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Chapter 21 3/3

Total questions: 66

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is a consequence of edge shadowing in ultrasound imaging?

a)

It prevents visualization of true anatomy

b)

It improves image resolution

c)

It enhances color Doppler signals

d)

It helps identify vascular structures

2.

What is the difference between Shadow and Edge Shadow artifact?

a)

Shadowing and edge shadowing are both caused by attenuation of the beam equally throughout all tissues

b)

Edge shadowing is caused by increased absorption at the surface of fluid-filled structures

c)

Edge shadowing is caused by reflection from strong acoustic interfaces

d)

Edge shadowing is caused by the shape of the structure, not by attenuation

3.

What does enhancement appear as in an ultrasound image?

a)

A hypoechoic region beneath highly attenuating tissue

b)

A shadow below dense structures

c)

A hyperechoic region beneath tissue with abnormally low attenuation

d)

A region of no echoes beneath a cyst

4.

Which of the following best describes the relationship between enhancement and shadowing?

a)

They are the same phenomenon

b)

Enhancement is the opposite of shadowing

c)

Both are caused by high attenuation

d)

They only occur with cystic structures

5.

How can enhancement assist in clinical diagnosis?

a)

It may provide valuable diagnostic information that helps characterize tissue

b)

It always obscures pathological features

c)

It helps eliminate artifacts

d)

It speeds up the imaging process

6.

Is enhancement related to the speed at which sound travels through a medium?

a)

Yes, it directly correlates

b)

Partially, depending on the density

c)

No, it is entirely unrelated

d)

Only in soft tissue

7.

What incorrect assumption does enhancement relate to in ultrasound imaging?

a)

That the intensity of a reflection is solely related to the characteristics of the tissue

b)

That the reflection angle affects intensity

c)

That echoes occur only from strong reflectors

d)

That sound speed influences echo brightness

8.

What is a key characteristic of enhancement in ultrasound imaging?

a)

Hypoechoic appearance

b)

Hyperechoic appearance (same as foreground tissue)

c)

Anechoic shadowing

d)

Increased attenuation

9.

What causes enhancement artifacts in ultrasound?

a)

Excessive reflection

b)

Strong refraction

c)

Too little attenuation

d)

Over-gained image settings

10.

Where is enhancement typically located in an ultrasound image?

a)

Above structures with high attenuation

b)

At the skin surface

c)

Next to structures with high impedance

d)

Beneath structures with low attenuation

11.

What is focal enhancement in ultrasound imaging also known as?

a)

TGC artifact

b)

Lateral artifact

c)

Focal banding

d)

Reverberation

12.

Where is focal enhancement most prominent in the ultrasound image?

a)

Near the transducer

b)

At the region of the focus

c)

At the far field

d)

Throughout the entire depth

13.

How does focal enhancement typically appear in an image?

a)

As a horizontal band of hyperechoic tissue

b)

As a vertical line of shadowing

c)

As a region of anechoic dropout

d)

As a misalignment of structures

14.

What incorrect assumption does focal enhancement relate to?

a)

That the sound travels in a straight line

b)

That the speed of sound in tissue is constant

c)

That the intensity of a reflection is related to tissue characteristics

d)

That echoes return directly to the transducer

15.

Which artifact has the appearance similar to an incorrect TGC setting?

a)

Shadowing

b)

Reverberation

c)

Focal enhancement

d)

Comet tail

16.

What is a characteristic of focal enhancement in ultrasound imaging?

a)

A hypoechoic area near the surface

b)

A shadowing region behind bone

c)

A hyperechoic side-to-side region

d)

A region with no echoes

17.

What causes focal enhancement in ultrasound imaging?

a)

Attenuation due to dense tissue

b)

Reverberation artifact

c)

Increased intensity at the focus

d)

Weak transducer signal

18.

What causes a mirror image artifact in ultrasound imaging?

a)

Refraction of sound at a tissue boundary

b)

Sound absorption by a dense object

c)

Reflection off a strong reflector that redirects sound toward a second structure

d)

Scattering of sound by small particles

19.

Where is the mirror image artifact typically located in relation to the real structure?

a)

At the same depth as the real structure

b)

Deeper than the real structure

c)

Shallower than the real structure

d)

It appears lateral to the real structure

20.

Which of the following ultrasound modalities can show mirror image artifacts?

a)

Gray scale imaging only

b)

Both gray scale and color Doppler imaging

c)

Only M-mode imaging

d)

Only power Doppler imaging

21.

What ultrasound assumptions are violated by the mirror image artifact?

a)

Sound is reflected only once

b)

Sound is absorbed completely by soft tissue

c)

Sound travels in a straight line and directly to a reflector and back

d)

Sound intensity does not vary with depth

22.

In color Doppler imaging, which vessel is real when a mirror artifact is present?

a)

The shallower vessel

b)

The deeper vessel

c)

Both are real

d)

Neither is real

23.

What is a key characteristic of a mirror artifact in ultrasound imaging?

a)

It appears shallower than the true reflector

b)

It appears as a second copy of a true reflector

c)

It is always located laterally from the true reflector

d)

It enhances the resolution of the image

24.

Where does the mirror artifact typically appear in relation to the true reflector?

a)

Deeper than the true reflector

b)

At the same depth as the transducer

c)

Shallower than the true reflector

d)

Lateral to the true reflector

25.

Which structure must lie on a straight line between the transducer and the artifact in mirror artifacts?

a)

A hypoechoic lesion

b)

A bright reflector (the mirror)

c)

A shadowing object

d)

The true reflector

26.

26. The distances between the true reflector and the artifact in mirror artifacts are:

a)

Equal

b)

Greater

c)

Lesser

d)

Unrelated

27.

The artifact is always closer to the mirror

a)

The artifact is always closer to the mirror

b)

They are equal distances from the mirror

c)

The artifact is always farther from the mirror

d)

There is no predictable relationship

28.

What is Crosstalk artifact in ultrasound imaging?

a)

A type of reverberation artifact

b)

A lateral resolution error

c)

A type of mirror image artifact that appears on spectral Doppler display

d)

An artifact caused by poor gain settings

29.

What causes a speed error artifact in ultrasound imaging?

a)

Incorrect transducer frequency

b)

Improper gain settings

c)

A sound wave propagates through a medium at a speed other than soft tissue

d)

High thermal index levels

30.

What is the speed of sound assumed in soft tissue for ultrasound imaging?

a)

1,000 m/s

b)

1,540 m/s

c)

2,000 m/s

d)

1,200 m/s

31.

What is another name for speed error artifact?

a)

Reverberation artifact

b)

Shadowing artifact

c)

Range error artifact

d)

Side lobe artifact

32.

What is the visual result of a speed error artifact on the ultrasound image?

a)

Structures appear brighter than normal

b)

Reflectors appear at incorrect depths

c)

Reflectors appear twice

d)

There are no changes on the image

33.

What happens when the medium's speed is slower than that in soft tissue?

a)

Sound travels faster than the system expects

b)

Sound travels slower than the system expects

c)

Sound travels at the same speed as expected

d)

Sound does not return to the transducer

34.

How does the ultrasound system interpret the go-return time when the speed of sound is slower than expected?

a)

The system thinks the reflectors are farther from the transducer

b)

The system places reflectors too close to the transducer

c)

The system ignores the returned pulses

d)

The system assumes the medium is solid

35.

What artifact results from a slower speed of sound in the medium?

a)

Shadowing artifact

b)

Reflectors placed too deep

c)

Lateral resolution artifact

d)

Comet tail artifact

36.

What is the impact on measured distances when the speed of sound is slower than expected?

a)

Distances are underestimated

b)

Distances are overestimated

c)

Distances remain unchanged

d)

Distances are not measurable

37.

What happens when the medium's speed is faster than that in soft tissue?

a)

Sound travels slower than expected

b)

Pulses return with a delay

c)

Sound travels faster than the ultrasound system expects

d)

There is no change in pulse return timing

38.

What is the effect of a fast go-return time on the ultrasound image?

a)

Reflectors are located too shallow on the image

b)

Reflectors appear deeper on the image

c)

Reflectors are not displayed

d)

The image contrast is enhanced

39.

How does the system interpret the location of reflectors when sound travels faster than expected?

a)

The system assumes the reflectors are closer to the transducer

b)

The system places reflectors deeper than they are

c)

Reflectors are considered noise

d)

No reflectors are displayed

40.

What error occurs in distance measurement when sound travels faster in the medium?

a)

Distances are overestimated

b)

Distances are underestimated

c)

Distances remain accurate

d)

Distances fluctuate randomly

41.

What is another name for propagation speed errors in ultrasound imaging?

a)

Doppler artifact

b)

Reverberation artifact

c)

Range error artifact

d)

Mirror artifact

42.

Which of the following is TRUE about propagation speed error artifacts?

a)

They always appear at the correct depth

b)

They do not affect the number of reflectors seen

c)

They cause reflectors to appear at improper depths

d)

They result in complete loss of reflectors

43.

What visual effect does propagation speed error typically create?

a)

Shadowing

b)

Enhancement

c)

Step-off appearance

d)

Twinkling artifact

44.

What remains correct in a propagation speed error artifact?

a)

Number of reflectors

b)

Depth of reflectors

c)

Position of reflectors

d)

Shape of the reflectors

45.

If two pins are 100mm apart but appear 90mm apart on the display, and two other pins are 50mm apart, how will they appear on the display?

a)

50mm

b)

48mm

c)

45mm

d)

40mm

46.

An ultrasound system underestimates the distance between two pins. What does this indicate?

a)

The sound is traveling faster than that of soft tissue.

b)

The system is overestimating the actual distance.

c)

The gain setting is too high.

d)

The transducer frequency is too low.

47.

What is a lobe artifact in ultrasound imaging?

a)

A shadow behind a dense object

b)

A result of insufficient gain settings

c)

An artifact that appears when sound energy is transmitted in a direction other than along the beam’s main axis

d)

A misalignment of the Doppler angle

48.

What effect do lobe artifacts have on image quality?

a)

They improve axial resolution

b)

They degrade lateral resolution

c)

They enhance color Doppler sensitivity

d)

They eliminate mirror artifacts

49.

Which type of transducer creates side lobes?

a)

Array transducer

b)

Mechanical sector transducer

c)

Single crystal transducer

d)

Annular array transducer

50.

Which type of transducer creates grating lobes?

a)

Array transducer

b)

Single crystal transducer

c)

Mechanical transducer

d)

Annular transducer

51.

Why do lobe artifacts usually not generate reflections?

a)

They are too deep to return echoes.

b)

They only occur in M-mode imaging.

c)

They are generally weaker than the main beam.

d)

They are absorbed by soft tissue.

52.

When can a lobe artifact generate a reflection?

a)

When scanning superficial tissues.

b)

When a strong reflector lies in the path of the lobe.

c)

Only during Doppler imaging.

d)

When gain is set too low.

53.

How can real anatomy be differentiated from an artifact in ultrasound imaging?

a)

By increasing output power.

b)

Real anatomy will appear in all imaging views.

c)

Artifacts will always appear brighter.

d)

Real anatomy creates shadowing.

54.

What assumption related to lobe artifacts is considered invalid?

a)

That all tissues reflect ultrasound equally.

b)

That reflections arise only from structures located along the beam’s main axis.

c)

That lateral resolution is always sufficient.

d)

That all echoes come from superficial depths.

55.

What is a key characteristic of a lobe artifact in ultrasound imaging?

a)

It always appears deeper than the true reflector

b)

It only appears during Doppler imaging

c)

It is a second copy of the true reflector

d)

It is caused by mirror reflection across a bright structure

56.

Where is the lobe artifact located in relation to the true reflector?

a)

Above and deeper than the true reflector

b)

Side-by-side at the same depth

c)

Closer to the transducer and to the right

d)

Farther from the transducer and to the left

57.

What is the process called where each PZT element is divided into smaller pieces to reduce grating lobes?

a)

Apodization

b)

Subdicing

c)

Refraction

d)

Attenuation

58.

What is the term for applying different voltages to subdiced elements to further reduce grating lobes?

a)

Subdicing

b)

Apodization

c)

Modulation

d)

Diffusion

59.

How are elements near the center of the beam excited during apodization?

a)

With lower voltages

b)

With higher voltages

c)

With the same voltages as the edges

d)

They are not excited at all

60.

How are the outermost elements excited in apodization?

a)

With higher voltages

b)

With equal voltages

c)

With lower voltages

d)

They are not excited

61.

What is refraction in ultrasound imaging?

a)

Reflection of sound back to the transducer

b)

Scattering of sound in all directions

c)

Absorption of sound by tissue

d)

Change in direction of sound during transmission

62.

Under what conditions does refraction occur?

a)

When sound strikes a boundary perpendicularly

b)

When media on either side have identical propagation speeds

c)

When sound strikes a boundary obliquely and the media have different propagation speeds

d)

When there is no difference in tissue density

63.

Which resolution is degraded due to refraction?

a)

Axial resolution

b)

Temporal resolution

c)

Contrast resolution

d)

Lateral resolution

64.

Refraction is related to the violation of which ultrasound assumption?

a)

Sound travels in soft tissue at 1540 m/s

b)

Sound reflects at 90 degrees incidence

c)

Sound travels in a straight line

d)

The transducer is the only sound source

65.

What is a characteristic of a refraction artifact in ultrasound imaging?

a)

A copy of the reflector appears deeper than the original

b)

The artifact appears in front of the true reflector

c)

A second copy of the reflector is seen

d)

The artifact appears at a different frequency

66.

Where is the artifact located in relation to the true reflector in refraction artifact?

a)

Above and behind the true reflector

b)

Side-by-side at the same depth

c)

At a different angle but same depth

d)

Directly beneath the true reflector