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A2B GROUP 1

Total questions: 162

Worksheet time: 1hrs 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

It is an agreement whereby one who undertakes, for a consideration, to indemnify another against loss, damage or liability arising from an unknown or contingent event.

a)

Contract of Sale

b)

Contract of Insurance

c)

Contract of Guaranty

d)

Contract of Pledge

e)

None of the choices

2.

He is the person whose loss on the occasion for the payment of the insurance proceeds by the insurer. He must have the capacity to enter into a contract and he must mot be a public enemy.

a)

Insured

b)

Assured

c)

Beneficiary

d)

Insurer

3.

He is the person who assumes risk of loss and undertakes a consideration to indemnify the insured upon the happening of a designated peril.

a)

Insured

b)

Assured

c)

Beneficiary

d)

Insurer

4.

The risk of economic loss is distributed among a large group of people bearing the same risk.

a)

Aleatory

b)

Risk-distributing device

c)

Uberrimae fidei contract

d)

Contract of indemnity

e)

None of the above

5.

The law presumes that the insurer considered the personal qualification of the insured in approving the insurance application. The insured cannot assign, before the happening of the loss, his rights under a property policy without the consent of the insurer.

a)

Contract of adhesion

b)

Personal

c)

Voluntary

d)

Synallagmatic

6.

Which among the following is not a life insurance contract?

a)

Individual

b)

Group

c)

Marine

d)

Industrial

7.

Which among the following is not a non-life insurance contract?

a)

Marine

b)

Suretyship

c)

Fire

d)

Casualty

8.

The contract of insurance is one of perfect good faith, not for the insured alone, but equally so for the insurer.

a)

Uberrimae fidei contract

b)

Risk-distributing device

c)

Aleatory

d)

Contract of Indemnity

9.

Who among the parties is considered “public enemy” and, therefore, may not be insured?

a)

Abbu Sayaf Member

b)

North Korean communists

c)

NPA Members

d)

None of the above

10.

He is the third person designated by the insured to receive the proceeds.

a)

Insured

b)

Assured

c)

Beneficiary

d)

Insurer

11.

It is an act strengthening the insurance industry, also known as the Presidential Decree no. 612.

a)

THE INSURANCE CODE

b)

THE INSURANCE INDUSTRY LAW

c)

THE INDUSTRY LAW

d)

THE INSURANCE AND INDUSTRY CODE

e)

NONE OF THE ABOVE

12.

Marine insurance against damages to:

a)

vessels, craft, aircraft, goods, freights, cargos, merchandise, etc.

b)

Person or property in connection to a marine, inland marine, transit or transportation insurance

c)

Construction repair, operation, maintenance, etc.

d)

Precious stones, jewelry, precious metals

e)

All of the above

13.

Insurance for property is also known as:

a)

Contract of Assurance & Security

b)

Contract of Utmost Good Faith

c)

Contract of Adhesion

d)

None of the above

14.

A single insurance contract that provides multiple coverage for many individuals. Group insurances can be used for the purpose of life or health insurance for the employees of one employer.

a)

Single Life

b)

Group Life

c)

Industrial Life

d)

Marine Insurance

e)

None of the above

15.

It is a form of life insurance under which the premiums are payable either monthly or more often, if the face amount of insurance provided in any policy is not more than five hundred times that of the current statutory minimum daily wage in the City of Manila, and if the words “-“ policy are printed upon the policy as part of the descriptive matter.

a)

Single Life

b)

Group Life

c)

Industrial Life

d)

Marine Insurance

e)

None of the above

16.

S1: There are 2 classes of Insurance: Life & Non-life insurance S2: Life Insurance includes fire, marine and individual life insurance.

a)

True, True

b)

True, False

c)

False, True

d)

False, False

e)

Ogie Alcasid

17.

S1: A subscriber of insurance policy may also be known as a policyholder. S2: Suretyship is a contract where a person binds himself solidarily to the creditor to fulfill the obligation of the debtor in case the latter should fail to do so.

a)

True, True

b)

True, False

c)

False, True

d)

False, False

e)

Rubychan

18.

S1: The principle of a contract of indemnity, also known as uberrimae fidei, means that the insurer has a duty to be truthful about the terms of the policy. S2: All insurance companies are required to offer the same types of policies.

a)

True, True

b)

True, False

c)

False, True

d)

False, False

19.

S1: Industrial life insurance provides coverage for losses resulting from accidents or unforeseen events. S2: Fire Insurance is an insurance against damages or loss to: fire, lightning, windstorm, tornado, earthquake and other allied risks.

a)

True, True

b)

True, False

c)

False, True

d)

False, False

20.

S1: AIA Philippines and Cardi MRI Insurance Agency are examples of non-life insurance, specifically under casualty. S2: Pru Life UK and Sun LifeAssure are examples of life insurance, specifically under individual life.

a)

True, True

b)

True, False

c)

False, True

d)

False, False

21.

What is insurable interest?

a)

A way to earn interest on investments

b)

A lawful and substantial economic interest in the insured object

c)

A gambling contract

d)

A guaranteed return policy

22.

Which law governs insurable interest in the Philippines?

a)

Criminal Code

b)

Family Code

c)

Insurance Code

d)

Corporation Code

23.

When must insurable interest exist in life insurance?

a)

At the time of death only

b)

Only at the time of claim

c)

At the inception of the policy

d)

At all times

24.

In property insurance, when must insurable interest exist?

a)

At inception and time of loss

b)

Only at the time of death

c)

Only when filing a claim

d)

Anytime before the property is used

25.

Which of the following is NOT an example of insurable interest in property?

a)

Ownership

b)

Possession

c)

Lien

d)

Friendship

26.

What happens if there's no insurable interest in an insurance policy?

a)

The policy becomes premium-free

b)

The policy is doubled

c)

The policy is void

d)

The policy is converted into a loan

27.

Who can be a beneficiary in life insurance taken out by the insured himself?

a)

Only spouse and children

b)

Anyone, even without insurable interest

c)

Only business partners

d)

Only creditors

28.

A mortgagee has insurable interest up to what extent?

a)

Full value of the property

b)

Amount of the debt secured

c)

Value declared by the borrower

d)

Market value of the land only

29.

What clause allows a mortgagee to receive proceeds from insurance?

a)

Salvage clause

b)

Premium clause

c)

Loss payable mortgage clause

d)

Beneficiary clause

30.

What type of interest is not needed in life insurance by the assignee?

a)

Economic interest

b)

Legal interest

c)

Insurable interest

d)

Expectation of benefit

31.

Liability insurance covers what kind of interest?

a)

Future interest only

b)

Existing or inchoate interest

c)

Historical interest

d)

Moral interest

32.

What generally suspends a property insurance policy?

a)

Late premium

b)

Change of beneficiary

c)

Change of interest without corresponding change in insurance

d)

Increase in property value

33.

What happens if there’s a prohibited alienation of insured property?

a)

The policy is suspended

b)

The policy becomes a life insurance

c)

The contract is avoided

d)

The insurer adds surcharge

34.

What perfects an insurance contract?

a)

Premium payment

b)

Signature of the agent

c)

Meeting of the minds

d)

Court registration

35.

What is the general rule regarding premium payment?

a)

It can be paid after the loss

b)

It is optional

c)

No binding contract without premium

d)

Paid in quarterly shares

36.

Which is not an exception to the premium rule?

a)

Estoppel

b)

Credit extension

c)

Premium refund

d)

Grace period

37.

Concealment in insurance means what?

a)

Providing too much information

b)

Telling lies in court

c)

Failure to communicate material facts

d)

Asking for too many benefits

38.

A false representation entitles the injured party to do what?

a)

Increase the premium

b)

Rescind the contract

c)

File for extension

d)

Claim double the benefit

39.

What is required for a warranty to be enforceable?

a)

It must be notarized

b)

It must be material

c)

It must be written

d)

It must relate to criminal acts

40.

Who may be subrogated after paying a property claim?

a)

Insurance commissioner

b)

Adjuster

c)

Insurer

d)

Beneficiary

41.

In subrogation, what rights does the insurer have?

a)

All rights of the insured at time of payment

b)

Rights of the court only

c)

Limited rights on moral damages

d)

None

42.

Subrogation does not apply to which of the following?

a)

Fire insurance

b)

Car insurance

c)

Life insurance

d)

Theft insurance

43.

What is the prescriptive period if no stipulation is made?

a)

1 year

b)

2 years

c)

10 years

d)

5 years

44.

When does the cause of action accrue in insurance claims?

a)

Time of loss

b)

Time of filing

c)

Final rejection of claim

d)

After notice is sent

45.

In what situation is notice not required to be given?

a)

In life insurance

b)

If insurer already knows the facts

c)

If beneficiary is unaware

d)

When the policy is expired

46.

If a representation is false and material, what happens?

a)

The contract becomes voidable

b)

It becomes a donation

c)

The insurer increases the premium

d)

The insurer refunds all payments

47.

A breach of an immaterial warranty does what?

a)

Automatically cancels the policy

b)

Is always ignored

c)

May not void the policy

d)

Doubles the claim

48.

Who must consent in the assignment of property insurance?

a)

Beneficiary

b)

Insurer

c)

Mortgagee

d)

Agent

49.

Statement 1: The term "credit" under the law includes rent-to-own and installment plans. Statement 2: Credit is limited to cash loans and does not include property leases or sales payable in installments.

a)

Statement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect

b)

Statement 2 is correct; Statement 1 is incorrect

c)

Both statements are correct

d)

Both statements are incorrect

50.

The disclosures under the Truth in Lending Act are required by law to be made:

a)

Before the consummation of the transaction

b)

Simultaneous to the consummation of the transaction

c)

Consequent to the consummation of the transaction

d)

At any time, depending on the stipulation of the parties.

51.

Statement 1: The Monetary Board of the Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas is the governing board referred to in the law. Statement 2: The term “person” under the law excludes government agencies.

a)

Statement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect

b)

Statement 2 is correct; Statement 1 is incorrect

c)

Both statements are correct

d)

Both statements are incorrect

52.

According to the Truth in Lending Act, prior to the consummation of a transaction, the creditor shall furnish all of the following information, except:

a)

Service charges incident to extension of credit.

b)

Down payment to be credited.

c)

Percentage that finance charges bear the amount to be financed.

d)

Place and manner where and how payment should be made by the borrower.

53.

Statement 1: Creditors are not obligated to disclose finance charges if the borrower is a corporation. Statement 2: A “creditor” is any person extending credit that involves a finance charge.

a)

Statement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect

b)

Statement 2 is correct; Statement 1 is incorrect

c)

Both statements are correct

d)

Both statements are incorrect

54.

Statement 1: Finance charges include interest and fees incidental to the extension of credit. Statement 2: Discounts given by a seller in a cash sale are considered finance charges.

a)

Statement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect

b)

Statement 2 is correct; Statement 1 is incorrect

c)

Both statements are correct

d)

Both statements are incorrect

55.

Aside from required information to be furnished to persons whom credit is extended, what additional information is required by BSP Circular No 755 s 2012?

a)

Effective annual interest rate

b)

Date of repayment

c)

SEC and BSP Registration number if a juridical entity

d)

Assurance that all information contained in contract are truthful to best knowledge credit institution

56.

Statement 1: Credit transactions covered by the law must involve some form of finance charge. Statement 2: Credit transactions with no finance charge are excluded from the coverage of the law.

a)

Statement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect

b)

Statement 2 is correct; Statement 1 is incorrect

c)

Both statements are correct

d)

Both statements are incorrect

57.

All registered CGEs shall charge interest based on:

a)

The amount loan extended at signing loan

b)

The outstanding balance loan at the beginning of an interest period

c)

The amount loan extended signing loan net downpayment discounts

d)

The outstanding balance loan end interest period

58.

Statement 1: Under BSP Circular No. 755, the purpose of transparent pricing is to regulate how high interest rates can go. Statement 2: Transparent pricing enables borrowers to compare loan products better and fosters market competition.

a)

Statement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect

b)

Statement 2 is correct; Statement 1 is incorrect

c)

Both statements are correct

d)

Both statements are incorrect

59.

The “Truth in Lending Act” thereby seeks to protect debtors by permitting them to fully appreciate the true cost of their loan, to enable them to give full consent to the contract, and to properly evaluate their options in arriving at business decisions.

a)

The statement is correct

b)

The statement is incorrect

c)

Both a and b

d)

Answer cannot be concluded

60.

Statement 1: Creditors must disclose the finance charge in pesos and centavos. Statement 2: The disclosure statement must be given after the loan is approved but before the borrower receives the funds.

a)

Statement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect

b)

Statement 2 is correct; Statement 1 is incorrect

c)

Both statements are correct

d)

Both statements are incorrect

61.

Anna purchased a washing machine under an installment plan from a registered creditor. Before signing the contract, she was not provided with any disclosure statement showing the finance charge or effective interest rate. What is the consequence of the creditor’s failure to disclose required information under the Truth in Lending Act?

a)

No consequence since it’s just a minor procedural lapse

b)

The creditor is liable to pay a fine of ₱100 or twice the finance charge, whichever is greater, up to ₱2,000

c)

The contract becomes automatically void

d)

Anna is required to pay additional interest for non-compliance

62.

Statement 1: The net proceeds of the loan must be included in the disclosure statement under BSP Circular 755. Statement 2: Borrowers are not entitled to a copy of the disclosure statement once the loan is consummated.

a)

Statement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect

b)

Statement 2 is correct; Statement 1 is incorrect

c)

Both statements are correct

d)

Both statements are incorrect

63.

XYZ Lending Corp. granted a loan and included in the loan documents a clear breakdown of the total amount to be financed, net proceeds, and finance charges. However, it did not indicate the annual percentage rate. Did XYZ Lending Corp. fully comply with the disclosure requirements?

a)

Yes, because the total amount and charges were disclosed

b)

No, because the annual percentage rate or EIR must also be disclosed

c)

Yes, because the annual percentage rate is optional

d)

No, because the net proceeds are irrelevant

64.

Statement 1: The effective interest rate (EIR) may be quoted monthly or annually as long as it is disclosed alongside the contractual rate. Statement 2: There is no obligation to show the EIR if the loan does not involve monthly amortization.

a)

Statement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect

b)

Statement 2 is correct; Statement 1 is incorrect

c)

Both statements are correct

d)

Both statements are incorrect

65.

Ben borrowed ₱50,000 from a micro-lending institution. The lender provided a disclosure statement after the loan was signed and disbursed. Is this a violation under the Truth in Lending Act?

a)

No, as long as Ben later received a copy

b)

No, because it's not a bank

c)

Yes, unless Ben waived his right to receive the statement

d)

Yes, because disclosures must be given before the transaction is consummated

66.

Statement 1: Willful failure to comply with disclosure requirements may result in imprisonment. Statement 2: The penalty for non-disclosure includes a fine up to P10,000 even without a court case.

a)

Statement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect

b)

Statement 2 is correct; Statement 1 is incorrect

c)

Both statements are correct

d)

Both statements are incorrect

67.

A creditor imposes a lease agreement with a finance charge, and the total cost was not explained to the lessee. Which type of transaction is covered by the Truth in Lending Act?

a)

Lease agreements with finance charges

b)

Sale of government securities

c)

Insurance policies with fixed premiums

d)

Bank deposit contracts

68.

Statement 1: The Philippine Government is exempt from penalties under the Truth in Lending Act. Statement 2: Civil actions to recover penalties must be initiated within five years from the violation.

a)

Statement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect

b)

Statement 2 is correct; Statement 1 is incorrect

c)

Both statements are correct

d)

Both statements are incorrect

69.

Carlo filed a civil suit after he was charged undisclosed finance charges in a credit transaction. He won the case. What additional benefit is Carlo entitled to under the Truth in Lending Act?

a)

Only refund of the excess finance charged

b)

Imprisonment of the lender

c)

No other compensation

d)

Payment of reasonable attorney’s fees and court costs

70.

Statement 1: CGEs include businesses registered with either SEC or DTI that have credit-granting activities. Statement 2: Banks and financing companies are not considered CGEs.

a)

Statement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect

b)

Statement 2 is correct; Statement 1 is incorrect

c)

Both statements are correct

d)

Both statements are incorrect

71.

Lending Firm ABC failed to disclose the required finance charge in a loan agreement. It was proven that this failure was willful. What criminal penalty could be imposed?

a)

Only a fine of ₱1000 to ₱2,000

b)

Imprisonment of 3 months to 6 months

c)

Imprisonment of 6 months to 1 year, or a fine of ₱1,000 to ₱5,000, or both

d)

Imprisonment of 3 months to 6 months, or a fine of ₱1000 to ₱2,000, or both

72.

Statement 1: Conditional sales contracts and lease-to-own agreements are among the covered transactions under the Truth in Lending Act. Statement 2: The law applies only to loans offered by banks and not to private companies.

a)

Statement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect

b)

Statement 2 is correct; Statement 1 is incorrect

c)

Both statements are correct

d)

Both statements are incorrect

73.

Maria enters into a "rent-to-own" furniture agreement. The company refuses to provide her with a disclosure statement, saying it’s not a loan. Is the company correct in excluding itself from the law?

a)

Yes, because the sale is conditional

b)

No, rent-to-own agreements are covered transactions under the Truth in Lending Act

c)

Yes, because only banks are required to disclose

d)

No, but disclosure is only required if Maria asks for it

74.

Statement 1: Disclosure of finance charges is optional in credit contracts below P10,000. Statement 2: The borrower may demand a copy of the disclosure statement.

4 lines
75.

Statement 1: Disclosure of finance charges is optional in credit contracts below P10,000. Statement 2: The borrower may demand a copy of the disclosure statement, and the creditor must provide it.

a)

Statement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect

b)

Statement 2 is correct; Statement 1 is incorrect

c)

Both statements are correct

d)

Both statements are incorrect

76.

Under BSP Circular No. 755, a credit-granting entity must provide the borrower a disclosure statement before consummating the transaction. Which of the following is NOT required in the disclosure statement?

a)

Net proceeds of the loan

b)

Simple annual rate or EIR

c)

Lender’s credit rating

d)

Total amount to be financed

77.

Statement 1: A final judgment in a criminal case under this Act serves as prima facie evidence in civil actions. Statement 2: The creditor is never liable for attorney's fees in cases involving non-disclosure.

a)

Statement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect

b)

Statement 2 is correct; Statement 1 is incorrect

c)

Both statements are correct

d)

Both statements are incorrect

78.

The simple annual interest charged on Derek’s loan is 3%. If his outstanding balance is Php1,500, how much shall he be entitled to if the creditor had failed to disclose any information in violation of the Truth in Lending Act?

a)

Php 90

b)

Php 2,000

c)

Php 100

d)

Php 45

79.

When the borrower is not clearly informed of the disclosure statements prior to the consummation of the availment or drawdown, the lender will have no right to collect upon such charge or increases thereof, even if stipulated in the notes.

a)

The statement is correct

b)

The statement is incorrect

c)

Depends on the gravity of the situation

d)

Answer cannot be concluded

80.

In the Truth in Lending Act, this includes interest, fees, service charges, discounts, and such other charges incident to the extension of credit as the Board may be regulation prescribe.

a)

Dividend

b)

Finance charge

c)

Compound interest

d)

Credit fees

81.

In the Truth in Lending Act, this means any entity engaged in the business of extending credit.

a)

Lendor

b)

Creditor

c)

Debtor

d)

Guarantor

82.

Not disclosing the true finance charges in connection with the extension of credit is not a form of deception.

a)

The statement is correct

b)

The statement is incorrect

c)

Both a and b

d)

None of the above

83.

In case of trade transactions, it is the amount of money which would constitute full payment upon delivery of property (except money) or service purchased at the bank’s place of business.

a)

Accounts receivable

b)

Down payment

c)

Cash price or delivered price

d)

Notes receivable

84.

In the case of financial transactions, this represents the amount of money received by the debtor upon consummation of the credit transaction, net of finance charges collected at the time the credit is extended (if any).

a)

Transaction price

b)

Net finance income

c)

Full price

d)

Cash price

85.

It represents the value of an asset agreed upon by the bank and debtor, given at the time of the transaction in partial payment for the property or service purchased.

a)

Barter

b)

Finance charge

c)

Trade-in

d)

Cash price

86.

It is the uniform percentage which represents the ratio between the finance charge and the amount to be financed.

a)

Effective interest rate

b)

Finance charge

c)

Amount to be financed

d)

Simple annual rate

87.

It consists of the cash price plus non-finance charges less the amount of the down payment and value of the trade-in.

a)

Non-finance charge

b)

Finance charge

c)

Amount to be financed

d)

Simple annual rate

88.

It corresponds to the amounts advanced by the bank for items normally associated with the ownership of the property or of the availment of the service purchased which are not incident to the extension of credit.

a)

Amount to be financed

b)

Finance charge

c)

Non-finance charge

d)

Effective finance rate

89.

It is the rate that exactly discounts estimated future cash flows through the life of the loan to the net amount of the loan proceeds.

a)

Simple annual rate

b)

Effective interest rate

c)

Effective finance rate

d)

Discounted finance rate

90.

Statement 1: The debtor and the lending institutions do not deal on an equal footing so the Act was intended to protect the public from disclosed charges on their loan obligations. Statement 2: The violation of the Truth in Lending Act gives rise to both criminal and civil liabilities.

a)

Statement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect

b)

Statement 2 is correct; Statement 1 is incorrect

c)

Both statements are correct

d)

Both statements are incorrect

91.

It is an act providing for the recognition and use of electronic commercial and non-commercial transactions and documents, penalties for unlawful use thereof, and for other purposes.

a)

Electronic Commerce Act of 2000

b)

Electronic Commerce Act of 2011

c)

Electronic Commerce Act of 2004

d)

Electronic Commerce Act of 2002

92.

It refers to information generated, sent, received or stored by electronic, optical or similar means.

a)

Electronic Message

b)

Electronic Data

c)

Electronic Document

d)

Either A or B

93.

The Electronic Commerce Act shall apply to any kind of data message and electronic document used in the context of what kind of activities to include domestic and international dealings, transactions, arrangements, agreements contracts and exchanges and storage of information?

a)

Commercial Only

b)

Non-Commercial Only

c)

Commercial and Non-Commercial

d)

Corporate and Commercial

94.

An electronic signature on the electronic document shall be_____ to the signature of a person on a written document if that signature is proved by showing that a prescribed procedure, not alterable by the parties interested in the electronic document.

a)

Distinct

b)

Used

c)

Equivalent

d)

So Unique

95.

It refers to a person who in behalf of another person and with respect to a particular electronic document sends, receives and/or stores, provides other services in respect of that electronic data message or electronic document.

a)

Originator

b)

Addressee

c)

Intermediary

d)

None of the Above

96.

Under what circumstance is an electronic signature on an electronic document considered equivalent to a handwritten signature, except when:

a)

It is necessary for the party to be bound to have executed or provided the electronic signature to proceed with the transaction.

b)

The other party is authorized and able to verify the electronic signature and decide to proceed with the authenticated transaction.

c)

There exists a reliable assurance as to the integrity of the document from its initial final form.

d)

A method is used to identify the party and indicate their access to the electronic document for consent or approval via the electronic signature.

97.

Statement 1: A text message is admissible as evidence in court. Statement 2: Electronic signatures are only limited to scanned signatures.

a)

Statement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect

b)

Statement 2 is correct; Statement 1 is incorrect

c)

Both statements are correct

d)

Both statements are incorrect

98.

The matters referred to in Section 12, on admissibility and Section 9, on the presumption of_________, may be presumed to have been established by an affidavit given to the best of the deponent's knowledge subject to the rights of parties in interest as defined in the following section.

a)

Integrity

b)

Honesty

c)

Trustworthy

d)

Objectivity

99.

As between the originator and the addressee, an electronic data message or electronic document is deemed to be that of the originator if it was sent: Statement I: by an information system programmed by, or on behalf of the intermediary to operate automatically. Statement II: by a person who had the authority to act on behalf of the agent with respect to that electronic data message or electronic document;

a)

Statement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect

b)

Statement 2 is correct; Statement 1 is incorrect

c)

Both statements are correct

d)

Both statements are incorrect

100.

Statement 1: In any proceedings involving an electronic signature, it shall be presumed that the electronic signature is the signature of the person to whom it correlates. Statement 2: Information shall be denied legal effect, validity or enforceability solely on the grounds that it is in the data message purporting to give rise to such legal effect, or that it is merely referred to in that electronic data message.

a)

Statement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect

b)

Statement 2 is correct; Statement 1 is incorrect

c)

Both statements are correct

d)

Both statements are incorrect

101.

Who is entitled to regard the electronic data message or electronic document received as that which the originator intended to send?

a)

Originator

b)

Addressee

c)

Intermediary

d)

None of the Above

102.

In relation to a body corporate, this means the place where it is incorporated or otherwise legally constituted.

a)

Unusual Place of Residence

b)

Usual Place of Residence

c)

Usual Place of Domicile

d)

Usual Place of Dwelling

103.

An electronic data message or electronic document is that of the originator if it was sent by the?

a)

Originator

b)

Addressee

c)

Intermediary

d)

None of the Above

104.

Electronic transactions made through networking among banks, or linkages thereof with other entities or networks, and vice versa, shall be deemed ____ upon the actual dispensing of cash or the debit of one account and the corresponding credit to another.

a)

Consummated

b)

Valid

c)

Void

d)

Partially Completed

105.

Subject to applicable laws and /or rules and guidelines promulgated by the_________with other appropriate government agencies, parties to any electronic transaction shall be free to determine the type of level of electronic data message and electronic document security needed, and to select and use or implement appropriate technological methods that suit their need.

a)

a. Securities and Exchange Commission

b)

b. Department of Trade and Industry

c)

c. Department of Environment and Natural Resources

d)

d. Department of Finance

106.
Subject to applicable laws and /or rules and guidelines promulgated by the ___________________________ with other appropriate government agencies, parties to any electronic transaction shall be free to determine the type of level of electronic data message and electronic document security needed, and to select and use or implement appropriate technological methods that suit their need.
a)
a. Securities and Exchange Commission
b)
b. Department of Trade and Industry
c)
c. Department of Environment and Natural Resources
d)
d. Department of Finance
107.
16. Where the law requires that any action referred to contract of carriage of goods be carried out in writing or by using a paper document, that requirement is met if:
a)
a. The action is carried out by using notarized documents
b)
b. The action is carried out by using one or more data messages or electronic
c)
documents
d)
c. The action is carried out by using handwritten documents
108.
17. Any person who obtained access to any electronic key, electronic data message or electronic document, book, register, correspondence, information, or other material pursuant to any powers conferred under this Act:
a)
a. can convey to or share the same with any other person
b)
b. can convey to or share the same with any other person for private matters
c)
c. shall not convey to or share the same with any other person
d)
d. can either convey or not to share same with any other person
109.
18. It refers to a system intended for and capable of generating, sending, receiving, storing, or otherwise processing electronic data messages or electronic documents and includes the computer system or other similar device by or in which data is recorded or stored and any procedures related to the recording or storage of electronic data message or electronic document.
a)
a. Computer
b)
b. Device
c)
c. Electronic System
d)
d. None of the Above
110.
19. Where the law requires information to be presented or retained in its original form, that requirement is met by an electronic data message or electronic document
a)
a. Original Document
b)
b. Certified True Copy Document
c)
c. Photocopy Document
d)
d. Replacement Copy Document
111.
20. The place of dispatch of the electronic data message or electronic document shall be the place of business of the originator. If there is more than one place of business, it shall be:
a)
a. That which has the closest relationship to the underlying transaction
b)
b. The principal place of business
c)
c. Any of the places of business
d)
d. The domicile of the originator
112.
21. Statement 1: Information shall be denied validity or enforceability solely on the ground that it is in the form of an electronic data message purporting to give rise to such legal effect, or that it is merely incorporated by reference in that electronic data message Statement 2: Electronic documents shall have the legal effect, validity and enforceability as any other document or legal writing and
a)
a. Statement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect
b)
b. Statement 2 is correct; Statement 1 is incorrect
c)
c. Both statements are correct
d)
d. Both statements are incorrect
113.
Electronic Commerce (E-Commerce) Act of 2000 is also known as
a)
a. R.A. 8728
b)
b. R.A. 2939
c)
c. R.A. 8792
d)
d. R.A. 2914
114.
Where the law requires a document to be in writing, that requirement is met by an electronic document if the said electronic document is/has
a)
a. Maintains its integrity and reliability and can be authenticated
b)
b. Maintains its confidentiality and availability to be accessed by needed parties (addressee
c)
c. Entered an information system
d)
d. None of the choices
115.
Statement 1: For evidentiary purposes, an electronic document shall be the functional equivalent of a written document under existing law. Statement 2: Where the law requires that a document be presented or retained in its “original” form, that requirement is met by an electronic document if there exists a reliable assurance and capable of being displayed
a)
a. Statement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect
b)
b. Statement 2 is correct; Statement 1 is incorrect
c)
c. Both statements are correct
d)
d. Both statements are incorrect
116.
Which of the following refers to Information that is not included in an electronic data message or document but is just referenced therein is valid
a)
a. Incorporation by Reference
b)
b. Use not Mandatory
c)
c. Writing
d)
d. Solemn Contracts
117.
26. Statement 1: “For terms and conditions check out, www.website.com “ is valid and forceable Statement 2: No one is forced by law to use or accept electronic documents, messages, or e-signatures. You can still choose to use paper or other traditional methods.
a)
a. Statement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect
b)
b. Statement 2 is correct; Statement 1 is incorrect
c)
c. Both statements are correct
d)
d. Both statements are incorrect
118.
27. This is not considered as an electronic evidence under the Electronic Commerce Act
a)
a. Waybills
b)
b. Metadata
c)
c. E-mails
d)
d. Facsimile transmission
119.
28. Does the Electronic Commerce Act modify any statutory rule on admissibility of electronic
a)
a. Yes, it modifies any statutory rule since the nature of electronic documents are different from
b)
b. No, it does not modify any statutory rule relating to the admissibility of electronic
c)
c. Yes, simply because different principles apply with the electronic data message
d)
d. No, it does not modify any statutory rule since an electronic document is legally an
120.
29. Which of the statement is incorrect regarding a ground of legal recognition of signature
a)
a. Their electronic signature must show that they intended to give their consent or approval.
b)
b. The way the signature was created must be trustworthy and suitable for the importance or risk level of the document.
c)
c. The person must actually sign electronically before the transaction can move forward.
d)
d. Their e-signature is a part of the formalities for the document to be binding
121.
30. Statement 1: The person addressee or the person who received the data message or electronic document in any legal proceeding has the burden of proving its authenticity Statement 2: If the document was stored or recorded by the opposing party, it may not help prove that the document is genuine, because the party storing it had no incentive to tamper with it.
a)
a. Statement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect
b)
b. Statement 2 is correct; Statement 1 is incorrect
c)
c. Both statements are correct
d)
d. Both statements are incorrect
122.
31. Which of the following is not one the factors for assessing evidentiary weight?
a)
a. The reliability of identifying the originator.
b)
b. The quantity and quality of the inputted data.
c)
c. The integrity of the system where the document was stored.
d)
d. Other relevant circumstances that may affect the document’s authenticity.
123.
32. Statement 1: Contracts be expressed in electronic documents Statement 2: Only an electronic data message or electronic document is that of the originator if it was sent by the originator himself
a)
a. Statement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect
b)
b. Statement 2 is correct; Statement 1 is incorrect
c)
c. Both statements are correct
d)
d. Both statements are incorrect
124.
33. Statement 1: If the originator has already notified them that it wasn’t from them, and the addressee had enough time to act on that, then, they are may not be bound by an Electronic Data Message Statement 2: If the addressee knew or should have known, by using reasonable care or a verification method, that the message wasn’t from the originator, then, they are still bound by an Electronic Data Message
a)
a. Statement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect
b)
b. Statement 2 is correct; Statement 1 is incorrect
c)
c. Both statements are correct
d)
d. Both statements are incorrect
125.
34. Oni ordered 200 pieces of green shampoo to Rosmar’s Company via email. After sending the said email. Oni emailed another 200 pieces of gray shampoo to Rosmar’s Company. What should Rosmar Company do?
a)
a. Knowing that Rosmar knew that it was a duplicate, she will not act on it as if it were a new or separate document.
b)
b. Since the orders are in different items, and the intention is for an additional order, it must be treated as a separate document
c)
c. None, since it is not mentioned if Rosmar Company received the email or document
d)
d. None, since cases like these must follow the Statute of Fraud
126.
35. Complete the analogy no specific form or method for acknowledgment is agreed upon; acknowledgement is through any communication or conduct by the addressee indicating receipt. originator makes the document’s effect conditional on acknowledgment; _________
a)
a. The originator can notify the addressee and set a new deadline.
b)
b. If the acknowledgment isn’t received by then, the originator can treat the message as never sent or take other actions.
c)
c. The message is considered as not sent until the acknowledgment is received.
d)
d. The parties must have a new stipulation as for the acknowledgment of receipt of electronic data messages or electronic documents
127.
36. The place of dispatch and receipt of electronic data message or electronic documents if a company has no place of business
a)
a. the focus shifts to their habitual residence.
b)
b. place most closely related to the transaction is used
c)
c. if there's no underlying transaction, the principal place of business is used
d)
d. a place of incorporation or where it is legally constituted is considered its usual place of residence.
128.
37. All are included in a contract of carriage of goods, except?
a)
a. Claiming delivery of goods
b)
b. Acquiring or transferring rights and obligations under the contract.
c)
c. Furnishing the marks, number, quantity or weight of goods
d)
d. Issuing of a waybill
129.
38. It is a principle that explains that the Government processes should be reviewed and, if needed, improved or simplified to make the best use of technology and remove delays in providing services?
a)
a. Interoperability
b)
b. Elimination of Red Tape
c)
c. Auditability
d)
d. Security Measures
130.
39. It refers to the process in a court trial where a lawyer has the opportunity to question a witness who has already been questioned by the opposing side
a)
a. Proof of Affidavit
b)
b. Cross-examination
c)
c. Attribution of Electronic Data Message
d)
d. Penalty Proceeds
131.
40. It is the penalty given for Violation of Consumer Act
a)
a. Minimum of PHP 100,000 and maximum of commensurate to the damage incurred and a mandatory imprisonment for 6 months up to 3 years
b)
b. Minimum of PHP 100,000 and mandatory of imprisonment for 6 months up to 3 years
c)
c. Penalized with a maximum penalty of 1,000,000 pesos or 6 years imprisonment
d)
d. Penalized with the same penalties as provided in those laws.
132.
41. Who is the main implementer of the E-commerce Act?
a)
a. Security & Exchange Commission
b)
b. Department of Trade and Industry
c)
c. Bureau of Customs
d)
d. Bango Sentral ng Pilipinas
133.
1. It refers to the joining of two or more entities into an existing entity or to form a new entity.
a)
a. Merger
b)
b. Consolidation
c)
c. Market Fusion
d)
d. Business Combination
134.
2. Statement 1: Bid rigging and price fixing are considered per se violations under the Philippine Competition Act. Statement 2: Agreements among competitors to allocate markets by territory are allowed if approved by their board of directors.
a)
a. Statement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect
b)
b. Statement 2 is correct; Statement 1 is incorrect
c)
c. Both statements are correct
d)
d. Both statements are incorrect
135.
3. Which of the following are considered prohibited acts under the Philippine Competition Act? I. Competitive Agreement II. Abuse of Dominant Position III. Prohibited Mergers
a)
a. I and II only
b)
b. I and III only
c)
c. II and III only
d)
d. I, II, and III
136.
4. Statement 1: Selling below cost to drive out competitors may be considered abuse of dominant position. Statement 2: The Philippine Competition Act prohibits acquiring a dominant market position under any circumstance.
a)
a. Statement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect
b)
b. Statement 2 is correct; Statement 1 is incorrect
c)
c. Both statements are correct
d)
d. Both statements are incorrect
137.
5. An investment in another corporation is allowed if:
a)
a. It gives control
b)
b. It’s purely for investment without control
c)
c. It aims to reduce competitors
d)
d. It limits supply
138.
6. Which of the following is not an example of an anti-competitive agreement?
a)
a. Agreements restricting competition as to price
b)
b. Agreements controlling and limiting technical development
c)
c. Agreements to enter into a joint venture for the development of envisioned product
d)
d. Agreements dividing the market per territory between two competitors
139.
7. Burden of proof for merger exemptions lies with:
a)
a. The Commission
b)
b. Third parties
c)
c. The courts
d)
d. The parties seeking exemption
140.
8. Statement 1: Price discrimination is allowed when it reflects cost differences in production or delivery. Statement 2: Socialized pricing for less fortunate sectors is considered a permissible price differential.
a)
a. Statement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect
b)
b. Statement 2 is correct; Statement 1 is incorrect
c)
c. Both statements are correct
d)
d. Both statements are incorrect
141.
9. Statement 1: Cover bidding and bid rotation are legal auction strategies under PCA. Statement 2: Agreements to manipulate bidding outcomes are considered anti-competitive practices.
a)
a. Statement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect
b)
b. Statement 2 is correct; Statement 1 is incorrect
c)
c. Both statements are correct
d)
d. Both statements are incorrect
142.
10. Statement 1: Making unfairly low purchase offers to MSMEs or marginalized producers may constitute abuse. Statement 2: Market prices arising from superior products or processes are not considered unfair under PCA.
a)
a. Statement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect
b)
b. Statement 2 is correct; Statement 1 is incorrect
c)
c. Both statements are correct
d)
d. Both statements are incorrect
143.
11. The total number of days that the Philippine Competition Commission will have to review a merger shall be a maximum of:
a)
a. 30 days
b)
b. 60 days
c)
c. 90 days
d)
d. 120 days
144.
12. If the merger will have a transaction value of P10B, failure to notify the Philippine Competition can subject them to a fine of:
a)
a. 50M to 250M
b)
b. 100M to 500M
c)
c. 200M to 1B
d)
d. 400M to 2B
145.
13. The following constitute permissible pricing differentials and not abuse of dominant position, except:
a)
a. Socialized pricing for the less fortunate sector of the economy;
b)
b. Price differential which reasonably or approximately reflect differences in the cost of manufacture, sale, or delivery resulting from differing methods, technical conditions, or quantities in which the goods or services are sold or delivered to the buyers or sellers;
c)
c. Price differential or terms of sale offered in response to the competitive price of payments, services or changes in the facilities furnished by a competitor
d)
d. None is an exception
146.
14. First Statement: The provisions of the Philippine Competition Act on abuse of dominant position may be interpreted as prohibited obtaining a dominant position. Second Statement: Any conduct which contributes to improving production or distribution of goods or services within the relevant market, or promoting technical and economic progress while allowing consumers a fair share of the resulting benefit may not necessarily be considered an abuse of dominant position.
a)
a. Statement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect
b)
b. Statement 2 is correct; Statement 1 is incorrect
c)
c. Both statements are correct
d)
d. Both statements are incorrect
147.
15. The Commission may impose administrative fines of up to P100M for the first offense and P100M to P250M for the second offense for the investigations relative to the following, except:
a)
a. Anti-Competitive Agreements
b)
b. Abuse of Dominant Position
c)
c. Compulsory Notification on Mergers and Acquisitions
d)
d. None is an exception
148.
16. Which of the following is not an abuse of dominant position? I.Selling goods or services below cost with the object of driving competition out of the relevant market II.Setting prices or other terms or conditions that discriminate unreasonably between customers or sellers of the same goods or services III.Making a transaction subject to refusal by the other parties of other obligations
a)
a. I, III only
b)
b. II, III only
c)
c. I, II only
d)
d. I, II, III
149.
17. Due to the Leniency Program, a participant in an anti-competitive agreement may be eligible for:
a)
a. Immunity from Suit
b)
b. Reduction of Administrative Suit
c)
c. Both a and b
d)
d. Answer not given
150.
18. If one fails to comply with an order from the Commission, their penalty would be?
a)
a. Daily penalty of P50K - P2M after 45 days of non-compliance
b)
b. Daily penalty of P30K - P1.2M after 45 days of non-compliance
c)
c. Daily penalty of P50K - P2M after 30 days of non-compliance
d)
d. Daily penalty of P30K - P1.2M after 30 days of non-compliance
151.
19. All are objectives of the Philippine Competition Act except
a)
a. Enhance economic efficiency and promote free and fair competition
b)
b. Prevent economic concentration
c)
c. Penalize all forms of anti-competitive agreements, abuse of dominant position and anti-competitive mergers and acquisitions only
d)
d. None of the above
152.
20. A Corporation owns 70% of B Corporation and 80% of C Corporation. C Corporation purchases 90% of its raw materials from D Corporation. А contract which seeks to limit production was entered into between two entities. Which entities should it be in order to be considered anticompetitive?
a)
a. Between A Corporation and B Corporation
b)
b. Between A Corporation and C Corporation
c)
c. Between B Corporation and C Corporation
d)
d. Between C Corporation and D Corporation
153.
21. Mergers or acquisition covered by compulsory notification are prohibited from consummating their agreement until:
a)
a. thirty (30) days after providing notification to the PCС
b)
b. sixty (60) days after providing notification to the PCC
c)
C. ninety (90) days after providing notification to the PСС
d)
d. one hundred twenty (120) days after providing notification to the PCC
154.
22. Statement 1: Apple, Inc., released iPhone 17, thereby reducing the market share of other competitors with the new flagship phone's advanced camera system. This is an abuse of dominant position. Statement 2: Microsoft, Inc., released Microsoft Office 2022, which contains new patented software features such as 3D and 4D editing and advanced graphics. Other software developers are prohibited from duplicating these features due to the patent.This is an abuse of dominant position.
a)
a. Only Statement 1 is true.
b)
b. Only Statement 2 is true.
c)
c. Both statements are true.
d)
d. Both statements are not true.
155.
23. Does the Philippine Competition Act allow the existence of a dominant position of an entity?
a)
a. Yes. What is prohibited are acts that exploit this dominant position
b)
b. Yes. What is prohibited are acts that acquire this dominant position from already existing ones.
c)
c. No. Dominant positions are anti-competitive in nature.
d)
d. No. Dominant positions necessarily discourage new players from entering the relevant market.
156.
24. It refers to a position of economic strength that an entity or entities hold which makes it capable of controlling the relevant market independently from any or a combination of the following: competitors, customers, suppliers, or consumers.
a)
a. Controlling position
b)
b. Market leading position
c)
c. Dominant position
d)
d. Monopoly
157.
25. Dubu’s Fruit Juice is the Philippines’ leading producer of pineapple juice. It operates a factory in Negros Oriental where it purchases 90% of the pineapple output of the pineapple farmers. The market rate for pineapples is P150 per kilo. Dubu’s Fruit Juice is bargaining with the farmers and their cooperatives to sell the pineapples to them at P70 or else, it will buy pineapples from other sources. Is this proposal legal?
a)
a. Yes, this is allowed.
b)
b. No, this is an example of an anti-competitive agreement
c)
c. No, this is an example of a prohibited merger
d)
d. No, this is an example of an abuse of dominant position
158.
26. Statement 1: Permissible price differentials are inherently anti-competitive. Statement 2: Price differential offered in response to the competitive price of payments in the facilities furnished by a competitor is an example of permissible price differential.
a)
a. Only Statement 1 is true.
b)
b. Only Statement 2 is true.
c)
c. Both statements are true.
d)
d. Both statements are not true.
159.
27. Statement 1: The Philippine Competition Act applies to the combinations or activities of workers or employees designed solely to facilitate collective bargaining. Statement 2: Acts done outside the Philippines may likewise be covered by the Philippine Competition Act.
a)
a. Only Statement 1 is true.
b)
b. Only Statement 2 is true.
c)
c. Both statements are true.
d)
d. Both statements are not true.
160.
28. . If an agreement covered by the compulsory notification threshold was implemented without the requisite notification to the PCC, the agreement should be considered:
a)
a. Void.
b)
b. Rescinded.
c)
c. Valid, but the parties are subject to civil penalties.
d)
d. Valid, but the parties are subject to civil and criminal penalties.
161.
29. If within the relevant periods stipulated in the preceding section, the Commission determines that such agreement is prohibited under Section 20 and does not qualify for exemption under Section 21 of this Chapter, the Commission may do the following except?
a)
a. Allow the implementation of the agreement.
b)
b. Prohibit the implementation of the agreement.
c)
c. Prohibit the implementation of the agreement unless and until it is modified by changes specified by the commission.
d)
d. Prohibit the implementation of the agreement unless and until the pertinent party or parties enter into legally enforceable agreements specified by the commission.
162.
30. Unless a new market share threshold is determined by the Commission for that particular sector, there shall be a rebuttable presumption of market dominant position if the market share of an entity in the relevant market is at least how many percent?
a)
a. 75%
b)
b. 25%
c)
c. 60%
d)
d. 50%