distance from displaced threshold
Aerodrome reference point is the designated geographical location of
A. An apron
B. An aerodrome
C. A TWR
D. A stand
Runway visual range can be reported in
A. a SIGMET
B. Both a TAF and a METAR
C. a METAR
D. a TAF
RVR stands for
A. Runway visual range
B. Runway visibility range
C. Runway visual rule
D. Prevailing visibility
Foot = ?
A. The length equal to 0.304 8 meter
B. The length equal to 0.314 8 meter
C. The length equal to 0.300 8 meter
D. The length equal to 0.305 meter
Knot (kt) = ?
A. The speed equal to 1 nautical mile per hour
B. The speed equal to 1 kilometre per hour
C. The speed equal to 1 nautical mile per metre
D. The speed equal to 2 nautical mile per hour
What is the Unit of measurement used to express radius in the Q line (NOTAM format)?
A. NM
B. M
C. KM
D. FT
Viet Nam is +7hr ahead of UTC. When the UTC time is 2330, what is the local Viet Nam time?
A. 0600LT
B. 0630LT (next day)
C. 1630LT
D. 0830LT (next day)
The pilot of an aircraft experience two-way radio communication failure shall set his transponder to code
A. A/3 7400
B. A/3 7500
C. A/3 7600
D. A/3 7700
The International routes to be used for
A. International flights
B. Domestic flights
C. International and Domestic flights
D. Military flights
A Precision instrument approach of CAT II operation with a decision height
A. Not lower than 60m
B. Not lower than 50m
C. Lower than 60m but not lower than 30m
D. Lower than 30m but not lower than 15m
Transition level is the lowest available for use above the transition altitude
A. Flight level
B. Altitudes
C. Vertical position
D. Elevation
A flight plan for a flight to be provided with air traffic control service shall be submitted at least before departure
A. 60 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 10 minutes
Which part of the AIP contains a list with "Location Indicators"?
A. GEN
B. LOC
C. AD
D. ENR
Definitions - Visual Approach. Also called "Visual Approach" can be performed
A. when either part or all of an instrument approach procedure is not completed and the approach is executed in visual reference to terrain
B. during IFR approaches, if the cloud base is 1000 ft higher than the appropriate DA or MDA for that procedure, and the visibility is at least 5.5 km.
C. during IFR and VFR flights in VMC;
D. during IFR flights, if the cloudbase is 1000 ft more than the appropriate DA or MDA for that procedure;
An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if:
A. all mentioned answers are correct
B. the aircraft gets radar vectors ;
C. the pilot is following the published approach procedure
D. the pilot has the field and the underlying terrain in sight and will keep it in sight
The EAT[HD1] has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as possible, in case the expected delay is
A. 10 minutes
B. 20 minutes
C. 5 minutes or more.
D. 15 minutes or more
Except when prescribed in procedures or made possible by agreements, aircraft under radar-control shall not be vectored closer to the boundary of controlled airspace than
A. 2.5 NM
B. 5 NM
C. 1.5 NM
D. 3 NM
During radar-control, a "radar-controller" shall issue a missed-approach instruction, in case the "tower-controller" has not issued a "landing clearance" at the moment the aircraft is:
A. 2 NM from touch-down;
B. 3 NM from touch-down;
C. 1NM from touch-down;
D. 4 NM from touch-down;
Airspace Classification - Services: During a "Visual Approach" in Controlled Airspace Class C
A. ATC will provide separation with other traffic.
B. ATC will provide separation with arriving but not with departing traffic.
C. ATC will provide separation between flights under IFR, Pilots are responsible for separation between flights under VFR.
D. Pilots are responsible for separation with arriving and departing aircraft.
A Special Air Report comprises a number of sections. In section I the pilot fills in:
A. a position report, including aircraft identification, height, position and time ;
B. urgent messages
C. weather noted ;
D. flight identification and weather noted ;
On a non-precision approach a so-called "straight-in-approach" is considered acceptable, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centreline is
A. 30 degrees or less
B. 20 degrees or less
C. 40 degrees or less
D. 10 degrees or less
To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E:
A. Two way radio communication is not required.
B. A clearance is required.
C. A clearance and/or two-way radio communication is required.
D. A clearance and two-way radio communication is required.
Which statement regarding approach control service is correct ?
A. If it is anticipated that an aircraft has to hold for 30 minutes or more, an Expected Approach Time will be transmitted by the most expeditious means to the aircraft
B. Approach control have to advise the aircraft operators about substantial delays in departure in any event when they are expected to exceed 45 minutes ;
C. During a visual approach an aircraft is maintaining its own separation ;
D. An approach sequence shall be established according to the sequence of initial radio contact between aircraft and approach control ;
