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G&D Summative 1

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Toddlers in the age of 1-3 years need to have routine growth and development monitoring every 3 months

a)

True

b)

False

2.

Child is defined from conception to 19 years old

a)

True

b)

False

3.

Below are the determinants of physical growth, except..

a)

Nutrition

b)

Genetics

c)

Hormones

d)

Social

4.

Let’s say, if Joe doesn’t give his baby affection, stimulation, and love like the parents should, also feeds his baby poorly. Referring to the image, which brain cells are expected to be found in the baby?

a)

Left

b)

Middle

c)

Right

d)

None of the above

5.

If I have a 2 and a half years old child named Adnan Reva Gibraldy, what kind of stimulation can I give to him?

a)

RKO from outta nowhere

b)

Peekaboo

c)

Teach him how to ride a bike

d)

Teach him how to dress himself

6.

In which follicular stage that antrum can be found?

a)

Primary Follicle

b)

Secondary Follicle

c)

Pre-antral Follicle

d)

Tertiary Follicle

7.

Secondary oocyte produced the first polar body in oogenesis

a)

True

b)

False

8.

In fertilization, the release hyaluronidase will break down zona pellucida for sperm to penetrate the egg

a)

True

b)

False

9.

Which one of these statements is true regarding mesoderm?

a)

Formed from the delamination of endoderm which create the layer next to the former layer

b)

Formed from cells lining the blastocoel (blastocyst cavity)

c)

Later on, mesoderm is potentially develop into organs of: cardiovascular system, urogenital system, nervous system, epidermis and it derivatives

d)

Formed from the delamination of primitive knot

10.

In gastrulation, epiblast will form into amniotic cavity. Meanwhile, hypoblast will form the yolk sac containing nutrients.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

Based on the picture above, we can see a structure called Foregut which is responsible for;

a)

Bladder, pelvic area

b)

Distal part of duodenum, ascending colon, transverse colon

c)

Lungs, liver, diaphragm, esophagus, duodenum, gaster

d)

Primitive diaphragm

12.

In which trimester abnormalities may occur?

a)

1st trimester

b)

2nd trimester

c)

3rd trimester

d)

4th trimester

13.

What organ that functions first in the gestation period

a)

Lungs

b)

Liver

c)

Heart

d)

Kidneys

14.

Definitive endoderm is formed by the mesenchymal cells from epiblast that will migrate to the hypoblast

a)

True

b)

False

15.

It is safe to terminate a baby during the 26 weeks of pregnancy when the mother is suffering from eclampsia and threatens her life.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Melanocyte and end nerve corpuscle originated from:

a)

ectoderm

b)

endoderm

c)

mesoderm

d)

neural crest

17.

What does the periderm consist of?

a)

columnar epithelium

b)

squamous epithelium

c)

cuboidal epithelium

d)

columnar epithelium

18.

Which exocrine glands lose part of the cytoplasm to secrete products?

a)

Merocrine

b)

Apocrine

c)

Holocrine

19.

Group of chondrocytes is called?

a)

isotonic

b)

isomer

c)

isogen

d)

isoman

20.

After birth, ossification occurs in the diaphysis until puberty hits

a)

True

b)

False

21.

Foramen ovale connects the aorta and the pulmonary artery

a)

True

b)

False

22.

How many weeks (gestation) is the fetus able to immaturely suck-swallow?

a)

10-14

b)

20

c)

28

d)

33-36

23.

Why does GFR (glomerular filtration rate) increase between week 22 and 35?

a)

The start of tubular reabsorption

b)

The decrease of total body water and extracellular fluid

c)

The increase in the number of nephrons

d)

The start of urine production and glomerular function

24.

Myelination begins during the second trimester and continues until adulthood

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Aya is pregnant with her first child. Suddenly her friend, Hana, started shouting the lyrics to “Good 4 You” at 90 dB. How many decibels will the fetus hear?

a)

The fetus will hear more than 90 dB

b)

The fetus will hear 90 dB

c)

The fetus will hear less than 90 dB

d)

The fetus will not hear at all

26.

What kind of reflex is shown in the picture?

a)

Palmar grasp reflex

b)

Sucking and rooting reflex

c)

Tonic neck reflex

d)

Moro reflex

27.

Among these, what are the stimuli of respiratory system adjustment?

a)

Mechanical stimuli, due to gravitational push, forcing neonates to breathe.

b)

Chemical stimuli, due to low blood pH and hypoxia, initiating respiratory centres to breathe.

c)

Light stimuli, due to low light that increased IGF-1 secretion, stimulating respiratory centres.

d)

Mechanical stimuli, due to upregulated Ca2+ pump in alveoli, draining amniotic fluid to GI tract.

28.

Why does pulmonary vascular resistance reduce in neonates?

a)

Due to blood clot formation in hepatic sinuses when the umbilical cord is clamped, pulmonary vascular resistance is reduced.

b)

Due to increasing pressure in the right atrium, pulmonary vascular resistance is reduced.

c)

Due to blood oxygen levels being increased once pulmonary respiration is established, pulmonary vascular resistance is reduced.

d)

Due to increased secretion of growth hormone, vasodilation is achieved, thus reducing pulmonary vascular resistance.

29.

Which of the following statements are correct?

a)

Neonates have higher red blood cell count than adults, amounting to ⅔ more than that of adults by comparison

b)

Due to immature liver, neonates are prone to having hyperbilirubinemia on account of increased bilirubin count.

c)

Neonates are more immune to adults due to higher immunoglobulin count.

d)

Neonates that have tachypnea (RR 30-60/min) are considered abnormal upon birth.

30.

Most blood coming from the umbilical vein diverts to the ductus venosus to the hepatic system.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

Activation of thyroid hormone (T3) can cause lower basal metabolic rate, disrupting thermogenesis in neonate

a)

True

b)

False

32.

Which of the following is normal in neonates?

a)

Increased catecholamine level

b)

Intermittent grunting

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Decrease in SpO2 from 100% to 80-85%

33.

Which of the following are the risk factors for transitional problems?

a)

Gestational age is 38 weeks

b)

Mother is not having preeclampsia

c)

Mother is having multiple gestation

d)

Sudden decrease of pressure in intrapleural cavity

34.

Mrs. Smith, a woman with a pregnancy age of 43 weeks, came to the clinic to give birth. Upon hours after birth the baby has difficulty breathing, grunting and retractions. The amniotic fluid appearance is stained. What is the most plausible diagnosis?

a)

Respiratory Distress Syndrome

b)

Pneumonia

c)

Persistent pulmonary hypertension of newborn

d)

Meconium aspiration

35.

Mrs John just gave birth in your clinic. Examination of baby’s oxygen saturation shows fluctuation. The baby shows difficulty breathing. What is the most plausible diagnosis?

a)

Pneumonia

b)

Meconium aspiration

c)

Respiratory distress syndrome

d)

Persistent pulmonary hypertension of newborn

36.

Maternal pre-eclampsia may cause encephalopathy, which manifested as seizure, with eye pointing only towards one direction

a)

True

b)

False

37.

The picture above is showing a baby with clubbed feet, clenched hands and a small head. Karyotype is performed and trisomy in chromosome 18 is observable. What is the most plausible diagnosis?

a)

Down syndrome

b)

Patau Syndrome

c)

Edward syndrome

d)

Turner syndrome

38.

The function of HOX genes related to growth and development is..

a)

develop and regulate the body axes

b)

proliferate the progenitor cells of organ

c)

transcripted into growth factors

d)

provide matrix for organs

39.

Mutation in SOX gene may cause defects marked by..

a)

impaired TGF-beta signalling pathway

b)

inability of male to develop its genitalia

c)

inability to proliferate female gonads

d)

inability to develop ovary

40.

Mutation in TGF-beta gene caused multiple sclerosis, which is marked by tall stature and arachnodactyly

a)

True

b)

False

41.

If activated, TGF-beta receptor superfamily will conduct serine/threonine signaling pathway

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Which of this is not apart of the 6 focuses of antenatal care

a)

information

b)

lifestyle consideration

c)

laboratory tests

d)

clinical conditions

e)

autonomy

43.

Which of these is the purpose of antenatal care ?

a)

to help mothers approach pregnancy and childbirth as a positive experience

b)

to encourage parents to have children

c)

to convince the mother everything is fine

d)

to try out and develop a new screening technique

44.

Which of this is true

a)

without antenatal care, fetus will definitely be born abnormal

b)

abnormal perinatal conditions are linked to type 2 diabetes

c)

fetal programing happens after birth

d)

to try out and develop a new screening technique

45.

Which condition doesn’t affect fetus in pregnancy

a)

placental malaria infection

b)

hypertensive mother during pregnancy

c)

low protein diet of mother during pregnancy

d)

eating broccoli during pregnancy

46.

Why is proper antenatal care important?

a)

so we don’t know if the baby has defects

b)

to force the mother to do eat vegetables

c)

to detect and treat conditions that may be a threat to the mother of fetus early

d)

to help deliver the baby

47.

Which is not a criteria for affectional bonds between individuals

a)

bond is persistent and not transitory

b)

relationship is emotionally significant

c)

an individual wants to maintain proximity or contact with the person with whom he or she has an affectional tie

d)

they feel happy at involuntary separation from the other person

48.

Which is a sign of unresolved lack of initial infant attachment?

a)

children are able to trust their friends

b)

as adults, they are demanding and controling to their significant other

c)

they are careless and freewilled

d)

they are able to form loving and intimate relationships

49.

Which of these is not a type of attachment

a)

secure

b)

avoidant

c)

compliance

d)

resistant

50.

A preschooler cries when his mother leave him alone and when his mother returns back, he quickly runs and hugs her mother and stops crying. which attachment style does the boy have ?

a)

insecure avoidant attachment

b)

secure resistant attachment

c)

secure attachment

d)

insecure disorganised attachment

51.

Which of these is not a factor that contribute to impaired attachment

a)

premature birth

b)

adoption by another family

c)

term birth

d)

congenital defects requiring surgery

52.

The construction of thought process or a development process of the way we think includes :

a)

remembering, predicting imagination

b)

remembering, problem solving, imagination

c)

problem solving, decision making predicting

d)

remembering, problem solving, decision making

53.

Which is not a factor of determination of one’s intellectual capacity ?

a)

genetics

b)

nutrition

c)

learning factors

d)

gender

54.

A kid watching tv sees dinosaurs for the first time. Then she went to universal studios and saw another dinosaur at a jurassic park ride and told her mom that is a dinosaur. what did she do ?

a)

accommodate new info

b)

facilitate new info

c)

asses new info

d)

assimilate new info

55.

6 year old kid is able to make up stories about unicorns and tell it to his mom. which stage of development is he in

a)

concrete operational stage

b)

preoperational stage

c)

sensorymotor stage

d)

formal operational stage

56.

Which of these are true?

a)

4 month baby has a preference which toys he’she likes

b)

2 year old child cannot recognise his/her self in the mirror

c)

5 year olds know that it is wrong to hit other people

d)

you can make deals with 2 year olds (if they do something they get a reward)

57.

Baby didn't pass meconium in 3 days and was brought to the hospital. they found out there is no anal opening and have anal atresia. What is a possible cause of this ?

a)

abnormal gut bacteria

b)

failure of rupture of anal membrane

c)

abnormal neural crest

d)

failure of gut rotation

58.

During development the midgut is supplied by the ….

a)

celiac trunk

b)

mesenteric vein

c)

mesenteric artery

d)

inferior vena cava

59.

Which type of nutrient can be absorbed by the intestines earliest ?

a)

glucose

b)

amino acid

c)

fatty acid

d)

protein

60.

The midgut will develop into ….. EXCEPT

a)

lower duodenum

b)

small intestines

c)

ascending colon

d)

stomach

61.

When does a normal baby pass their first meconium after birth ?

a)

first week

b)

first month

c)

first 24-48 hours

d)

during birth

62.

Pneumonia as a result of heavy infection ascaris lumbricoides in what stage?

a)

Embryogenated egg

b)

Female adult worms

c)

Male Adult worms

d)

Larvae

63.

Correct treatment for ascaris lumbricoides infection

a)

500 mg albendazole

b)

400 mg mebendazole

c)

400 mg albendazole

d)

15mg/kg of pyrantel pamoat

64.

We use wet smear method to determined the severity of infection in ascaris lumbricoides infection

a)

True

b)

False

65.

In which part of the human body that the trophozoites will undergoes the encystation

a)

Liver

b)

Small intestine

c)

Stomach

d)

Colon

66.

Giardia lamblia can be infected through air (Air borne)

a)

True

b)

False

67.

Axial length of a newborn is 23-24mm

a)

True

b)

False

68.

At what age does accommodation occurs?

a)

3 Months

b)

Birth

c)

6 Months

d)

9 Months

69.

Corneal in newborn is thicker than adult

a)

True

b)

False

70.

Which process occurs during 12 weeks of prenatal period

a)

Ciliary body and iris formation

b)

160 degree eye rotation

c)

Layers of retina are organizing

d)

Appearance of optic vesicles

71.

What congenital eye anomalies is shown in the picture?

a)

Anterior Segment Dysgenesis (ASD)

b)

Iris hypoplasia

c)

Congenital cataracts

d)

Congenital rubella

72.

Which are the following answer is the dominant inheritance pattern

a)

Sickle cell anemia

b)

Cystic fibrosis

c)

Huntington disease

d)

Tay-Sachs disease

73.

Which are the following congenital malformation are NOT caused by Aminopterin

a)

IUGR

b)

Skeletal defects

c)

CNS malformation

d)

Cleft lip

74.

Which teratogen does not cause the occurence of microcephaly?

a)

CMV

b)

Herpes simplex virus

c)

Toxoplasma gondii

d)

Treponema pallidum

75.

Penicillin could be used as an alternative for….

a)

Warfarin

b)

Trimetropin

c)

Retinoids

d)

Cytotoxics