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Chapter 21 2/3

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is a misconception sonographers may have about the 2-D imaging plane?

a)

It is thick and variable

b)

It is always 3-D

c)

It is thin and uniform, like a slice of cheese

d)

It is bell-shaped like a trumpet

2.

What is the actual shape and dimension of the imaging plane?

a)

Flat and uniform

b)

Three-dimensional and non-uniform

c)

Cylindrical and constant

d)

Two-dimensional and thin

3.

What causes slice thickness artifact in ultrasound imaging?

a)

Reflections from structures above or below the assumed imaging plane

b)

Poor axial resolution

c)

Shadowing from bone

d)

Misalignment of the transducer

4.

What does the ultrasound beam resemble in shape as it extends from the transducer?

a)

A bell of a trumpet

b)

A pencil

c)

A laser beam

d)

A thin wire

5.

What aspect of resolution is determined by the thickness of the imaging plane?

a)

Lateral resolution

b)

Axial resolution

c)

Temporal resolution

d)

Elevation resolution

6.

When does slice thickness artifact typically appear?

a)

When the beam dimension is greater than the reflector size

b)

When the beam is focused

c)

Only during Doppler imaging

d)

At shallow depths only

7.

What is another name for slice thickness artifact?

a)

Axial resolution artifact

b)

Lateral resolution artifact

c)

Section thickness artifact

d)

Time gain artifact

8.

What is a key characteristic of the imaging plane in slice thickness artifact?

a)

It is always the same thickness

b)

It is thicker at the edges

c)

The thickness varies

d)

It is thinnest at the center

9.

Thicker portions of the imaging slice have:

a)

Inferior elevation resolution

b)

Superior lateral resolution

c)

No impact on resolution

d)

Improved image contrast

10.

What does slice thickness artifact typically result in on an ultrasound image?

a)

A clearer visualization of solid organs

b)

Filling in of hollow structures such as cysts

c)

Increased acoustic shadowing

d)

Reverberation echoes

11.

Where is the true reflector located in the case of slice thickness artifact?

a)

Directly in the imaging plane

b)

Above or below the assumed imaging plane

c)

Next to the imaging plane laterally

d)

In the focal zone of the transducer

12.

Which type of transducer helps reduce slice thickness artifact?

a)

Mechanical sector transducer

b)

Linear array transducer

c)

1.5-dimensional array transducer

d)

Continuous wave Doppler probe

13.

Which invalid assumption is associated with slice thickness artifact?

a)

Sound travels at exactly 1,540 m/s

b)

The imaging plane is extremely thin

c)

Sound travels in a straight line

d)

Echoes originate only from structures in the beam's main axis

14.

What is another name for lateral resolution artifact?

a)

Reverberation artifact

b)

Mirror artifact

c)

Comet tail artifact

d)

Point spread artifact

15.

When does lateral resolution artifact occur?

a)

When a beam is narrower than the distance between two reflectors

b)

When a beam is wider than the distance between two reflectors that are side to side

c)

When two reflectors are positioned in a vertical line

d)

When the transducer angle is too steep

16.

How does lateral resolution artifact affect the appearance of two reflectors?

a)

They appear brighter than they are

b)

They appear as one object

c)

They appear at different depths

d)

They appear with higher contrast

17.

How does lateral resolution artifact affect the display of a small reflector?

a)

It appears deeper than it actually is

b)

It appears as a wide line

c)

It appears twice

d)

It disappears from the image

18.

What can improve lateral resolution?

a)

Increased gain

b)

Lower frequency

c)

Focusing

d)

Larger beam width

19.

What causes axial resolution artifact in ultrasound imaging?

a)

When a wide beam strikes two side-by-side structures

b)

When a long pulse strikes two closely spaced structures, one in front of the other

c)

When Doppler shift is incorrectly calculated

d)

When the transducer fails to emit pulses

20.

Under what condition will only one reflector appear on the image in axial resolution artifact?

a)

When structures are farther apart than one spatial pulse length

b)

When structures are closer together than the beam width

c)

When structures are closer together than one-half spatial pulse length

d)

When structures are moving rapidly

21.

Which type of transducer provides better axial resolution?

a)

Lower frequency transducers

b)

Higher frequency transducers

c)

Broadband transducers

d)

Phased array transducers

22.

What causes multipath artifacts in ultrasound imaging?

a)

Sound pulses traveling in a perfectly straight line

b)

Sound pulses glancing off a second structure on the way to or from the primary reflector

c)

Sound pulses bouncing off the skin surface only

d)

Echoes generated from the transducer cable

23.

What is the result of a multipath artifact in ultrasound imaging?

a)

Complete absence of the primary reflector

b)

Subtle, nonspecific changes in the image

c)

An obvious bright spot on the image

d)

A perfectly symmetrical image artifact

24.

Which assumption is violated by multipath artifacts?

a)

That all echoes return at the same speed

b)

That a pulse travels directly to a structure and back

c)

That the transducer is always perpendicular

d)

That reflectors always appear brighter than they are

25.

What happens when a sound beam strikes a curved or oblique reflector?

a)

Some of the sound may be directed away from the transducer

b)

The sound is always reflected back fully

c)

The reflector becomes enhanced on the image

d)

The reflector completely disappears from view

26.

How do curved and oblique reflectors typically appear on an ultrasound image?

a)

Absent, weak, or different from similar reflectors

b)

Stronger and brighter than expected

c)

Unchanged in any way

27.

What does temporal resolution in ultrasound refer to?

a)

Ability to measure blood velocity

b)

Ability to precisely position a moving structure

c)

Ability to enhance image contrast

d)

Ability to determine tissue density

28.

What determines temporal resolution in ultrasound imaging?

a)

Transducer frequency

b)

Image depth

c)

Frame rate

d)

Gain settings

29.

What happens when temporal resolution is poor due to low frame rates?

a)

Less accurate positioning of reflectors in motion

b)

Increased image brightness

c)

Better image resolution

d)

Improved Doppler measurements

30.

What is spatial resolution in ultrasound imaging related to?

a)

Depth of the image

b)

Size of the transducer

c)

Overall detail in an image

d)

Speed of sound in tissue

31.

What determines the spatial resolution of an ultrasound image?

a)

Type of tissue being scanned

b)

Sound beam’s spacing or line density

c)

Frequency of the probe

d)

Time gain compensation settings

32.

Which of the following provides superior spatial resolution?

a)

Higher line density (closely packed pulses)

b)

Lower line density (widely spaced pulses)

c)

Longer pulse duration

d)

Wider beam width

33.

Lower line density on an image indicates:

a)

Less detail and inferior spatial resolution

b)

More contrast and better resolution

c)

Higher frequency and improved penetration

d)

Increased signal-to-noise ratio

34.

What is spatial resolution in a digital display related to?

a)

Frame rate

b)

Pixel density

c)

Beam width

d)

Transducer frequency

35.

How does a high pixel density affect spatial resolution?

a)

Decreases spatial resolution

b)

Has no effect on image detail

c)

Improves spatial resolution by providing more detail

d)

Increases the size of each pixel

36.

What happens when pixel size is greater than the size of the reflector?

a)

A spatial resolution artifact occurs

b)

Image quality improves

c)

The image becomes brighter

d)

Temporal resolution improves

37.

What is a characteristic of low pixel density in a digital display?

a)

Each pixel is large

b)

Image detail increases

c)

Each pixel is small

d)

Improves spatial resolution

38.

What causes the Range Ambiguity Artifact in ultrasound imaging?

a)

All reflections are received before the next pulse is transmitted

b)

Reflections from shallow structures arriving late

c)

Reflections from deep structures received after the next pulse is transmitted

d)

Increased frequency of the transmitted pulse

39.

How does the Range Ambiguity Artifact appear on an ultrasound image?

a)

As a duplicate reflector at the correct depth

b)

As a reflector appearing deeper than its actual location

c)

As a reflector appearing shallower than its actual location

d)

As a highly echogenic mass

40.

What adjustment can eliminate the Range Ambiguity Artifact?

a)

Increasing the PRF

b)

Increasing the frequency

c)

Increasing the PRP

d)

Decreasing the gain

41.

Why does increasing the PRP help in eliminating range ambiguity?

a)

It decreases the resolution of the image

b)

It reduces the number of transmitted pulses

c)

It allows more time for deep reflections to return before the next pulse

d)

It enhances the axial resolution

42.

What is noise in ultrasound imaging?

a)

High amplitude echoes from bone

b)

Artifacts caused by mirror reflectors

c)

Small amplitude echoes from various sources

d)

An enhancement artifact from fluid

43.

Which of the following is NOT a typical source of noise in ultrasound imaging?

a)

Tissue harmonic generation

b)

Electrical interference

c)

Signal processing

d)

Spurious reflections

44.

In ultrasound, noise is more likely to affect which type of region?

a)

Low-level hypoechoic regions

b)

Bright echogenic areas

c)

Highly vascular regions

d)

Bone surfaces

45.

Which of the following is considered a form of noise in ultrasound imaging?

a)

Speckle

b)

Gain

c)

Axial resolution

d)

Lobe artifact

46.

What type of artifact is referred to as clutter in ultrasound imaging?

a)

An enhancement artifact

b)

A type of reverberation

c)

A form of noise

d)

A reflection from deep tissue

47.

What is speckle artifact in ultrasound imaging?

a)

A reflection of deep tissue structures

b)

A motion artifact from patient movement

c)

Noise from interference of sound wavelets

d)

A defect caused by equipment malfunction

48.

Which of the following best describes the appearance of speckle artifact?

a)

Bright horizontal lines in the image

b)

Grainy tissue-like texture not related to actual anatomy

c)

Dark shadowing behind structures

d)

Mirror image duplication of vessels

49.

What causes speckle artifact?

a)

Only destructive interference of sound waves

b)

Artifacts from bone reflection

c)

Constructive and destructive interference of small wavelets

d)

Reverberation echoes only

50.

Which of the following can help reduce speckle artifact?

a)

Increased transducer pressure

b)

Spatial compounding

c)

Using a lower frequency transducer

d)

Reducing frame rate

51.

In which region of the ultrasound image is speckle most commonly observed?

a)

Shallow regions

b)

Deep abdominal organs

c)

Pelvic region

d)

Near bones only

52.

What is clutter in ultrasound imaging?

a)

A type of aliasing artifact

b)

The presence of false echo signals from outside the main sound beam

c)

An artifact caused by low-frequency sound waves

d)

A form of attenuation error

53.

Which of the following are sources of clutter?

a)

Color Doppler and pulse inversion

b)

Side lobes, grating lobes, and thickness artifacts

c)

High-frequency attenuation and reverberation

d)

Refraction and acoustic shadowing

54.

How does clutter affect Doppler imaging?

a)

It causes color flash artifacts

b)

It contaminates valid Doppler signals with high amplitude reflections

c)

It increases spectral resolution

d)

It reduces the overall power output of the transducer

55.

What causes high amplitude reflections in Doppler that lead to clutter?

a)

Only moving blood cells

b)

Vessel walls or heart muscle

c)

Attenuation layers in tissue

d)

Temperature variations in the medium

56.

What is one of the primary benefits of using harmonic imaging in ultrasound?

a)

It increases the speed of the ultrasound waves.

b)

It decreases the resolution of the image.

c)

It reduces the image’s noise content.

d)

It eliminates the need for Doppler imaging.

57.

What is the goal of harmonic imaging?

a)

To create multiple reflections from one sound wave.

b)

To selectively distinguish meaningful reflections from noise.

c)

To improve the color Doppler effect.

d)

To reduce the frame rate of imaging.

58.

What is the outcome of using harmonic imaging in terms of signal clarity?

a)

Reduced image clarity.

b)

Increased signal-to-noise ratio.

c)

Increased noise-to-signal ratio.

d)

Lower dynamic range.

59.

Which of the following can cause anatomic reflectors to be absent on an ultrasound image?

a)

Enhancement

b)

Shadowing

c)

Speed errors

d)

Multipath

60.

Which artifact causes an anatomic reflector to appear multiple times on the image, positioned deeper than the true anatomy?

a)

Refraction

b)

Comet tail

c)

Slice thickness

d)

Speed error

61.

Which artifact causes reflectors to appear multiple times, displaced to the side of the true anatomy?

a)

Mirror image

b)

Comet tail

c)

Side lobe

d)

Acoustic speckle

62.

Which artifact can cause anatomic reflectors to appear with abnormal brightness?

a)

Refraction

b)

Shadowing

c)

Acoustic speckle

d)

Speed errors

63.

Which artifacts cause anatomic structures to appear at incorrect depths?

a)

Refraction and shadowing

b)

Speed errors and range ambiguity

c)

Side lobe and grating lobe

d)

Slice thickness and speckle

64.

Which artifact causes anatomic structures to appear in the incorrect imaging plane?

a)

Refraction

b)

Slice thickness

c)

Grating lobe

d)

Comet tail

65.

Which artifacts result in anatomic structures that do not correspond to echoes on the image?

a)

Acoustic speckle and multipath

b)

Mirror image and shadowing

c)

Range ambiguity and side lobe