WorksheetsDIPLOMA LEVEL EXAM
Total questions: 134
Worksheet time: 2hrs 14mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Assertion (A): The shear stress distribution in a rectangular beam is parabolic in nature.
Reason (R): Maximum shear stress occurs at the extreme fibres of the beam.
a)
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b)
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c)
A is true but R is false
d)
A is false but R is true
2.
A simply supported beam of span 4 m carries a uniformly distributed load of 5 kN/m. Calculate the maximum bending stress if the beam has a rectangular cross-section of width 100 mm and depth 200 mm. (E = not needed)
a)
15 MPa
b)
30.0 MPa
c)
25.0 MPa
d)
40.0 MPa
3.
A steel bar 2 m long and 500 mm² in area is subjected to a tensile force of 100 kN. Calculate the strain energy stored in the bar. (E = 200 GPa)
a)
0.1 kJ
b)
0.25 kJ
c)
0.05 kJ
d)
0.2 kJ
4.
Match the following Strength of Materials concepts:
A. Young’s modulus 1. Shear stress/Shear strain
B. Poisson’s ratio 2. Lateral strain/Longitudinal strain
C. Shear modulus 3. Axial stress/Axial strain
D. Bulk modulus 4. Volumetric stress/Volumetric strain
a)
A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
b)
A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
c)
A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
d)
A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
5.
Which type of stress acts tangentially to the surface of the material?
a)
Compressive stress
b)
Tensile stress
c)
Shear stress
d)
Thermal stress
6.
What is the factor of safety if the ultimate tensile strength is 600 MPa and allowable stress is 150 MPa?
a)
4
b)
2.5
c)
5
d)
6
7.
In a cantilever beam subjected to a point load at the free end, maximum bending moment occurs at:
a)
Fixed end
b)
Free end
c)
Mid-span
d)
Load point
8.
Which of the following statements is TRUE for a ductile material under tensile loading?
a)
Fracture occurs immediately after elastic limit
b)
Material fails without yielding
c)
Material undergoes significant plastic deformation before fracture
d)
Material shows brittle behavior
9.
Which of the following errors in chaining increases proportionally with the length of the line and cannot be eliminated by repeating the process?
a)
Sag error
b)
Incorrect tension
c)
Error due to slope
d)
Incorrect alignment of the chain
10.
Which instrument is best suited for locating a point on a line when the end stations are not intervisible due to large buildings or obstructions?
a)
Open cross staff
b)
Line ranger
c)
Optical square
d)
Reciprocal ranging with intermediate rods
11.
Which of the following lines in chain surveying connects two fixed points and helps to locate other points using offsets?
a)
Tie line
b)
Check line
c)
Base line
d)
Random line
12.
Which of the following statements correctly explains the reason for choosing whole circle bearing (WCB) system over reduced bearing (RB) in compass surveying?
a)
WCB is more precise for angular measurements
b)
WCB gives only clockwise angles which simplifies computation
c)
RB allows clearer quadrant identification in the field
d)
RB is the only format recognized by surveyor’s compass
13.
Assertion (A): A closed traverse always starts and ends at the same point. Reason (R): A closed traverse must have equal fore and back bearings for all lines.
a)
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b)
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c)
A is true but R is false
d)
A is false but R is true
14.
What is the angle of dip of the magnetic needle near the magnetic poles of Earth?
a)
0 degrees
b)
45 degrees
c)
90 degrees
d)
180 degrees
15.
Which of the following types of meridian is most suitable for accurate astronomical observations?
a)
True Meridian
b)
Magnetic Meridian
c)
Assumed Meridian
d)
Arbitrary Meridian
16.
The sum of interior angles of a closed traverse with 'n' sides is given by:
a)
(n - 2) × 180°
b)
(2n + 4) × 90°
c)
(2n - 4) × 90°
d)
2n × 90°
17.
In prismatic compass, the zero of the graduated ring is marked at:
a)
0° (North)
b)
180° (South)
c)
90° (West)
d)
270° (East)
18.
Which of the following items is NOT included in a detailed estimate?
a)
Quantity of each item
b)
Unit of measurement
c)
Rate analysis of items
d)
Architect's biography
19.
Which of the following methods is commonly used for calculating earthwork in roads and canals?
a)
Center Line Method
b)
Cross-section Method
c)
Plinth Area Method
d)
Bay Method
20.
Assertion (A): Contingencies are added in estimation to meet unforeseen expenses.
Reason (R): Contingencies are included to pay the contractor's bonus.
a)
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b)
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
c)
A is true, R is false
d)
A is false, R is true
21.
Which of the following terms refers to the deduction made for openings in brickwork estimation?
a)
Plinth deduction
b)
Void allowance
c)
Cutting allowance
d)
Deduction for openings
22.
Calculate the area between the stations spaced at 30 m with offsets 2.2 m, 2.8 m, 3.5 m, and 4.0 m using Simpson’s rule.
a)
244.0 m²
b)
250.0 m²
c)
260.0 m²
d)
240.0 m²
23.
Which of the following is most accurate method of estimation?
a)
Plinth Area Method
b)
Cubic Content Method
c)
Approximate Quantity Method
d)
Detailed Estimate Method
24.
In an estimate, the percentage generally provided for contingencies is:
a)
2%
b)
3%
c)
5%
d)
10%
25.
Which statement is correct regarding abstract of estimate?
a)
It lists only material costs
b)
It includes a summary of all item costs and total project cost
c)
It includes only labor costs
d)
It is prepared before the detailed estimate
26.
Which method of irrigation involves water being applied directly to the root zone of plants through a network of valves and pipes?
a)
Sprinkler Irrigation
b)
Furrow Irrigation
c)
Drip Irrigation
d)
Flood Irrigation
27.
The field capacity of a soil is 30%, permanent wilting point is 12%, and the root zone depth is 1.2 m. Compute the available moisture.
a)
216 mm
b)
180 mm
c)
144 mm
d)
108 mm
28.
The consumptive use of water for a particular crop is 5 mm/day. If irrigation is given at an interval of 12 days, and the water application efficiency is 60%, calculate the depth of water required to be applied.
a)
100 mm
b)
90 mm
c)
120 mm
d)
110 mm
29.
Which of the following describes the moisture held tightly in micropores and unavailable to plants?
a)
Gravitational water
b)
Capillary water
c)
Hygroscopic water
d)
Field capacity water
30.
Which irrigation method is suitable for widely spaced row crops like sugarcane and maize?
a)
Drip irrigation
b)
Check basin irrigation
c)
Furrow irrigation
d)
Sprinkler irrigation
31.
The depth of root zone is 0.8 m, field capacity is 28%, and permanent wilting point is 14%. Calculate the total available water (in mm).
a)
112 mm
b)
98 mm
c)
120 mm
d)
140 mm
32.
Earthen dams are more suitable in regions where:
a)
Rock foundations are available
b)
Very narrow valleys exist
c)
Broad valleys with impervious foundations exist
d)
Very deep water is to be stored
33.
Which of the following spillways is best suited for gravity dams and is located on the dam body itself?
a)
Shaft spillway
b)
Side channel spillway
c)
Ogee spillway
d)
Chute spillway
34.
Assertion (A): Spillways are essential components in dam construction.
Reason (R): Spillways prevent overtopping by safely disposing excess water from reservoirs.
a)
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b)
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
c)
A is true, R is false
d)
A is false, R is true
35.
Which type of canal outlet is most efficient in maintaining a constant discharge regardless of water level fluctuations?
a)
Non-modular outlet
b)
Semi-modular outlet
c)
Modular outlet
d)
Pipe outlet
36.
What is the purpose of a canal fall in a distribution system?
a)
To regulate flow
b)
To divert water into a canal
c)
To dissipate surplus water
d)
To lower water level in sloping terrain
37.
Diversion headworks are usually constructed on which type of rivers?
a)
Perennial rivers
b)
Ephemeral rivers
c)
Tidal rivers
d)
Frozen rivers
38.
Match the following:
A. Barrage
B. Canal fall
C. Head regulator
D. Escape
a)
A-Regulates flow, B-Reduces energy, C-Controls entry to canal, D-Discharges surplus
b)
A-Reduces energy, B-Controls entry, C-Regulates flow, D-Discharges surplus
c)
A-Controls entry, B-Regulates flow, C-Reduces energy, D-Discharges surplus
d)
A-Discharges surplus, B-Regulates flow, C-Controls entry, D-Reduces energy
39.
Which component of a highway cross section is primarily provided for the safety of vehicles moving off the carriageway?
a)
Shoulder
b)
Median
c)
Camber
d)
Kerb
40.
Which of the following surveys is essential before designing the geometric features of a road?
a)
Soil survey
b)
Topographic survey
c)
Hydrological survey
d)
Traffic volume study
41.
In flexible pavement design, the layer that distributes load to the subgrade is called:
a)
Wearing course
b)
Base course
c)
Binder course
d)
Tack coat
42.
Which type of rail joint provides better load distribution and reduces impact at the joint?
a)
Suspended joint
b)
Supported joint
c)
Bridge joint
d)
Welded joint
43.
The standard length of rail used on Broad Gauge tracks in India is:
a)
12.8 m
b)
13 m
c)
13.72 m
d)
12.5 m
44.
Calculate the degree of curve for a railway track having a radius of 350 m.
a)
3.5°
b)
5°
c)
4°
d)
6°
45.
Which of the following is used to fix the rail to the sleeper in a railway track system?
a)
Fish plate
b)
Bearing plate
c)
Dog spike
d)
Hook bolt
46.
Which type of pier is used when longitudinal beams or girders of the bridge superstructure are closely spaced?
a)
Pile bent
b)
Dump bell pier
c)
Column bent
d)
Cylinder pier
47.
Which of the following types of bridges utilizes wire ropes and suspenders to support the roadway?
a)
Arch bridge
b)
Bow string girder
c)
Suspension bridge
d)
Truss bridge
48.
When the centerline of a bridge is not perpendicular to the axis of the river, it is called:
a)
Deck bridge
b)
Under bridge
c)
Skew bridge
d)
Through bridge
49.
Which is the temporary pier constructed in a river bed for supporting construction works?
a)
Cribs
b)
Piers
c)
Kerb
d)
Abutment
50.
Match the following bridge components with their functions:
A. Cut Water
B. Revetment
C. Wing Wall
D. Bearing
a)
A-Reduces current pressure, B-Erosion control, C-Retains embankment, D-Allows movement
b)
A-Erosion control, B-Retains embankment, C-Reduces current pressure, D-Allows movement
c)
A-Retains embankment, B-Reduces current pressure, C-Erosion control, D-Allows movement
d)
A-Allows movement, B-Retains embankment, C-Erosion control, D-Reduces current pressure
51.
Which type of plumbing system uses a single pipe to carry both waste and ventilating air?
a)
Single stack system
b)
One-pipe system
c)
Two-pipe system
d)
Partially ventilated system
52.
Which of the following sanitary fittings is installed at the bottom of a wash basin to allow drainage?
a)
Trap
b)
Waste Coupling
c)
Soil Pipe
d)
Vent Pipe
53.
Which one of the following is NOT a sanitary fitting?
a)
Urinal
b)
Water Closet
c)
Kitchen Sink
d)
Ball Valve
54.
Assertion (A): Water seal in a trap prevents foul gases from entering buildings.
Reason (R): The water seal acts as a physical barrier to gases in drainage system.
a)
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b)
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c)
A is true but R is false
d)
A is false but R is true
55.
In a sewerage system passing through hilly terrain, which feature ensures smooth flow despite steep drops in gradient?
a)
Grit chamber
b)
Drop manhole with vertical shaft
c)
Septic tank
d)
Flushing tank
56.
Which sewer appurtenance allows flow reversal and is used where siphonic action is essential to overcome elevation?
a)
Manhole
b)
Flushing chamber
c)
Inverted siphon
d)
Catch basin
57.
Which of the following errors during septic tank construction will most severely affect anaerobic digestion?
a)
Incorrect invert level of outlet pipe
b)
No provision for baffle wall
c)
Oversized vent pipe
d)
Concrete plastering on outer wall only
58.
Assertion (A): Drop manholes are essential in steep sewer lines.
Reason (R): They help prevent erosion and high velocity flow damage.
a)
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b)
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c)
A is true but R is false
d)
A is false but R is true
59.
Which property of concrete is significantly enhanced by the addition of silica fume in RCC?
a)
Tensile strength
b)
Workability
c)
Durability against sulphates
d)
Compressive strength
60.
In reinforced concrete design, which of the following conditions leads to the most economical section?
a)
Under-reinforced section
b)
Over-reinforced section
c)
Balanced section
d)
Doubly reinforced section
61.
Which chemical compound in cement is primarily responsible for the initial setting time of concrete?
a)
Tricalcium silicate (C3S)
b)
Dicalcium silicate (C2S)
c)
Tricalcium aluminate (C3A)
d)
Tetracalcium aluminoferrite (C4AF)
62.
Which type of structural failure is most critical in over-reinforced RCC beams?
a)
Tensile cracking
b)
Shear failure
c)
Compression failure of concrete
d)
Bond failure
63.
Match the following special concretes with their properties:
a)
A. High strength - i. >60 MPa
B. Fibre-reinforced - ii. Crack resistance
C. Self-compacting - iii. High flowability
b)
A. Fibre-reinforced - i. Crack resistance
B. High strength - ii. High flowability
C. Self-compacting - iii. >60 MPa
c)
A. High strength - i. High flowability
B. Fibre-reinforced - ii. Crack resistance
C. Self-compacting - iii. >60 MPa
d)
A. High strength - i. Crack resistance
B. Fibre-reinforced - ii. >60 MPa
C. Self-compacting - iii. High flowability
64.
What is the minimum effective depth (D) for a beam subjected to medium load if the span (L) is known?
a)
D ≥ L/20
b)
D ≥ L/18
c)
D ≥ L/15
d)
D ≥ L/12
65.
Which of the following is true regarding side face reinforcement in RCC beams?
a)
Required when web depth exceeds 500 mm
b)
Minimum 0.05% of web area
c)
Provided on one face of beam only
d)
Spacing not more than 300 mm or web thickness
66.
The maximum reinforcement in tension zone of RCC beam is limited to:
a)
0.03 bd
b)
0.02 bd
c)
0.05 bd
d)
0.04 bd
67.
A rectangular RCC beam has b = 300 mm and d = 500 mm. What is the maximum tensile reinforcement allowed?
(Given: Max reinforcement = 0.04 × b × d)
a)
500 mm²
b)
3000 mm²
c)
6000 mm²
d)
4000 mm²
68.
According to IS 456:2000, what is the minimum number of longitudinal bars required in a circular RCC column?
a)
4
b)
5
c)
6
d)
8
69.
In RCC columns, what is the maximum percentage of longitudinal reinforcement allowed with respect to gross area (Ag)?
a)
4%
b)
5%
c)
6%
d)
8%
70.
Assertion (A): Columns with spiral reinforcement can carry 5% more axial load than those with lateral ties.
Reason (R): Spiral reinforcement provides better confinement to core concrete.
a)
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b)
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c)
A is true but R is false
d)
A is false but R is true
71.
The permissible load Pu for a short axially loaded RCC column is calculated using which formula?
(Given: fck = characteristic compressive strength, fy = yield strength, Ac = concrete area, Asc = area of steel)
a)
Pu = 0.45 fck Ac + 0.75 fy Asc
b)
Pu = 0.35 fck Ac + 0.87 fy Asc
c)
Pu = 0.4 fck Ac + 0.67 fy Asc
d)
Pu = 0.5 fck Ac + 0.5 fy Asc
72.
Match the steel structural elements with their IS standard and primary structural role:
a)
A. I-section - i. IS 808, high bending resistance
B. Angle - ii. IS 808, used in trusses
C. Hollow section - iii. IS 4923, aesthetic & torsion control
b)
A. Hollow section - i. IS 808, trusses
B. Angle - ii. IS 808, beams
C. I-section - iii. IS 4923, torsion
c)
A. Angle - i. IS 4923, aesthetics
B. I-section - ii. IS 808, used in columns
C. Hollow section - iii. IS 808, used in trusses
d)
A. Angle - i. IS 808, torsion control
B. Hollow section - ii. IS 808, trusses
C. I-section - iii. IS 808, compression
73.
Calculate the design tensile strength of a steel plate 200 mm wide and 10 mm thick using yielding criteria.
Given: fy = 250 MPa, γm0 = 1.10
a)
409.0 kN
b)
454.5 kN
c)
500.0 kN
d)
318.2 kN
74.
A fillet weld of 6 mm is used on both sides of a plate with a length of 120 mm. Calculate the design strength. Assume: fu = 410 MPa, γmw = 1.25
a)
123.2 kN
b)
103.3 kN
c)
190.86kN
d)
115.5 kN
75.
Which of the following statements about steel design under IS 800:2007 is TRUE?
a)
Compression members are governed only by yield strength
b)
Slenderness ratio has no effect on axial strength
c)
Design of members is based on limit state method
d)
Design strength is independent of partial safety factors
76.
Which factor affects the buckling strength of a compression steel member the most?
a)
Length of member
b)
Cross-sectional area
c)
Slenderness ratio
d)
Grade of steel
77.
Which among the following scales is best suited for comparing distances in two different systems of units?
a)
Plain Scale
b)
Vernier Scale
c)
Comparative Scale
d)
Diagonal Scale
78.
In the 1st angle projection system, where is the plan view placed with respect to the elevation?
a)
Above the elevation
b)
Below the elevation
c)
To the left of the elevation
d)
To the right of the elevation
79.
Which AutoCAD command is used to create round corners between two intersecting lines?
a)
Chamfer
b)
Fillet
c)
Offset
d)
Mirror
80.
ASSERTION: Diagonal scale is more accurate than plain scale.
REASON: Diagonal scales can measure up to the second decimal place in a unit.
a)
Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation.
b)
Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation.
c)
Assertion is true but Reason is false.
d)
Assertion is false but Reason is true.
81.
ASSERTION: In orthographic projection, projectors are perpendicular to the plane of projection.
REASON: Orthographic projection uses converging projectors from the object to the plane.
a)
Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation.
b)
Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation.
c)
Assertion is true but Reason is false.
d)
Assertion is false but Reason is true.
82.
Which AutoCAD function key is used to toggle object snap?
a)
F2
b)
F3
c)
F8
d)
F9
83.
What shape does a circular lamina appear as in elevation when inclined to VP and perpendicular to HP?
a)
Circle
b)
Rhombus
c)
Ellipse
d)
Parabola
84.
Which IS code is commonly referred to for architectural and building drawings in Basic Engineering Drawing?
a)
IS 456:2000
b)
IS 800:1984
c)
IS 962:1989
d)
IS 875:1978
85.
Which of the following is NOT considered a primary view in orthographic projection?
a)
Front view
b)
Top view
c)
Left side view
d)
Auxiliary view
86.
Which of the following types of lines in engineering drawing represent hidden features of an object?
a)
Continuous thick line
b)
Dashed line
c)
Chain line
d)
Dotted line
87.
Which drawing sheet size is most appropriate for detailed civil drawings in engineering as per BIS?
a)
A0
b)
A1
c)
A2
d)
A4
88.
ASSERTION: Freehand technical sketching is used to quickly convey ideas and object shapes.
REASON: It requires the use of drawing instruments and precise scales.
a)
Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation.
b)
Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation.
c)
Assertion is true but Reason is false.
d)
Assertion is false but Reason is true.
89.
ASSERTION: Drawing sheet layout helps in organizing the components of a drawing neatly.
REASON: Layout lines are drawn freehand after the object drawing is complete.
a)
Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation.
b)
Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation.
c)
Assertion is true but Reason is false.
d)
Assertion is false but Reason is true.
90.
Which type of lettering is recommended for technical drawings according to BIS standards?
a)
Italic cursive
b)
Roman style
c)
Gothic style (upright or inclined)
d)
Monospaced Serif
91.
Which of the following symbols is used in building drawings to represent brick masonry?
a)
Diagonal hatching
b)
Cross-hatching
c)
Zig-zag horizontal pattern
d)
Wavy lines
92.
Which factor is most critical in preventing overturning of a shallow foundation under lateral loads?
a)
Depth of footing
b)
Width of foundation
c)
Self-weight of superstructure
d)
Moment of resistance of footing
93.
Which type of stone dressing produces a surface suitable for heavy load-bearing applications in retaining walls?
a)
Boasted dressing
b)
Bush hammering
c)
Scabbling
d)
Chisel drafting
94.
In deep foundations, which of the following is a major cause of negative skin friction?
a)
High groundwater table
b)
Loose fill over consolidated soil
c)
Very dry granular soils
d)
Cohesive soils with high bearing capacity
95.
Which course in brick masonry should be constructed first when using English bond in a 1.5-brick thick wall?
a)
Stretcher course
b)
Header course
c)
Double stretcher course
d)
Double header course
96.
Which type of foundation is preferred for a multi-storey building constructed on expansive clay soil?
a)
Isolated footing
b)
Combined footing
c)
Mat (raft) foundation
d)
Grillage foundation
97.
In stone masonry, why is it important to provide through stones or bonding stones?
a)
To reduce the quantity of mortar
b)
To enhance appearance of exposed walls
c)
To ensure longitudinal stability of the wall
d)
To increase thermal resistance
98.
Assertion (A): Raft foundations are preferred for buildings constructed over black cotton soil. Reason (R): Raft foundation uniformly distributes the load and reduces differential settlement.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
99.
Which type of scaffolding is most appropriate for stone masonry work involving heavy loads and irregular walls?
a)
Steel scaffolding
b)
Needle scaffolding
c)
Double scaffolding
d)
Suspended scaffolding
100.
What is the key advantage of cantilever scaffolding in urban construction?
a)
Used for high-rise buildings
b)
Allows work without ground obstruction
c)
Easier to dismantle
d)
Provides better load capacity
101.
Which shoring method is most suitable when adjacent walls of a building are showing signs of bulging outwards?
a)
Raking shore
b)
Flying shore
c)
Dead shore
d)
Piling shore
102.
Why is bituminous coating considered effective in damp-proofing substructures?
a)
It's eco-friendly and reusable
b)
It forms a rigid and brittle layer
c)
It is economical and forms a continuous waterproof membrane
d)
It reacts chemically with water
103.
What is the primary reason for applying fireproofing treatment to steel structural members?
a)
To resist rusting
b)
To prevent loss of structural strength at high temperatures
c)
To reduce noise transmission
d)
To prevent electric conduction
104.
Which chemical treatment is most effective for anti-termite protection during pre-construction stage?
a)
Chlorpyrifos emulsion spray
b)
Zinc phosphate coating
c)
Calcium chloride soaking
d)
Lime slurry coating
105.
Which centering method is preferred for large-span RCC slabs and beams?
a)
Telescopic steel centering
b)
Timber centering
c)
Inverted arch centering
d)
Pipe scaffolding
106.
Assertion (A): Underpinning is used to strengthen the foundation of existing structures. Reason (R): It involves replacing the entire superstructure to support additional loads.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
107.
Which temporary support is used when removing or altering load-bearing walls during renovation?
a)
Dead shore
b)
Needle beam
c)
Flying shore
d)
Inclined raker
108.
Which damp-proofing method combines both physical and chemical resistance to moisture?
a)
Cavity wall construction
b)
Bituminous felt
c)
Integral waterproofing compound
d)
Pressure grouting
109.
Which type of arch has a center above the springing line and consists of multiple centers for its curves?
a)
Horse-shoe arch
b)
Venetian arch
c)
Florentine arch
d)
Semi-elliptic arch
110.
What is the key structural purpose of a relieving arch provided above a flat arch?
a)
To allow decorative masonry
b)
To prevent sagging of lintel
c)
To reduce load on the flat arch
d)
To provide ventilation
111.
In RCC lintels, why are stirrups provided along the span?
a)
To reduce deflection
b)
To hold longitudinal bars in place and resist shear
c)
To act as compression reinforcement
d)
To avoid crack propagation in bottom fibers
112.
Which lintel material is preferred for spanning large openings in industrial buildings with fire hazard concerns?
a)
Timber lintel
b)
Stone lintel
c)
RCC lintel
d)
Steel lintel
113.
Which of the following arches is constructed entirely with wedge-shaped stones or bricks?
a)
Semicircular arch
b)
Flat arch
c)
Relieving arch
d)
Segmental arch
114.
Match the following types of arches with their features:
A. Semicircular arch B. Relieving arch C. Florentine arch D. Flat arch
1.strong thrust 2.three centered 3.weak in strength 4.support flat arches
a)
A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
b)
A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
c)
A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
d)
A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
115.
Which factor makes flat arches structurally weak compared to other arch types?
a)
Lack of reinforcement
b)
Dependence on mortar only
c)
No vertical rise
d)
Not self-supporting during construction
116.
Which of the following is a defect in timber caused by fungi?
a)
Wane
b)
Torn grain
c)
White rot
d)
Chip mark
117.
What is the permissible water absorption limit for a first-class brick?
a)
Less than 25%
b)
Not more than 22%
c)
Not more than 20%
d)
Exactly 15%
118.
Which defect in timber is identified by radial cracks originating from the pith?
a)
Star shakes
b)
Heart shakes
c)
Radial shakes
d)
Ring shakes
119.
In which method of seasoning is timber placed in an airtight chamber with temperatures of 35°C to 38°C?
a)
Water seasoning
b)
Kiln seasoning
c)
Electrical seasoning
d)
Salt seasoning
120.
Which pigment base is most suitable for wood surfaces but not for iron surfaces?
a)
White lead
b)
Red lead
c)
Zinc white
d)
Titanium white
121.
In blasting operations, which explosive has the highest underwater effectiveness and does not produce smoke?
a)
Dynamite
b)
Cordite
c)
Gun cotton
d)
Blasting gelatine
122.
Which defect in painting results from vertical or inclined surfaces being painted too thickly?
a)
Bloom
b)
Flashing
c)
Sagging
d)
Wrinkling
123.
In rocks, what is the structure called when crystals of one or more minerals are large and predominant?
a)
Granular structure
b)
Porphyritic structure
c)
Vesicular structure
d)
Foliated structure
124.
Which type of paint forms a transparent layer and is suitable for marine structures like oil tanks and radiators?
a)
Graphite paint
b)
Enamel paint
c)
Aluminium paint
d)
Bituminous paint
125.
Which explosive is typically stored in moist condition and is strong as dynamite?
a)
Blasting powder
b)
Gun cotton
c)
Cordite
d)
Gelignite
126.
Assertion (A): White lead becomes discoloured when exposed to sulphur vapour. Reason (R): It contains carbonate of lead which reacts with sulphur.
Options:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
127.
In the power-driven method of lime mortar preparation, what is the typical diameter range of the revolving pan?
a)
1.0 to 1.5 m
b)
1.8 to 2.4 m
c)
2.5 to 3.0 m
d)
3.5 to 4.5 m
128.
What happens to the bulking of sand when moisture content increases beyond a certain limit?
a)
Bulking continues to increase
b)
Bulking stops completely
c)
Bulking decreases
d)
Sand becomes unusable
129.
Which type of mortar is most suitable for X-ray shielding purposes?
a)
Fire-resistant mortar
b)
Packing mortar
c)
Sound-absorbing mortar
d)
X-ray shielding mortar
130.
Which of the following compounds contributes the least to the heat of hydration in cement?
a)
C3A
b)
C3S
c)
C2S
d)
C4AF
131.
Which method of lime mortar preparation involves bullock-driven trench with a diameter of 6–9 m?
a)
Manual grinding
b)
Power-driven pan grinding
c)
Ghani grinding
d)
Pit pounding
132.
Which constituent in cement controls the initial setting time?
a)
Iron oxide
b)
Calcium sulphate (Gypsum)
c)
Magnesia
d)
Alumina
133.
Which mortar type is unsuitable for plastering work due to risk of disintegration?
a)
Cement mortar
b)
Lime mortar
c)
Surkhi mortar
d)
Gypsum mortar
134.
What is the factor of safety if the ultimate tensile strength is 600 MPa and allowable stress is 150 MPa?
a)
4
b)
2.5
c)
5
d)
6
100 %
