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CNBR 1-5

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What class of medications should most be avoided in a patient with bradykinesia, dementia, and likely ubiquitin-positive Lewy bodies in the cortex on pathological examination?

a)

Anticholinergic

b)

Atypical antipsychotic

c)

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory

d)

Typical antipsychotic

e)

Dopamine agonist

2.

What pain procedure is best for nerve avulsion pain?

a)

Spinal cord stimulation

b)

Selective dorsal rhizotomy

c)

Midline myelotomy

d)

C1-C2 cordotomy

e)

Dorsal root entry zone lesioning

3.

A representative scan from a susceptibility-weighted MRI sequence of a patient’s brain is shown in this image. What is correct about this patient’s disease entity?

a)

Related to poorly controlled hypertension

b)

May be related to mutations in the CCM gene family

c)

May be seen in young patients with sickle cell disease

d)

Characterized by β-amyloid peptide deposits

4.

A study has been designed to test the association between weight lifting and the likelihood of developing lumbar back pain. The following results have been obtained:

Z-test

a)

Z-test

b)

T-test

c)

Rank-sum test

d)

Chi-square

e)

ANOVA

5.

What ganglion receives fibers from the anterior two thirds of the tongue?Pterygopalatine

a)

Pterygopalatine

b)

Gasserian

c)

Otic

d)

Geniculate

e)

Nodosal

6.

A 2-year-old boy presents with an inability to track objects without turning his head. He is noted on exam to have a static facial expression, and no movement in the facial musculature is seen bilaterally. He also is noted by his parents to be able to push up when he is in the prone position. What is the patient’s diagnosis?

a)

Duane syndrome

b)

Mobius syndrome

c)

Poland anomaly

d)

Kallmann syndrome

e)

Klippel-Feil anomaly

7.

A man with HIV, who is a poorly compliant patient, presents with new-onset seizures. An MRI of the brain shows a ring-enhancing lesion with an eccentric “target” sign on contrast enhanced T1 images. This finding likely represents:

a)

Lymphoma

b)

Cryptococcosis

c)

Cytomegalovirus

d)

Toxoplasmosis

8.

Babies with postinfectious and posthemorrhagic hydrocephalus can have the highest success rate of treatment with what procedure?

a)

Shunt placement

b)

Septum pellucidotomy

c)

Endoscopic third ventriculostomy (ETV)

d)

Acetazolamide therapy

e)

ETV and choroid plexus coagulation (CPC)

9.

What nerve endings are nonencapsulated and are found in the alimentary tract, between epithelial cells of the skin, in the cornea, and in connective tissues?

a)

Free nerve endings

b)

Merkel disks

c)

Hair follicle receptors

d)

Missner corpuscles

e)

Pacinian corpuscles

10.

What is a characteristic imaging finding of metachromatic leukodystrophy?

a)

T2 hyperintensity in the dorsomedial and pulvinar thalamic nuclei

b)

Symmetric basal ganglia lesions

c)

Leading edge of enhancement

d)

“Tigroid” pattern

11.

What is the outcome of activating the carotid sinus reflex in a patient with a normal blood pressure and heart rate?

a)

Bradycardia and hypertension

b)

Tachycardia and hypotension

c)

Bradycardia and hypotension

d)

Tachycardia and hypertension

12.

What agent reverses angiographic vasospasm following aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage?

a)

Oral nimodipine

b)

Oral verapamil

c)

Intravenous nicardipine

d)

Intravenous erythropoietin

e)

Intravenous magnesium sulfate

13.

A 40-year-old man underwent an MRI of the brain, demonstrating the lesion shown in these images. The lesion was resected and stained positive for vimentin and CD34, with histological analysis demonstrating uniform spindle cells and staghorn vessels. What is the patient’s likely diagnosis?

a)

Hemangiopericytoma

b)

Meningioma

c)

Lymphoma

d)

Neurosarcoid

14.

According to the North American Symptomatic Carotid Endarterectomy Trial (NASCET), a carotid endarterectomy is indicated for what type of carotid artery stenosis?

a)

Symptomatic carotid artery stenosis greater than 60%

b)

Asymptomatic carotid artery stenosis greater than 60% if the patient is younger than 75 years of age

c)

Asymptomatic carotid artery stenosis greater than 50%

d)

Symptomatic carotid artery stenosis less than 30%

e)

Symptomatic carotid artery stenosis 70 to 99%

15.

A 24-year-old man presents with progressive back pain. Imaging demonstrated an expansile osteolytic lesion in the posterior elements of the middle thoracic spine with a fluid–fluid level. What is the patient’s likely pathology?

a)

Spinal metastatic lesion

b)

Aneurysmal bone cyst

c)

Osteoid osteoma

d)

Osteoblastoma

e)

Eosinophilic granuloma

16.

In the electron micrograph shown in this image, what component of the sarcomere contains only myosin?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

17.

. A 45-year-old woman who underwent total bilateral adrenalectomies for Cushing disease 3 years ago returns to clinic with skin hyperpigmentation. What is cause of the hyperpigmentation in this patient?

a)

Melanin-stimulating hormone (MSH) overproduction

b)

Increased production of ACTH secondary to recurrence of Cushing disease

c)

New-onset hemochromatosis

d)

Postinflammatory hyperpigmentation secondary to decreased total steroids

e)

Skin hypersensitivity to the sun

18.

At what segment of the vertebral artery shown in this image is the arrow pointing?

a)

V1

b)

V2

c)

V3

d)

V4

e)

V5

19.

 A 4-week-old neonate presents with progressive macrocrania. The Brain MRI, shown in this image, suggests:

a)

Benign extra-axial hygromas

b)

Chronic subdural hematomas

c)

Hydrocephalus

d)

Epidural hematomas

e)

Subdural empyemas

20.

. What chemotherapy agent used for central nervous system tumors works by carbamylating amino groups and inducing DNA cross-linking?

a)

Carmustine

b)

Tamoxifen

c)

Temozolomide

d)

Cyclophosphate

21.

What is the infusion volume of one unit of packed red blood cells in children, and by how much is it expected to increase hemoglobin?

a)

10 cc/kg; 1 g/dL

b)

10 cc/kg; 2 to 3 g/dL

c)

20 cc/kg; 1 g/dL

d)

20 cc/kg; 2 to 3 g/dL

e)

40 cc/kg; 1 g/dL

22.

What structure is deep to the arrow in this view from the endoscope during a resection of a pituitary macroadenoma using a transnasal transsphenoidal approach?Pituitary gland

a)

Pituitary gland

b)

Pituitary stalk

c)

Internal carotid artery

d)

Optic nerve

e)

Sella turcica floor

23.

What target for deep brain stimulation is thought to provide the best control of essential tremors?

a)

Globus pallidus pars externa

b)

Subthalamic nucleus

c)

Head of the caudate nucleus

d)

Ventral intermediate nucleus of the thalamus

e)

Globus pallidus pars interna

24.

A patient with severe, large-amplitude hemiballismus in his right upper extremity most likely has a lesion involving what basal ganglia structure?

a)

Ipsilateral putamen

b)

Contralateral putamen

c)

Ipsilateral subthalamic nucleus

d)

Contralateral subthalamic nucleus

25.

Fibers from the flocculonodular lobe of the cerebellum synapse on the vestibular nuclei after first synapsing on what nuclei?

a)

Dentate nuclei

b)

Emboliform nuclei

c)

Globose nuclei

d)

Fastigial nuclei

e)

No additional nuclei

26.

What organ would respond to systemic cocaine administration but not to systemic atropine administration?

a)

Heart

b)

Salivary glands

c)

Pancreas

d)

Sweat glands

e)

Pupils

27.

A 20-year-old man with a history of bipolar disease presents with an acute onset of right-sided hemiparesis and expressive aphasia. According to the CT shown in this image, and assuming the most likely diagnosis, what is the risk of re-hemorrhage?

a)

4% in the first 24 hours after hemorrhage

b)

20% in the first 2 weeks after hemorrhage

c)

50% in the first 6 months after hemorrhage

d)

4 to 6% per year

e)

Less than 1% over a lifetime

28.

A woman presents to the emergency department with dizziness, nystagmus, and a feeling of falling toward the left. An MRI of the brain was performed, and a representative scan is shown in this image. What vessel likely is involved in this patient’s condition?

a)

Pontomesencephalic artery

b)

Anterior inferior cerebellar artery

c)

Superior cerebellar artery

d)

Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

29.

A sharply circumscribed, lucent lesion with beveled edges is demonstrated on a skull radiograph of a child. What is the likely diagnosis?

a)

Langerhans cell histiocytosis

b)

Hemangioma

c)

Intraosseous meningioma

d)

Metastasis

30.

The afferents from the mammillothalamic tract project from the mammillary bodies to what thalamic nuclei?

a)

Centromedian nuclei

b)

Anterior nuclei

c)

Ventral lateral nuclei

d)

Lateral posterior nuclei

e)

Medial dorsal nuclei

31.

What muscle typically is innervated by the radial nerve itself and not by one of its terminal branches?

a)

A.Extensor carpi radialis longus

b)

Extensor carpi radialis brevis

c)

Extensor carpi ulnaris

d)

Extensor carpi ulnaris

e)

Abductor pollicis longus

32.

A 78-year-old woman presents to the emergency room complaining of weakness and long-standing headaches. She reports that the weakness began in the right upper extremity and then proceeded to involve the right lower extremity followed by the left lower extremity and, most recently, the left upper extremity. Based on these clinical findings, what is the most likely pathological cause of the patient’s symptoms?

a)

Interhemispheric mass

b)

Brainstem infarct

c)

Cervical spine epidural hematoma

d)

Foramen magnum tumor

e)

Third ventricle tumor

33.

The most important predictor of outcome in children with pediatric ependymomas is:

a)

Gross total resection

b)

Radiosurgery

c)

Dose of conformal radiation

d)

Chemotherapy

e)

Steroids

34.

A 5-month-old boy underwent an MRI of the brain,shown in these images. What may be a related finding?Abdominal mass

a)

Abdominal mass

b)

Opisthotonos

c)

Fever

d)

Cutaneous bruising

35.

If additional sodium channels were opened on a neuron at its maximal point of depolarization during an action potential, what would happen to sodium ion flux and membrane potential?

a)

Sodium flux and membrane potential would not change as they are maximized at this point in the action potential.

b)

Sodium ions would enter the neuron, and membrane potential would become more positive

c)

Sodium ions would leave the neuron, and membrane potential would become more positive.

d)

Sodium ions would enter the neuron, and membrane potential would become less positive.

e)

Sodium ions would leave the neuron, and membrane potential would become less positive.

36.

The sural nerve is formed from the combination of two nerves arising from what larger branches?

a)

Deep and superficial peroneal nerves

b)

Tibial and common peroneal nerves

c)

Tibial and femoral nerves

d)

Common peroneal and femoral nerves

e)

Superficial peroneal and tibial nerves

37.

This image shows cerebral vessels stained with Congo red. What is the underlying disease process represented in the image?

a)

Moyamoya disease

b)

Cavernous hemangioma

c)

Cerebral angiopathy

d)

Mucormycosis

e)

Radiation necrosis

38.

A patient presents with exophthalmos and an Orbital bruit. What is the likely finding on CT of the brain and orbits?

a)

Orbital mass

b)

Engorgement of the extraocular muscles

c)

Enlarged ophthalmic artery

d)

Unruptured cavernous sinus aneurysm

e)

Flattening of the posterior aspect of the globe

39.

The cerebral venous angle occurs at what junction?

a)

Internal cerebral vein and basal vein of Rosenthal

b)

Septal and thalamostriate veins

c)

Vein of Galen and inferior sagittal sinus

d)

Caudate and thalamostriate veins

e)

Torcular

40.

What is the standard radiation regimen for stereotactic radiosurgery for trigeminal neuralgia?

a)

20 Gy in four doses directed at the center of the lesion

b)

20 Gy in four doses directed to extend beyond the periphery of the lesion

c)

80 Gy in a single dose directed at the center of the lesion

d)

80 Gy in a single dose directed to extend beyond the periphery of the lesion

e)

100 Gy in a single dose directed at the center of the lesion

41.

The tumor shown in these images was found to have rosettes and perivascular pseudorosettes on microscopic examination, and stained positive for glial fibrillary acidic protein. What is a characteristic of the lesion?

a)

It commonly arises from the roof of the fourth ventricle.

b)

It is associated with neurofibromatosis type 1.

c)

It may be complicated by polycythemia

d)

Calcification and hemorrhage are common

42.

Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by increasing followed by decreasing tidal volumes separated by periods of apnea. They are seen in heart failure, with rapid blood sugar changes, and in stroke. Where do Cheyne-Stokes respirations originate?

a)

Carotid bodies, pons, and cerebral hemispheres

b)

Diencephalon, medulla, and dorsal pons

c)

Basal ganglia, pons, and cerebral hemispheres

d)

Diencephalon, pons, and carotid bodies

e)

Diencephalon, basal ganglia, and cerebral hemispheres

43.

A patient with bluish pigmentation of the auricles and sclerae presents for evaluation. Levels of homogentisic acid in his urine are elevated. What finding is likely to be seen on a CT of the patient’s spine?

a)

Wedging of adjacent vertebrae

b)

Multifocal Schmorl nodes

c)

Extensive intervertebral disk calcification

d)

H-shaped vertebrae

44.

A 58-year-old man presents with delusions and hallucinations. His wife reports that he has been complaining recently of headaches, irritability, and sleep disturbance, and that he has had a progressive memory decline over the past month. Brain MRI shows high T2 signal without enhancement, mostly in the left mesial temporal lobe. Chest radiograph shows a centrally located pulmonary mass. Cerebrospinal fluid examination shows elevated lymphocytes, elevated protein, normal glucose, elevated IgG index, and oligoclonal bands. Herpes virus PCR is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Herpes simplex encephalitis

b)

Limbic encephalitis

c)

Pontine stroke

d)

Paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration

e)

Multiple sclerosis

45.

What type of receptor is found on sweat glands along postganglionic sympathetic fibers?

a)

Muscarinic

b)

Adrenergic

c)

AMPA

d)

NMDA

e)

Nicotinic

46.

Sagittal balance is measure from what two positions?

a)

C1 to L5

b)

Opisthion to L5

c)

T1 to sacrum

d)

C7 to sacrum

e)

C7 to L5

47.

A 33-year-old, otherwise healthy man underwent an MRI, shown in these images. Histological analysis of his lesion revealed a large amount of mucin with formation of rosettes and pseudorosettes. “Collagen balls” were evident on periodic acid-Schiff staining. This lesion is consistent with a:

a)

Schwannoma

b)

Metastasis

c)

Myxopapillary ependymoma

d)

Neurofibroma

e)

Paraganglioma

48.

What is the best route for vitamin K administration in the setting of life-threatening hemorrhage in a patient on warfarin

a)

Oral

b)

Intravenous bolus

c)

Subcutaneous

d)

Intravenous slow continuous infusion

e)

Intra-arterial

49.

A 68-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension, and multiple prior transient ischemic attacks presents to the emergency department with left-sided hemiplegia and a facial droop. Conventional angiography is performed after MRI of the brain. A digital subtraction image of the patient’s right carotid artery bifurcation is shown in this image. What is the angiographic finding?

a)

Internal carotid artery dissection

b)

Complete occlusion of the internal carotid artery

c)

Fibromuscular dysplasia

d)

Formation of a pseudoaneurysm with flow artifact

e)

Critical carotid artery stenosis with intraluminal thrombus

50.

A 9-month-old, nonvaccinated girl is brought to the emergency room for generalized seizures. She has a stiff neck, is poorly responsive, and has a temperature of 39.1°C. Her parents report that she had one episode of diarrhea earlier in the day. Cerebrospinal fluid Gram stain is negative. What pathogen most likely is the origin of these symptoms?

a)

Cryptococcus

b)

Haemophilus influenzae

c)

Neisseria meningitidis

d)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

e)

Herpes simplex virus

51.

Representative scans of a brain MRI examination in a child are shown in these images. What likely is related directly to the neuroimaging findings?

a)

Nonaccidental trauma

b)

Congenital aqueductal stenosis

c)

Sepsis

d)

Medulloblastoma

52.

What triangle of the skull base is formed by the lateral border of cranial nerve IV, medial border of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, and dura between the dural entry points of both cranial nerves IV and the ophthalmic division of V?

a)

Oculomotor

b)

Parkinson (infratrochlear)

c)

Glasscock

d)

Kawase

e)

Inferolateral

53.

What feature of a burst fracture may imply instability and the need for surgery?

a)

Loss of height of 25%

b)

Angulation of 5 degrees

c)

Residual canal diameter 80% of normal

d)

Pain that improves with bracing

e)

Injury to the posterior ligamentous complex

54.

A patient presents with a nystagmus described as the eyes moving up and down discordantly with intorsion of the rising eye and extorsion of the falling eye. What visual field abnormality might be seen on exam?

a)

Loss of peripheral vision (tunnel vision)

b)

Bitemporal hemianopsia

c)

Central scotoma

d)

Binasal hemianopsia

e)

Unilateral inferior hemianopsia

55.

Compared to primary glioblastomas, secondary glioblastomas tend to express what histopathological characteristics?

a)

EGFR gene amplification

b)

PTEN gene mutations

c)

TP53 gene mutations

d)

Allelic gain of chromosomes 10q and 19q

e)

Increased GFAP staining

56.

You perform surgery on a patient with a far lateral herniated disk at L4/L5. You use a lateral approach, and the pars interarticularis is identified. The L4 nerve root can be found anterior to what structure?

a)

L4 pedicle

b)

L5 pedicle

c)

Intertransverse ligament

d)

Disk space

e)

Multifidus muscle

57.

What muscle is innervated by the superior laryngeal nerve?

a)

Transverse arytenoid

b)

Posterior cricoarytenoid

c)

Cricothyroid

d)

Geniohyoid

e)

Stylopharyngeus

58.

The cerebellum projects to what thalamic nucleus (nuclei)?

a)

Anterior nuclei group

b)

Ventral lateral nucleus

c)

Ventral posterior lateral nucleus

d)

Ventral posterior medial nucleus

e)

Medial geniculate body

59.

. What type of nystagmus can be associated with Parinaud syndrome?

a)

Downbeat nystagmus

b)

Seesaw nystagmus

c)

Nystagmus retractorius

d)

Abducting nystagmus

60.

A 65-year-old man undergoes an MRI of the brain.

The enhancing lesion shown in these images demonstrates

diffuse low apparent diffusion coefficient

values. What is the patient’s likely diagnosis?

a)

Glioblastoma

b)

Lymphoma

c)

Tumefactive demyelination

d)

Infection

61.

What feature can distinguish a foot drop caused by L5 nerve root pathology from a foot drop caused by a common peroneal nerve (CPN) palsy?

a)

An L5 nerve root palsy will include weakness of anterior tibialis, which is spared with a CPN palsy.

b)

There is weak internal rotation of the hip with a CPN palsy, which is spared with an L5 nerve root palsy.

c)

There is weakness of foot inversion with an L5 nerve root palsy, which is spared with a CPN palsy.

d)

 There is weakness in plantarflexion with a CPN palsy, which is spared with an L5 nerve root palsy.

62.

An MRI of the brain was obtained in an 8-year-old boy during a workup for macrocephaly. Axial T2 and FLAIR scans are shown in these images. What is the boy’s likely diagnosis?

a)

Porencephalic cyst

b)

Arachnoid cyst

c)

Neurenteric cyst

d)

Schizencephaly

63.

What are the electroencephalographic changes seen in herpetic encephalitis?

a)

Alpha activity over occipital areas

b)

Beta activity over temporal areas

c)

Alpha activity over frontal areas

d)

3-Hz spike-and-wave discharges

e)

Periodic sharp wave complexes

64.

21-year-old man presents to the emergency room with a radial fracture and wrist drop. What finding supports the diagnosis of injury to the radial nerve and not the posterior cord?

a)

Lack of weakness in the deltoid and latissimus dorsi

b)

Lack of weakness in the serratus anterior

c)

Lack of weakness in the rhomboids

d)

Lack of sensation loss in the medial forearm

e)

Weakness of the brachioradialis

65.

When considering a surgical approach to the L4/L5 level, what complication is seen with an anterior lumbar interbody fusion (ALIF) that generally is avoided with an extreme lateral interbody fusion (XLIF)?

a)

Vascular injury

b)

Neurologic injury

c)

High-volume blood loss

d)

Sexual dysfunction

e)

Interbody subsidence

66.

A 56-year-old man underwent an uneventful craniotomy for the resection of a meningioma. On the second postoperative day, he started complaining of increasing headaches and subsequently became unresponsive. An emergent CT of the head is shown in this image. What therapy should be administered or performed next?

a)

Lumbar puncture

b)

Hypertonic saline

c)

Surgical decompression

d)

Mannitol

67.

 A 44-year-old man presents to clinic with new double vision and uncoordinated walking. You notice that he has trouble smiling due to weakness on both sides of his face. No other weakness is noted on physical exam. He states that he just recovered from the flu. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Multiple sclerosis

b)

Cerebellar stroke

c)

Miller Fisher syndrome

d)

Ethanol intoxication

e)

Myasthenia gravis

68.

What is the term for stimulation of the median or tibial nerve with averaging of the electroencephalographic waveforms to null out activity that is not time locked to the stimulus?

a)

Motor evoked potential

b)

Brainstem auditory evoked response

c)

Somatosensory evoked potential

d)

Electroencephalogram

e)

Electromyography

69.

A 12-year-old child with shunted hydrocephalus since birth presents with severe abdominal pain and vomiting. Ultrasound is concerning for a large pseudocyst around the peritoneal catheter tip. The next step in this patient’s management should involve:

a)

Antibiotics alone

b)

Complete shunt removal and placement of a ventricular drain

c)

Peritoneal tap

d)

Shunt externalization

e)

Observation

70.

Which Modic type change is hyperintense on T1 and iso- to hyperintense on T2 MRI?

a)

Type 1

b)

Type 2

c)

Type 3

d)

Type 4

71.

What is the function of the nucleus ambiguus?

a)

Provides special visceral efferent fibers to the stylopharyngeus and the laryngeal, pharyngeal, and palatine musculature

b)

Provides special visceral afferent fibers from the posterior one third of the tongue

c)

Provides general visceral efferent fibers to the otic ganglion and eventually the parotid gland

d)

Provides general visceral efferent fibers to the greater petrosal nerve and eventually the pterygopalatine ganglion

e)

Provides special visceral efferent fibers to stylohyoid, stapedius, and posterior belly of the digastric

72.

What abnormality is seen on the axial T1-weighted MRI of the lumbar spine shown in this image?

a)

Diffuse bulging disk

b)

Paracentral protrusion

c)

Central extrusion

d)

Foraminal/extraforaminal extrusion

e)

Asymmetrically bulging disk

73.

After suffering a skull base fracture in a motor vehicle collision, a patient presents with persistent rhinorrhea. The most specific finding to determine if this fluid is cerebrospinal fluid is:

a)

Presence of β2-transferrin

b)

Presence of glucose

c)

Positive ring sign

d)

Positive reservoir sign

e)

Salty taste reported by the patient

74.

What deficit is expected with an S1 nerve injury?

a)

Weakness of dorsiflexion and ankle inversion

b)

Weakness of plantarflexion and ankle eversion

c)

Weakness of dorsiflexion and ankle eversion

d)

Weakness of plantarflexion and ankle inversion

75.

A patient presents with unilateral decreased visual acuity over 2 days. She complains of severe eye pain. What is the most likely cause of the symptoms?

a)

Atherosclerosis

b)

Arteritis

c)

Demyelination

d)

Retinal artery embolism

e)

Increased intracranial pressure

76.

What is the Evans ratio?

a)

Largest width of the frontal horns divided by the internal diameter of the

     skull from the inner table to the inner table at this level

b)

Largest width of the frontal horns divided by the largest width of the

     third ventricle

c)

Largest width of the frontal horns divided by the maximal biparietal diameter of the skull from the inner table to the inner table

d)

Occipital-frontal circumference divided by age (in months) of the child

77.

What paralytic has the shortest time to onset and duration?

a)

Succinylcholine

b)

Rocuronium

c)

Atracurium

d)

Atracurium

e)

Vecuronium

78.

What feature favors a chordoma over a chondrosarcoma?

a)

Lower apparent diffusion coefficient values

b)

Well-circumscribed lesion margins on MRI

c)

Marked T2 hyperintensity

d)

Heterogeneous enhancement

e)

Location at the petroclival synchondrosis

79.

A patient presents with severe back pain that is worse at night and improves when taking aspirin. CT shows an expansile, radiolucent, 2-cm sclerotic lesion in the thoracic pedicle with cord compression and a contralateral spondylolysis. The optimal treatment includes:

a)

Curettage

b)

Complete resection

c)

X-ray therapy

d)

External bracing

e)

Needle biopsy

80.

Subthalamic nucleus deep brain stimulation is a surgical treatment for Parkinson disease. Where is the subthalamic nucleus located?

a)

Ventral to the thalamus, dorsal to the substantia nigra, and medial to

     the internal capsule

b)

Ventral to the thalamus, posterior to the third ventricle, and lateral to

     the globus pallidus

c)

Dorsal to the thalamus, ventral to the substantia nigra, and medial to

     the internal capsule

d)

Ventral to the splenium of the corpus callosum, dorsal to the

     quadrigeminal plate, and medial to the thalamus

e)

Ventral to the thalamus, dorsal to the lamina terminalis, and ventral to the

     red nucleus

81.

What are the radiographic and clinical incidences, respectively, of vasospasm after aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage?

a)

50% and 50%

b)

10% and 90%

c)

30% and 70%

d)

70% and 30%

e)

100% and 50%

82.

What percentage of children with a Chiari 2 malformation become clinically symptomatic and require surgical decompression?

a)

10%

b)

30%

c)

50%

d)

80%

e)

100%

83.

Horner syndrome can be associated with what lesion or pathology?

a)

Thoracic outlet syndrome and Pancoast tumors

b)

Pancoast tumors and shoulder dislocation

c)

Thoracic outlet syndrome and shoulder dislocation

d)

Pancoast tumors and T5 Chance fractures

e)

Thoracic outlet syndrome and T5 Chance fractures

84.

. Axial contrast-enhanced T1- and T2-weighted MRI scans of the brain of a 33-year-old man are shown in these images. What is the patient’s likely diagnosis?

a)

Ependymoma

b)

Hemangioblastoma

c)

Medulloblastoma

d)

Juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma

e)

Metastasis

85.

What is the formula for estimating a patient’s lumbar lordosis (LL)?

a)

LL = Pelvic tilt + 10

b)

LL = Sacral slope + 5

c)

LL = Pelvic tilt + 5

d)

LL = Pelvic incidence + 10

e)

LL = Pelvic incidence – 10

86.

A 9-year-old boy presents with a headache, upgaze palsy, and pineal region mass. A cerebrospinal fluid analysis was performed showing elevated β-HCG levels. What tumor type is suspected?

a)

Choriocarcinoma

b)

Embryonal carcinoma

c)

Germinoma

d)

Teratoma

e)

Yolk sac tumor

87.

What is the best description for the acidotic/alkalotic state for a patient with the following set of lab values?

pH: 7.44

PaCO2: 26 mm Hg

HCO3 –: 20 mEq/L

PaO2: 53 mm Hg

a)

Respiratory alkalosis with no metabolic compensation

b)

Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation

c)

Respiratory alkalosis with metabolic compensation

d)

Mixed respiratory alkalosis and metabolicacidosis

e)

Combined respiratory and metabolic alkalosis

88.

What are the criteria for monitoring personnel to notify the surgeon about during somatosensory evoked potential recording intraoperatively?

a)

More prominent waveforms

b)

Decrease in peak amplitude more than 50% and decrease in latency more than 10%

c)

Increase in peak amplitude more than 50% and decrease in latency more than 50%

d)

Decrease in peak amplitude more than 50 and increase in latency more than 50%

e)

Decrease in peak amplitude more than 50% and increase in latency more than 10%

89.

How does the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) affect cerebral edema?

a)

SIADH decreases cerebral edema

b)

SIADH increases cerebral edema

c)

SIADH has no effect on cerebral edema

d)

. SIADH decreases and then increases cerebral edema

90.

 A 45-year-old man has paralysis in cranial nerves IX through XII. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Medial medullary syndrome

b)

Brainstem stroke

c)

Glomus jugulare tumor

d)

Lateral medullary syndrome

e)

Lateral pontine syndrome

91.

A 38-year-old woman with a history of Hodgkin lymphoma treated with brentuximab presents with altered mental status. Axial T2- and postcontrast T1-weighted images of the brain are shown in these images. The lesions did not show restricted diffusion. What is the likely diagnosis?

a)

Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome

b)

Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis

c)

Tumefactive demyelination

d)

Central nervous system lymphoma

92.

Nociceptive pain travels along what spinal tract?

a)

Lateral spinothalamic tract

b)

Anterior spinothalamic tract

c)

Dorsal spinocerebellar tract

d)

Dorsal columns

93.

What is the Magerl technique for placement of lateral

mass screws?

a)

Use a starting point 1 mm medial to the midpoint of the lateral mass and

     the midpoint of the mass in the craniocaudal axis, and aim 30 degrees laterally

     and  15 degrees cephalad.

b)

Use a starting point 2 mm medial and 1 to 2 mm superior to the center of

     the lateral mass, and aim 20 to 25 degrees laterally and 30 Degrees

     superiorly (parallel to facet joint).

c)

Use a starting point at the midpoint of the mediolateral and craniocaudal axes

     of the lateral mass, and aim 0 to 10 degrees laterally and 0 degrees in

     the craniocaudal axis.

d)

Use a starting point at the contralateral spinolaminar junction, and aim toward

     the junction of the transverse process and contralateral superior facet.

e)

Use a starting point at the mid–facet line where the superior facet joins

    the transverse process, and aim 5 to 10 degrees medially and 10 to 20

    degrees caudally

94.

A 53-year-old man patient with a sudden onset of headache and meningismus underwent a CT of the head that showed a small amount of subarachnoid blood limited to the prepontine and interpeduncular cisterns. Conventional angiography at admission and 2 weeks later was negative for a vascular lesion. What is a characteristic of this patient’s likely entity?

a)

It has a high incidence of re-hemorrhage

b)

It has a high incidence of hydrocephalus.

c)

It represents an aneurysm often obscured by vasospasm.

d)

A sentinel headache usually is absent.

95.

In patients with intracranial pressure monitors, what waveform is characterized by Traube-Hering arterial waves that have variable intracranial pressure elevations with a frequency of 4 to 8 per minute?

a)

Lundberg A waves

b)

Lundberg B waves

c)

Lundberg C waves

d)

Lundberg D waves

96.

A man with clinical hypercortisolism undergoes a dexamethasone suppression test. He has no changes in his cortisol levels with low-dose dexamethasone administration; however, cortisol is suppressed with high-dose dexamethasone. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Cushing syndrome

b)

Ectopic ACTH productionAddison disease

c)

Cushing disease

d)

Addison disease

97.

What is the likely diagnosis represented in the gradient echo based and diffusion-weighted sequences shown in these images?

a)

Chronic hypertensive encephalopathy

b)

Cortical contusions

c)

Fat embolism

d)

Septic emboli

e)

Diffuse axonal injuryv

98.

What is the etiology of blindness unique to the transseptal approach to the sella turcica?

a)

Damage to cranial nerves from a cavernous sinus hematoma

b)

Orbital wall fracture

c)

Devascularization of the optic chiasm

d)

Injury to the ophthalmic artery

e)

Injury to the optic radiations

99.

A patient presents with polytrauma after a motor vehicle collision, with multiple skull base and facial fractures. The patient is discharged and returns with chemosis, pulsatile proptosis, and an ocular bruit. Angiogram reveals a low-flow shunt feeding from meningeal branches of the external carotid artery. What type of carotid-cavernous fistula does this patient have?

a)

Type A

b)

Type B

c)

Type C

d)

Type D

100.

. What is the precursor amino acid involved in the synthesis of melatonin?

a)

Tryptophan

b)

Glycine

c)

Proline

d)

Tyrosine