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Electrical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions (2023 Updated)

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Capacitors are sometimes used in dc circuits to

a)

Counteract inductive reactance at specific locations

b)

Smooth out slight pulsations in current/voltage

c)

Assist in stepping voltage and current up and/or down

2.

(refer to figure 11) What would happen to the total current flow if resistance is doubled?

a)

It would be reduced by 25%

b)

It would increase by 1mA

c)

It would be reduced by 50%

3.

Bonding connections should not exceed

a)

1 ohm

b)

0.1 ohm

c)

0.003 ohm

4.

What two devices present a change in direction of current flow in a circuit under fault conditions?

a)

Differential current protector and fault feeder

b)

Over excitation and under excitation circuit

c)

Cut-out relay and reverse current circuit breaker

5.

Which of the following logic gates will provide an active high out with all active high inputs

a)

NOR

b)

AND

c)

OR

6.

Which of the following logic gates will provide a low output when any of the inputs is high?

a)

NOR

b)

NAND

c)

AND

7.

What is the no load voltage on a 6 cell battery capable of supplying 5 amperes?

a)

6 volts

b)

12 volts

c)

10 Volts

8.

When reading a blueprint, a dimension is given as 4.387 inches +0.003 -0.002. Which statement is true?

a)

The maximum acceptance is 4.390 inches

b)

The minimum acceptance size is 4.384 inches

c)

The minimum acceptable size is 4.389 inches

9.

Which of the following is an example of a second class (class B) lever?

a)

Retractable landing gear

b)

wheelbarrow

c)

See-saw

10.

When an aircraft is positioned for weighing on scales located under each landing gear wheel, which of the following may cause erroneous scale readings?

a)

Gear downlocks installed

b)

Parking breaks set

c)

Parking breaks not set

11.

What precaution should be taken when removing a flexible hose from an aircraft?

a)

Hoses will become brittle over time if not flexed occasionally

b)

Hoses should not be straightened and should rely on a wire to support their shape

c)

The hose interior should be coated with the liquid it carries to prevent embrittlement

12.

What type of hose should be used in areas of high vibration?

a)

Ridgid

b)

Flexible

c)

Both

13.

What does the dash number on a hose signify?

a)

Pressure capacity

b)

Flow capacity

c)

Inside diameter

14.

When a teflon hose has been in service for a time, what condition may have occurred and/or what precaution should be taken when it is temporarily removed from the aircraft?

a)

The hose interior must be kept wet with the fluid carried to prevent embrittlement/deterioration

b)

The hose may become stiff and brittle if not flexed or moved regularly

15.

The best tool for use when cutting aluminum tubing, or any tubing is of moderately soft metal is:

a)

Hand operated wheel-type tubing cutter

b)

Fine-tooth hack saw

c)

Circular-saw equipped with an abrasive cutting wheel

16.

Which of the following statements is/are correct in reference to flare fittings?

a)

1

b)

1 and 3

c)

1, 2, and 3

17.

Which statement is true regarding flattening of tubing in bends?

a)

Flattening by a maximum of 20 percent of the original diameter is permissible

b)

Flattening by not more than 25 percent of the original diameter is permissible

c)

The small diameter portion in the bend cannot exceed more than 75 percent of the diameter of straight tubing

18.

A 3/8 inch aircraft high pressure flexible hose as compared to 3/8 inch metal tubing used in the same system will

a)

Have equivalent flow characteristics

b)

Usually have interchangeable applications

c)

Have higher flow characteristics

19.

What are the visual indications when identifying stress factors with a magnetic particle testing?

a)

A wide and mounded buildup of particles

b)

Very fine, sharp lines, with not buildup as a result of flaw depth

c)

Jagged lines with irregularity and no localized buildup

20.

What is generally used in the construction of aircraft exhaust collectors, stacks, and manifolds?

a)

Titanium alloy

b)

Chrome molybdenum alloy steel

c)

Stainless steel

21.

What materials do you normalize?

a)

Non-ferrous

b)

Ferrous

c)

Both A and B

22.

What would leftover weld be called?

a)

Toe

b)

Throat

c)

Leg

23.

(Refer to figure 45) What type weld is shown at E?

a)

Lap

b)

Fillet/T

c)

Joint

24.

What numerical weight does the number 5 represent in 64,592?

a)

100

b)

500

c)

0.500

25.

(Refer to figure 50) Identify the signal to start the engine on a rotocraft

a)

3

b)

2

c)

1

26.

In the fully articulated rotor system, the blades are attached to the hub with multiple hinges. How are the blades hinged?

a)

The blades are hinged for movement up and down (flapping), but not for fore and aft movement

b)

They are hinged in a way that allows them to move up and down, and fore and aft

c)

The blades are attached to the links allowing the blades to teeter like a see-saw

27.

A fuel that does not vaporize readily enough can cause

a)

Detonation

b)

Hard starting

c)

Vapor lock

28.

What is another name for “False Brinelling”

a)

Intergranular Corrosion

b)

Exfoliation Corrosion

c)

Fretting Corrosion

29.

Which of the following is an acceptable first step procedure to help prevent scratching when cleaning a transparent plastic surface?

a)

A. Gently wipe the surface with a clean, dry, soft cloth.

b)

B. Flush the surface with clean water

c)

C. Gently wipe the surface with a clean, soft cloth moistened with de-mineralized or distilled water

30.

Why is a plastic surface flushed with fresh water before it's cleaned with soap and water?

a)

To prevent crazing

b)

To prevent scratching

c)

To prevent discoloration

31.

Galvanic corrosion at the interface of a dissimilar metal part may best be prevented by

a)

Placing a nonporous dielectric material between the surfaces

b)

Conducting frequent inspections and keeping all exposed areas of the part clean

c)

Sealing exposed seam edges with a recommended sealing compound

32.

Of the following when and/or where is galvanic corrosion most likely to occur?

a)

When an electrolyte (water) covers the surface of an aluminum skin, seeps into the cracks between lap joints, and oxygen is excluded from the area

b)

At the interface of a steel fastener and aluminum alloy inspection plate in the presence of an electrolyte.

c)

In an area of unprotected metal exposed to an atmosphere containing battery fumes, exhaust gasses, or industrial contaminants

33.

Solve the equation: (SQ100 + SQ36 - SQ16) = (where SQ is “square root”)

a)

12

b)

10

c)

8

d)

6

34.

Which of the following is correct?

a)

12

b)

60

c)

76

35.

7056.0452 x 1/72 is most nearly equal to the square root of which of the following?

a)

9,406

b)

9,604

c)

9,801

36.

Which alternative answer in figure 68 is equal to 463,100?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

37.

Which of the following is equal to the square root of 3844

a)

A. 31(2) + 7 + (-3.5 x 2)=

b)

B. 480(4) + (-4) - (-3 x 2)=

c)

C. 940 x 4 - (-2) + 2=

38.

Solve the equation 1/16 + (32 x 3/8)=

a)

1.992

b)

0.01945

c)

0.0138

39.

Select the fractional equivalent of 0.078125

a)

3/32

b)

1/16

c)

5/64

40.

1.296875 is equal to

a)

A. 83/64

b)

B. 19/16

c)

C. 39/32

41.

If an airplane has two 28-gallon fuel tanks, how many quarts would it contain if they are full?

a)

114

b)

224

c)

22.4

42.

The speed of sound at sea level is 760 mph. If an aircraft is flying at Mach 1.3 at sea level, what is the speed in mph?

a)

912 mph

b)

988 mph

c)

838 mph

43.

Solve the equation. 4 - (-2) ÷ 12 ÷ 2 × 3

a)

24

b)

36

c)

21

44.

After an Annual inspection is performed, any defect found must be listed and provided to the owner and kept for how long?

a)

Until the defects are corrected

b)

For two years from the date of the annual inspection

c)

Until the aircraft is sold and ownership is transferred

45.

If you do an annual on the 15th of the month, when would the next one be due

a)

The 11th month on the first day

b)

The last day of the 12th month

c)

The first day of the 13th month

46.

What is ISpec 2200

a)

Standards for maintaining commercial aircraft records

b)

Information standards for aviation maintenance.

c)

Sales standards for aircraft with a max gross weight over 12,500 pounds

47.

Under what circumstances may the FAA refuse to issue a special flight permit under the provisions of Title 14 CFR part 21.197?

a)

For evacuating aircraft from areas of impending danger.

b)

For flight to a maintenance facility where experiencing service difficulties

c)

For conducting customer demonstration flights in a new production aircraft that have not satisfactorily completed production flight tests

48.

Major repairs and major alterations to a light sport aircraft requires

a)

An entry into the maintenance records and a FAA form 337 in duplicate

b)

A maintenance release form

c)

An 8130-3 to be sent to the FSDO and the manufacturer

49.

Why can the boiling point of a given liquid vary

a)

The boiling point of a liquid is directly proportional to the pressure acting on it

b)

The applied temperature will have different effects based on the liquid volume

c)

The boiling point of a liquid is considered to be constant

50.

What is the standard measure of heat energy

a)

Caloric BTU

b)

Fahrenheit BTU

c)

Kelvin BTU

51.

Why would wings or flaps have manufactured holes in their surface?

a)

Reduced weight

b)

Increased strength

c)

Increased fuel economy

52.

When an aircraft is flown for which an applicable Airworthiness Directive has not yet been complied with is

a)

A. A violation of 14 CFR 38.7 for each flight

b)

B. A violation of 14 CFR 21.199 for each flight

c)

C. Is acceptable if the aircraft is determined to be safe by the owner/operator

53.

When doing a beach check on a fuel tank and you only have access to one side, what non-destructive testing method do you use?

4 lines
54.

Airworthiness Directives are issued by the

a)

FAA

b)

Aircraft manufacturers

c)

National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB)

55.

Where are current ADs located?

a)

NTSB

b)

14 CFR 39

c)

The Thomas Turner library in Washington DC

56.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

1 and 2 are true

b)

Only 1 is true

c)

Only 2 is true

57.

The following words are an example of what kind of statement “Model 172 airplanes (serial numbers 36216 through 36769) that have not been modified with Cessna Service Kit SK-172-10 OR SK-172-10A, certificated in any category.

a)

Amendment

b)

Compliance

c)

Applicability

58.

What is the definition of “Preventative Maintenance”?

a)

Annuals and 100 hour inspections

b)

Maintenance that does not complex assembly operations

c)

Maintenance on any aircraft operated under Part 91

59.

Two types of stress placed on a mechanic are:

a)

Tension and compression

b)

Friction and inertia

c)

Heat and cold

d)

Electric and magnetic

60.

What are the two types of stress that can affect a person?

a)

Physical and psychological

b)

Physical and organizational

c)

Physical and fatigue

61.

Under Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, what is the maximum penalty for falsification, alterations, or fraudulent reproduction of certificates, logbooks, reports, and records?

a)

Ineligibility to receive and certificate or rating for one year

b)

Imprisonment for one year and a 5,000.00 fine

c)

Suspension or revocation of any certificate held

62.

How long does the holder of a certificate issued under 14 CFR Part 65 have to notify the FAA after and change in permanent mailing address

a)

30 days

b)

60 days

c)

90 days

63.

What is effect on the issuance of your Arman certificate when the TSA issues a final notification of threat assessment

a)

The FAA will hold the certificate in abeyance

b)

The FAA will request additional information regarding your certificate application

c)

The FAA will deny any approval for a certificate, rating, or application

64.

What is the normal duration a mechanic certificate with airframe and/or powerplant ratings

a)

Until the holder is relieved of duties for which the holders was employed and certificated

b)

Until surrendered, suspended, or revoked

c)

Until 24 months after the holder has last exercised the privileges of the certificate

65.

Why is a mechanic applicant issued a temporary certificate after successful completion of the required tests?

a)

To allow for review of his/her application and supplementary documents

b)

So that the background investigation may be completed

c)

Both of the other two choices.

66.

The maximum duration of a temporary airman certificate is:

a)

30 days

b)

60 days

c)

90 days

d)

120 days

67.

How many days are specified in the following options?

a)

60 days

b)

90 days

c)

120 days

68.

When may an otherwise qualified mechanic who does not read, write, speak, or understand English language be eligible to apply for a mechanic certificate?

a)

When a special authorization has been granted by the Administrator

b)

When employed outside the United States by a U.S. air carrier

c)

When employed outside the United States.

69.

Which of the following statements is true for a certificated and appropriately rated mechanic regarding repairs and alterations.

a)

He/she may perform an airframe major repair or major alteration, but cannot approve the work for the return to service.

b)

He/she may perform airframe minor repairs and minor alterations and approve the work for return to service, but cannot perform an airframe major repair or major alteration

c)

He/she may perform an airframe major repair or major alteration and approve the work, but not the entire aircraft, for return to service.

70.

Primary responsibility for compliance with Airworthy Directive lies with the

a)

Certified mechanic who maintains the aircraft

b)

Certified mechanic holding an Inspection Authorization who conducts appropriate inspections

c)

Aircraft owner or operator

71.

Who developed the Dirty Dozen

a)

Gordon DuPont

b)

Professor E. E.

c)

Dr. James Reason

72.

The “crack down” approach for human behavior control is based upon:

a)

Fear and Punishment

b)

Knowledge and ability

c)

Awareness and Resources

73.

Lack of clean direct statements are good, active listening skills, is the lack of what?

a)

Communication

b)

Awareness

c)

Teamwork

74.

All of the following are consequences of human error, except:

a)

Mental Stressor

b)

Catastrophic

c)

Personal Injury

75.

When an incident or accident occurs as a result of a decision made long before the failure, what type of failure is it?

a)

Latent

b)

Active

c)

Situational

76.

Human factors Dirty Dozen list includes all but

a)

Latent Failure

b)

Lack of Awareness

c)

Norms

77.

The maintenance error decision aid (MEDA) concept is based on which principle

a)

Manageability of Errors

b)

Synchronous Communication

c)

Leadership Values

78.

What is the most common maintenance error?

a)

Installation

b)

Setup

c)

Troubleshooting

79.

The failure to be alert or vigilant in observing is

a)

Lack of Awareness

b)

Distraction

c)

Fatigue

80.

Human factors is the study of how people interact with their

a)

Environment

b)

Organization

c)

Cultures

81.

What is the study of human dimensions?

a)

Physiology

b)

Organization

c)

Anthropometry

82.

What is anthropometry?

a)

Physiology

b)

Ontology

c)

Anthropometry

83.

Three types of human errors are:

a)

A. Omission, Commission, Extraneous

b)

B. Active, Latent, Stressor

c)

C. Mental, Situational, Physiological

84.

What type of accident doesn’t happen immediately?

a)

Active

b)

Latent

c)

Stressor

85.

What did Dr. James Reason do?

a)

Created Dirty Dozen

b)

Theorizes human errors

c)

Studied Human effects

86.

Compare pilot error vs. mechanical error and which is usually the most common

a)

Pilot error

b)

Mechanical error

c)

Management error

87.

Professor James Reason explains that errors by aircraft mechanics fall into one of three categories.

a)

Slips, mistakes, and violations

b)

Failures, fatigue, and distractions

c)

Technique, fatigue, and distractions

88.

The Following will lead to improved quality, and an environment that ensures continued worker and aircraft safety

a)

1. Auditing, using an independent organization.

b)

2. Human factors awareness.

c)

3. An internal reporting and auditing system

89.

Of the following statements, which one is incorrect?

a)

A. SLSA are factory built

b)

B. SLSA and ELSA are kit built

c)

C. ELSA are kit built

90.

Which standard practice action is performed when soldering AC wiring

a)

Use the maximum solder to ensure a good bond.

b)

Wet the wire with flux after soldering

c)

Heat the wire until wetting action begins

91.

What type of solder is commonly used in electronics

a)

50% lead and 50% tin

b)

40% lead and 60% tin

c)

60% lead, and 40% tin

92.

Which thermal device can be reset after a current overload?

a)

Trip free circuit breaker

b)

Fuse

c)

Current limiter

93.

To avoid compliance with an airworthiness directive:

a)

Find a similar aircraft model and use it in your logbook

b)

Request exemptions through a letter to the Flight Standards District Office

c)

Submit alternate plans to the Faa in Oklahoma City, Oklahoma

94.

John is a mechanic 6’ 2” tall and Mary is 5’3” tall, both are equally qualified. There is a requirement to repair a bulkhead inside the aft compartment of a fuselage. What element comes into play in this scenario?

4 lines
95.

What does the maintenance resource management approach concern?

a)

Effective communication and safety of training.

b)

Maintaining complete control of employee accountability

c)

Ability to control a group of employees

96.

What is the conceptual principal of MRM

a)

Ability

b)

Skillset

c)

Training

97.

What is the main difference between a team of people and a group of people

a)

Size

b)

Interdependence

c)

Skillset

98.

How much force is required to lift a 120 pound weight with a single fixed pulley, off of a table that is 3 feet above the floor?

a)

120 foot pounds

b)

360 foot pounds

c)

48.2 foot pounds

99.

Each person performing an annual or 100 inspection shall use a checklist that contains at least those items in

a)

14 CFR part 43 Appendix D

b)

14 CFR part 43 Appendix A

c)

AC 43.13

100.

What is defined as a digital code in which each of the decimal digits (0-9) is represented by a group of four bits?

a)

Binary number system

b)

Binary coded decimal

c)

Gray Code