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Immunology Quiz

Total questions: 15

Worksheet time: 8mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A positive tuberculin skin test most likely indicates ___

a)

a Type II reaction.

b)

active tuberculosis infection.

c)

presence of B cells.

d)

presence of T cells.

e)

prior exposure and Type IV hypersensitivity.

2.

The following statement best describes serum sickness:

a)

Depostion of immune complex.

b)

Type I hypersensitivity.

c)

T-cell mediated delayed reaction.

d)

Activation by self-antigens.

e)

Direct cytotoxicity of antibody.

3.

Indirect presentation of allogeneic MHC molecules is best represented by the following statement:

a)

Alloantigen presentation occurs when donor antigen-presenting cells present intact donor MHC molecules directly to recipient T cells.

b)

Allogeneic skin grafts in class II MHC-deficient recipients induce recipient CD4+ T cell responses to the donor class II alloantigens.

c)

Previous tissue grafting makes a recipient susceptible to rejection of a different tissue graft from the same donor.

d)

Processing of allogeneic MHC is not required for T cell recognition.

e)

Recipient CD4+ T cells are activated by donor MHC-derived peptides presented by recipient antigen presenting cells.

4.

Without therapeutic intervention, the most likely outcome for a transplanted skin graft obtained from unrelated donor whose HLA is identical to the recipient is ___

a)

acute rejection.

b)

chronic rejection.

c)

graft-versus-host disease.

d)

hyperacute rejection.

e)

long-term success.

5.

A 6-year-old boy receives a bone marrow transplant from his biological father in acute myelogenous leukemia treatment. He most likely develops ___

a)

acute rejection.

b)

an allergic reaction.

c)

autoimmune responses.

d)

graft-versus-host disease.

e)

immediate hypersensitivity.

6.

The occurrence of chronic granulomatous disease is best linked to mutations in the ___

a)

Artemis gene.

b)

CD18 gene.

c)

CYBB gene.

d)

HAX1 gene.

e)

RAG1 gene.

7.

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency mainly leads to ___

a)

defective extravasation.

b)

diminished degranulation of neutrophils.

c)

failure in myeloid cell differentiation.

d)

failure in respiratory burst.

e)

reticular dysgenesis.

8.

In the immunology of pregnancy, the old paradigm emphasizes mostly on the ___

a)

activation of maternal immune response by foetal cells.

b)

alternation of pro- and anti-inflammatory responses.

c)

mobility of immune cells across the placenta.

d)

regulation of mother-foetal response.

e)

Th2-biased immune response.

9.

Implantation of embryo is least regulated by ___

a)

high level of myeloid-derived suppressor cells.

b)

immune activation by indoleamine 2 3-dioxygenase.

c)

lower antigen presentation on MHC class-II.

d)

progesterone-induced prostaglandin production.

e)

reduced MHC class-I expression.

10.

Comparing the pre-pregnancy phase, the third trimester is best described by ___

a)

high B-cell level.

b)

high helper T-cell level.

c)

high Treg level.

d)

increased phagocytosis.

e)

increased Th-1 response.

11.

A patient develops rheumatic fever after a recent Streptococcus pyogenes throat infection. Which of the following best explains the development of this condition?

a)

Autoantibody production against neutrophils.

b)

Epitope spreading in peripheral lymphoid tissues.

c)

Loss of immune tolerance in the thymus.

d)

Molecular mimicry between bacterial and host antigens.

e)

Superantigen activation of B cells.

12.

The following statement best describes the underlying immunological mechanism of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE):

a)

Activation of cytotoxic CD8+ T cells against self-antigens.

b)

Delayed-type hypersensitivity mediated by Th1 cells.

c)

Immune complex deposition due to autoantibodies against nuclear antigens.

d)

Overproduction of IgE antibodies against environmental antigens.

e)

T cell recognition of foreign antigens presented on MHC class I molecules.

13.

A 65-year-old woman complained of frequent bowel movements, weight loss and nervousness. Her physical examination was remarkable for slight exophthalmos and diffuse thyroid enlargement. The most likely underlying mechanism for her condition is ___

a)

blockade of thyroid-stimulating hormone receptors by thyroid-stimulating hormone.

b)

stimulation of thyroglobulin.

c)

stimulation of thyroid hormone receptors.

d)

stimulation of thyroid peroxidase.

e)

stimulation of thyroid-stimulating hormone receptor.

14.

A laboratory finding showing high levels of oligoclonal bands in the cerebrospinal fluid of a multiple sclerosis patient most likely indicates ___

a)

breakdown of the blood-brain barrier.

b)

elevated neutrophil activity in blood.

c)

infiltration of CD8+ T cells.

d)

localized B cell activation in the CNS.

e)

recent bacterial meningitis.

15.

Strategies to reduce the incidence of cervical cancer are most likely to involve .

a)

vaccination against human papillomavirus.

b)

administration of TNF to the cervix.

c)

injection of Anti-HPV from other cervical cancer patients.

d)

stimulation of antibody-mediated cell lysis of tumour cells.

e)

development of an individualized vaccine from patient's tumour cells.