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NUR 556 GI, Renal, Endocrine Practice Questions

Total questions: 46

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A nurse is caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with a hiatal hernia. Which of the following statements made by the patient indicates the need for further teaching?

a)

I will avoid lying down for several hours after eating.

b)

I will elevate the head of my bed while sleeping.

c)

I can continue to drink wine with dinner each night.

d)

I will avoid large meals late at night.

2.

The nurse is assessing an infant suspected of having GERD. Which of the following findings is most consistent with this diagnosis?

a)

Abdominal rigidity

b)

Vomiting more than 4 times per day in large volume

c)

Projectile vomiting after feeding

d)

Failure to pass meconium within the first 24 hours

3.

A nurse is reviewing the medication list of a patient with peptic ulcer disease (PUD). Which medication would the nurse question?

a)

Amoxicillin

b)

Tetracycline

c)

Ibuprofen

d)

Omeprazole

4.

A patient presents with painful swallowing and reports weight loss and fatigue. The nurse suspects esophageal cancer. Which other symptom supports this diagnosis?

a)

Constipation

b)

Jaundice

c)

Dysphagia

d)

Excessive salivation

5.

5. A client is being evaluated for Helicobacter pylori infection. Which of the following is an accurate diagnostic test for this condition?

a)

Urea breath test

b)

Stool occult blood test

c)

Serum amylase test

d)

Liver function test

6.

A nurse is explaining the pathophysiology of vomiting. Which structure is primarily responsible for coordinating the act of vomiting?

a)

Cerebellum

b)

Hypothalamus

c)

Vomiting center in the medulla

d)

Thalamus

7.

A nurse is caring for a child with esophageal atresia. Which of the following signs would the nurse most likely observe?

a)

Projectile vomiting

b)

Frequent coughing and choking during feedings

c)

Diarrhea

d)

Abdominal rigidity

8.

Which of the following dietary instructions should be given to a client diagnosed with GERD?

a)

Eat large meals to neutralize acid

b)

Avoid eating 3 hours before bedtime

c)

Elevate the head of the bed

d)

Consume alcohol in moderation

e)

Avoid caffeine and spicy foods

9.

A nurse is teaching a patient with newly diagnosed Barrett’s esophagus. Which of the following is the greatest concern for this patient?

a)

Vitamin B12 deficiency

b)

Constipation

c)

Esophageal adenocarcinoma

d)

Hypokalemia

10.

A patient with Crohn’s disease is undergoing evaluation. Which of the following findings is most likely to be seen during sigmoidoscopy?

a)

Continuous inflammation in the rectum

b)

Thickened mucosal folds with cobblestone appearance

c)

Atrophy of gastric glands

d)

Multiple shallow ulcers in the esophagus

11.

A nurse is caring for a pediatric patient diagnosed with rotavirus. Which of the following interventions is the priority?

a)

Administer antibiotics as prescribed

b)

Start anti-diarrheal medication

c)

Initiate IV rehydration if oral intake is inadequate

d)

Collect a blood culture

12.

A nurse is providing education to the parents of a 3-month-old infant about rotavirus prevention. Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?

a)

I will make sure my child completes the rotavirus vaccine series.

b)

I will wash my hands thoroughly after diaper changes.

c)

I can prevent rotavirus by giving my child antibiotics if they get a fever.

d)

I will avoid exposing my baby to sick children when possible.

13.

Which of the following is most characteristic of infectious enterocolitis?

a)

Large-volume, watery stools without inflammation

b)

Small-volume diarrhea with signs of inflammation or ulceration

c)

Constipation and rectal bleeding

d)

Fatty stools with mucus and foul odor

14.

A nurse is caring for an adult patient hospitalized with recurrent C. difficile infection. Which of the following treatments is most likely to be prescribed after multiple antibiotic failures?

a)

High-dose proton pump inhibitors

b)

Fecal microbiota transplantation (FMT)

c)

Total parenteral nutrition

d)

Surgical bowel resection

15.

A nurse is teaching a group of parents about rotavirus. Which of the following statements is true?

a)

Rotavirus primarily affects older adults.

b)

Rotavirus spreads via respiratory droplets.

c)

Rotavirus is prevented by a vaccine given in early infancy.

d)

Rotavirus is treated with antiviral medication.

16.

Which clinical finding would most likely be associated with a child suffering from a severe rotavirus infection?

a)

Bloody stools without fever

b)

Low urine output and dry mucous membranes

c)

Muscle twitching and hyperreflexia

d)

Rash and joint pain

17.

A patient with suspected infectious enterocolitis has a stool sample showing the presence of blood and mucus. Which of the following types of pathogens is most likely responsible?

a)

Viral

b)

Bacterial or protozoal

c)

Fungal

d)

Helminthic

18.

Which infection control measure is most important when caring for a patient with confirmed C. difficile?

a)

Wearing a surgical mask

b)

Using alcohol-based hand rub after patient contact

c)

Placing the patient in airborne isolation

d)

Washing hands with soap and water before and after contact

19.

A urinalysis shows the presence of urinary casts. The nurse knows this finding is most commonly associated with which condition?

a)

Dehydration

b)

Hypertension

c)

Urinary tract infection

d)

Glomerulonephritis

20.

A patient presents with dysuria, urgency, suprapubic discomfort, and a strong ammonia-smelling urine. Which condition is most likely?

a)

Pyelonephritis

b)

Lower urinary tract infection

c)

Nephrolithiasis

d)

Urosepsis

21.

Which of the following organisms is most commonly associated with catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs)?

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Klebsiella pneumoniae

c)

Proteus mirabilis

d)

Streptococcus pyogenes

22.

A nurse is caring for an elderly patient who suddenly develops confusion and weakness. The patient is afebrile but has incontinence and a loss of appetite. What should the nurse suspect?

a)

Dementia progression

b)

Urosepsis

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Stroke

23.

A patient is diagnosed with a uric acid kidney stone. Which of the following factors is most likely related to stone formation?

a)

High fluid intake

b)

Low-sodium diet

c)

Gout and high animal protein diet

d)

Vegetarian diet

24.

Which of the following would the nurse expect in a patient with renal colic due to a ureteral stone?

a)

Constant dull ache in lower back

b)

Flank pain radiating to groin, with nausea and vomiting

c)

Sharp pain relieved by rest

d)

Suprapubic pressure and burning with urination

25.

A client with a neurogenic bladder secondary to a spinal cord injury is most at risk for which complication?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Overflow incontinence

c)

Hypokalemia

d)

Respiratory failure

26.

A nurse is teaching a client with stress incontinence. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the condition?

a)

This occurs when I can't sense the urge to urinate.

b)

I leak urine when I laugh or sneeze.

c)

It's caused by an infection in my kidneys.

d)

It happens due to stones in the bladder.

27.

A patient with a history of BPH is experiencing frequent dribbling of urine and a feeling of incomplete emptying. Which type of incontinence is most likely?

a)

Stress incontinence

b)

Urge incontinence

c)

Overflow incontinence

d)

Functional incontinence

28.

A patient has a urinary stone lodged in the ureter. What is the priority nursing intervention?

a)

Encourage low fluid intake to reduce pressure

b)

Administer opioid analgesics as prescribed

c)

Apply ice to the costovertebral angle

d)

Perform a digital rectal exam

29.

A nurse is assessing a patient with Addison’s disease. Which of the following clinical manifestations would the nurse expect?

a)

Hypertension and hyperglycemia

b)

Moon face and central obesity

c)

Weight loss and hyperpigmentation

d)

Hirsutism and fluid retention

30.

Which lab finding would be expected in a client with Addisonian crisis?

a)

Hypernatremia and hypokalemia

b)

Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia

c)

Elevated cortisol and sodium levels

d)

Low ACTH and aldosterone levels

31.

A patient presents with a “moon face,” thin skin, and a buffalo hump. What condition should the nurse suspect?

a)

Addison’s disease

b)

Hyperthyroidism

c)

Cushing’s syndrome

d)

SIADH

32.

A nurse is caring for a client with pheochromocytoma. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect?

a)

Bradycardia and cold intolerance

b)

Weight gain and edema

33.

A patient is newly diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes. The nurse explains that this condition is caused by:

a)

Insulin resistance

b)

Autoimmune destruction of beta cells

c)

Poor diet and sedentary lifestyle

d)

Overproduction of glucose by the liver

34.

Which lab value would confirm a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus using A1C?

a)

5.3%

b)

5.9%

c)

6.4%

d)

6.6%

35.

Which complication is most likely to result from diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

a)

Hypernatremia

b)

Respiratory alkalosis

c)

Metabolic acidosis

d)

Hypoglycemia

36.

Which of the following is a key characteristic of SIADH?

a)

Polyuria and dehydration

b)

Fluid retention and hyponatremia

c)

Weight loss and low urine specific gravity

d)

Hyperkalemia and increased thirst

37.

A client has Graves’ disease. Which symptoms should the nurse expect?

a)

Cold intolerance, constipation, hair loss

b)

Weight gain, dry skin, fatigue

c)

Exophthalmos, goiter, tachycardia

d)

Puffy face, bradycardia, hoarseness

38.

A child is diagnosed with congenital hypothyroidism. Which complication is the nurse most concerned about?

a)

Diabetes

b)

Renal failure

c)

Intellectual disability

d)

Hyperglycemia

39.

Which electrolyte imbalance is most associated with hyperparathyroidism?

a)

Hypernatremia

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

Hypocalcemia

d)

Hypercalcemia

40.

A patient has acromegaly. What symptom would the nurse expect?

a)

Short stature and developmental delay

b)

Enlarged hands and facial features

c)

Low calcium and tetany

d)

Mental retardation and goiter

41.

A patient's ABG results are: pH 7.30, PaCO₂ 50 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 24 mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret these results?

a)

Metabolic acidosis

b)

Respiratory acidosis

c)

Metabolic alkalosis

d)

Respiratory alkalosis

42.

A nurse is caring for a patient with severe diarrhea. Which acid-base imbalance is most likely?

a)

Respiratory alkalosis

b)

Metabolic acidosis

c)

Respiratory acidosis

d)

Metabolic alkalosis

43.

A patient with SIADH would be expected to have which lab findings?

a)

Hyponatremia

b)

Low serum osmolality

c)

Increased urine sodium

d)

Hypernatremia

e)

Dehydration

44.

A patient with Diabetes Insipidus (DI) is at risk for which of the following?

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Hyponatremia

c)

Hypernatremia

d)

SIADH

45.

Which of the following would NOT be expected in a patient with DKA?

a)

Kussmaul respirations

b)

Elevated ketones

c)

High serum pH

d)

High blood glucose

46.

A patient with SIADH is receiving 3% saline. Which is the priority nursing action?

a)

Administer loop diuretics

b)

Monitor for fluid overload and seizures

c)

Encourage water intake

d)

Administer vasopressin