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Venous exa 2

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 40hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which deep veins are typically paired in the upper extremity?

a)

Subclavian and Axillary

b)

Radial and ulnar

c)

Basillic and cephalic

d)

Internal jugular and brachiocephalic

2.

What finding suggests superior vena cava (SVC) thrombosis?

a)

Leg pain

b)

Bilateral arm edema

c)

Facial swelling with chest wall collaterals

d)

Calf tenderness

3.

What is the most common cause of upper extremity vein injury?

a)

High pressure

b)

Frequent catheter insertions

c)

Varicose veins

d)

Valve failure

4.

Why are superficial veins more affected in upper extremities?

a)

Lower pressure

b)

Smaller size

c)

Frequent catheterization

d)

Muscle compression

5.

What maneuver helps visualize subclavian vein flow during ultrasound?

a)

Leg elevation

b)

Valsalva manuver

c)

Deep breath through pursed lips

d)

Lying prone

6.

An acute thrombus will typically appear:

a)

Well attached, bright

b)

Collapsed, narrow

c)

Spongy, dialated vein

d)

Invisible on grayscale

7.

Chronic thrombus is best described as:

a)

Hypoechoic and spongy

b)

Bright, well attached, and rigid

c)

sonolucent

d)

Found only in superficial veins

8.

What is the typical Doppler waveform in the internal jugular vein?

a)

Continuous

b)

Pulsatile and respiratory phasic

c)

Triphasic

9.

What is the primary method for diagnosing DVT?

a)

CT

b)

MRI

c)

Duplex ultrasound

d)

X-ray

10.

In the presence of acute DVT, vein walls typically:

a)

Coapt completely

b)

Fail to compress

c)

Are thickened and rigid

d)

Appear bright and reflective

11.

What effect does a distal compression have on normal venous flow?

a)

Stops flow

b)

No change

c)

Augments flow

d)

Reverses flow

12.

What is a normal response to Valsalva in a competent vein?

a)

Flow increases

b)

Flow stops

c)

Flow reverses

d)

No effect

13.

What structure may prevent full compression of the femoral vein in the adductor canal?

a)

Bone

b)

Muscle

c)

Fascia

14.

What is the typical Doppler finding in a thrombosed vein?

a)

Respiratory variation

b)

Augmentation

c)

Continuous or absent flow

d)

Pulsatile triphasic flow

15.

What distinguishes chronic DVT from acute DVT?

a)

Spongy thrombus

b)

Rigid thrombus with contracted vein

c)

Pulsatility

16.

What does absence of augmentation with distal compression suggest?

a)

Normal flow

b)

Proximal obstruction

c)

Arterial interference

d)

Reflux

17.

Which veins do not have valves?

a)

IVC, SVC, Iliac veins

b)

Femoral, popliteal, CFV

c)

GSV, SSV

d)

Perforators

18.

What is the role of perforators?

a)

Pump blood into the skin

b)

Connect veins to arteries

c)

Move blood from superficial to deep veins

d)

Move blood from deep to superficial veins

19.

What is the most serious sequela of DVT?

a)

Varicose veins

b)

Chronic pain

c)

PE

d)

Phlebitis

20.

What are signs of venous insufficiency due to chronic DVT?

a)

Skin ulcers and thick nails

b)

Brawny discoloration and ulcer near medial malleolus

c)

Redness and arterial bleeding

d)

Collapsed vessels

21.

Which superficial vein drains into the popliteal vein?

a)

Great saphenous

b)

Posterior tibial

c)

Small saphenous

d)

Anterior tibial

22.

What imaging technique is used if veins cannot be visualized by compression?

a)

Grayscale only

b)

Color and spectral doppler

c)

Spectral doppler

d)

Color doppler

23.

What should you do if an indwelling catheter appears surrounded by echogenic material?

a)

Ignore it

b)

Remove cathter immediately

c)

Suspect thrombus

d)

Confirm with arterial waveform

24.

What is the preferred patient positioning during lower extremity venous exam?

a)

Supine with the head elevated

b)

Prone

c)

Reverse Trendelenberg

d)

Standing

25.

What distinguishes a normal upper extremity venous waveform from a lower extremity waveform?

a)

Upper extremity has continuous flow

b)

Upper extremity shows no phasicity

c)

Upper extremity has pulsatility, lower extremity normally doesnt

d)

Lower extremity has respiratory phasicity but no pulsatility

26.

How does inspiration affect venous blood flow?

a)

Decreases venous return

b)

Increase thoracic pressure

c)

Increases abdominal pressure and venous return

d)

Has no effect

27.

What is May-Thurner Syndrome?

a)

Right iliac vein compression by the right iliac artery

b)

Left iliac vein compression by the right iliac artery

28.

Which of the following is a characteristic of chronic DVT?

a)

Sonolucent and loosely attached

b)

Spongy and newly formed

c)

Narrowed vein and well-attached thrombus

d)

No collateral formation

29.

Which of the following is a deep vein in the lower extremity?

a)

Great saphenous vein

b)

Cephalic vein

c)

Posterior tibial vein

d)

Median cubital vein

30.

Which veins are typically not compressible with ultrasound?

a)

Jugular veins

b)

Basillic veins

c)

Veins w DVT

d)

Radial veins

31.

What does a pulsatile waveform in the lower extremity suggest?

a)

Normal respiration

b)

Proximal obstruction

c)

Ateriovenous fistula or systemic venous hypertension

d)

deep inspiration

32.

What does a pulsatile waveform in the lower extremity suggest?

a)

normal flow

b)

venous reflux

c)

proximal obstruction

d)

compression from distal clot

33.

What is the role of a perforating vein?

a)

connect arteries to veins

b)

connect superficial veins to deep veins

c)

allow reflux

d)

drain lymph

34.

What does a continuous waveform without respiratory variation suggest?

a)

Distal obstruction

b)

venous reflux

c)

proximal obstruction

d)

valve incompetence

35.

Which of the following veins is commonly evaluated in vein mapping for grafting?

a)

Subclavian

b)

Internal jugular

c)

Great saphenous

d)

External iliac

36.

What is the minimum vein diameter suitable for grafting?

a)

1mm

b)

1.5 mm

c)

2 mm

d)

2.5mm

37.

What indicates a positive result for venous reflux in deep veins?

a)

<0.5 s

b)

>1.0 s

c)

>0.35 s

d)

<1.0 s

38.

How does SVT differ from DVT?

a)

SVT is life threatening

b)

DVT occurs in the superficial veins

c)

SVT is in superficial veins and is less dangerous

d)

They are the same

39.

Which vein has 10–20 valves?

a)

Popliteal

b)

Femoral

c)

Great saphenous

d)

Jugular

40.

Which value confirms incompetent venous reflux?

a)

Retrograde flow <0.3s

b)

>0.5s reflux

c)

No flow

d)

Flow reversal only with inspiration

41.

The GSV drains into the:

a)

Popliteal vein

b)

Femoral vein

c)

CFV

d)

Iliac vein

42.


Where does the basilic vein drain?

a)

Subclavian

b)

Cephalic

c)

Jugular

d)

Brachial

43.

What is Phlegmasia Alba Dolens?

a)

Arterial embolism

b)

Superficial thrombophlebitis

c)

Iliofemoral DVT with leg swelling and blanching

d)

Venous insufficency

44.


How is PPG used in venous testing?

a)

Measure calf pressure

b)

Map veins for grafting

c)

Evaluate valve competency via venous refill

d)

Detect occlusion via pulse wave

45.

During expiration, blood flow from the legs to the abdomen:

a)

Stops

b)

Decreases

c)

Increases

d)

Reverses

46.

What percentage of total blood volume is held in the venous system?

a)

1/3

b)

1/2

c)

2/3

d)

3/4

47.

Distended veins have how much more cross-sectional area than their corresponding artery?

a)

1x

b)

2x

c)

3-4x

d)

5x

48.

Veins offer the least resistance to flow when they are:

a)

Collapsed

b)

Elliptical

c)

Circular and distended

d)

Partially filled

49.

High transmural pressure causes a vein to become:

a)

Elliptical

b)

Collapsed

c)

Dumbbell shaped

d)

Circular

50.

Low volume in veins typically results in:

a)

High transmural pressure

b)

Circular shape

c)

Elliptical shape

d)

Increased resistance

51.


During expiration, blood flow from the legs into the abdomen:

a)

Decreases

b)

Increases

c)

Stops

d)

Reverses

52.

What is the result of DVT on venous flow from the legs?

a)

Increases phasicity

b)

Flow becomes continuous

c)

No effect

d)

Reversal of flow

53.

Where does the cephalic vein typically terminate?

a)

Jugular

b)

Basillic

c)

Axillary

d)

subclavian

54.

Which veins show respiratory phasicity and pulsatility?

a)

Radial and Ulnar

b)

Basillic, Jugular, Radial

c)

Jugular, subclavian, brachiocephalic

d)

Cephalic and Basillic

55.

Which vein joins the basilic vein to form the axillary vein?

a)

Radial

b)

Ulnar

c)

Brachial

d)

Cephalic

56.

What does continuous flow in the CFV suggest?

a)

Proximal obstruction

b)

Distal obstruction

c)

Valve failure

d)

Retrograde flow

57.


Which ulcer type is associated with chronic venous disease?

a)

Deep, painful ulcers on toes

b)

Painless ulcers on soles

c)

Shallow, irregular ulcers at medial malleolus

58.


What does spontaneous, phasic Doppler flow suggest?

a)

Thrombosis

b)

Normal flow

c)

Reflux

d)

Arterial flow

59.

What is the primary function of venous capacitance vessels?

a)

Pump blood

b)

Store blood

c)

Exchange gases

d)

Deliver oxygen

60.

Which vein terminates into the axillary vein in the upper arm?

a)

Cephalic

b)

Basilic

c)

Brachial

d)

Subclavian

61.

During inspiration, blood return from the legs is:

a)

Increased

b)

Unchanged

c)

Decreased

d)

Not affected

62.

Which superficial vein travels on the lateral side of the arm?

a)

Basillic

b)

Cephalic

c)

Brachial

d)

Medial cubital

63.

Which superficial vein runs along the medial leg?

a)

Small saphenous

b)

Great saphenous

c)

Anterior tibial

d)

Popliteal

64.

What is A pointing to?

a)

Ulnar

b)

Radial

c)

Brachial

d)

Cephalic

65.

B?

a)

Ulnar

b)

Radial

c)

Median Cubital

d)

Basilic

e)

Cephalic

66.

C?

a)

Ulnar

b)

Basilic

c)

Cephalic

d)

Radial

e)

Axillary

67.

D?

a)

Cephalic

b)

Ulnar

c)

Radial

d)

Axillary

e)

Basilic

68.

E?

a)

Subclavian

b)

Ulnar

c)

Cephalic

d)

Axillary

e)

Brachial

69.

F?

a)

Ulnar

b)

Subclavian

c)

Axillary

d)

Brachial

e)

Cephalic

70.

G?

a)

Subclavian

b)

Axillary

c)

Brachial

d)

Cephalic

e)

Basillic

71.

A?

a)

Medial malleolus

b)

Posterior tibial veins

c)

Peroneal veins

d)

Great saphenous

72.

B? (bottom cut off)

a)

Medial malleolus

b)

Posterior tibial veins

c)

Peroneal veins

d)

Great saphenous vein

73.

c?

a)

Medial malleolus

b)

Posterior tibial veins

c)

Peroneal veins

d)

Great saphenous

74.

D?

a)

Medial malleolus

b)

Posterior tibial veins

c)

Peroneal veins

d)

Great saphenous vein

75.

All of the following veins of the upper extremity are deep veins EXCEPT the

a)

Ulnar

b)

Brachial

c)

Axillary

d)

Basillic

76.

Flow in a normal, competent perforating vein should flow:

a)

Superficial to deep

b)

Exhibiting reversal

c)

Deep to superficial

d)

In many directions

77.

The cephalic vein travels on the __________ side of the arm.

a)

Anterolateral

b)

Posterior

c)

Medial

d)

Posteromedial

78.

The small saphenous vein most commonly drains into the:

a)

Popliteal vein

b)

Vein of Giacomini

c)

Superficial femoral vein

d)

Great saphenous vein

79.

The soleal sinuses drain into the:

a)

Greater saphenous

b)

Posterior tibial and peroneal veins

c)

Popliteal vein

d)

Anterior tibial vein

80.

Which of the following vessels is NOT a deep vein of the lower extremity?

a)

Small saphenous vein

b)

Femoral vein

c)

Popliteal vein

d)

Anterior tibial vein

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