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WorksheetsOSG_AIO_4
Total questions: 167
Worksheet time: 42hrs 45mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Main memory is usually called
a)
RAM
b)
ROM
c)
EEPROM
d)
CMOS
2.
What are the basic states of a process?
a)
Running, Ready, and Blocked
b)
Running, Blocked, and Exit
c)
Create, Running, and Exit
d)
Create, Running, and Blocked
3.
Who is responsible for the Banker's algorithm?
a)
Dijkstra
b)
Zobel
c)
Newton
d)
Ostrich
4.
The development of computers has gone through five generations, with many operating systems in use such as FM, UNIX, OS/360, Windows, Linux,... According to you, in the first generation of computers, what operating system did users use to control your computer?
a)
This stage does not have an operating system.
b)
Users use the FM operating system.
c)
Users use the OS/360 operating system.
d)
Users use the UNIX operating system.
5.
In a thin client setup, where is most of the software and data processing performed?
a)
Locally on the thin client device.
b)
On a central server or cloud infrastructure.
c)
On a central server or client infrastructure
d)
On a dedicated network switch.
6.
What is a preemptable resource?
a)
The one that can be taken away from the process owning it with no ill effects
b)
The one that can be taken away from the process owning it with ill effects
c)
The one that can not be taken away from the process owning it with no ill effects
d)
The one that can not be taken away from the process owning it with ill effects
7.
_ include(s) every peripheral unit in the system such as disks, clocks, keyboards, displays, and so on.
a)
I/O devices
b)
Memory
c)
CPU
d)
Software
8.
In Unix, which the POSIX system call creates the new process?
a)
fork
b)
create
c)
new
d)
CreateProcess
9.
Suppose there are 4 memory blocks, B1, B2, B3, and B4, with sizes of 30K, 15K, 50K, and 20K, respectively. And we have 4 processes, P1, P2, P3, and P4, with corresponding request sizes of 15K, 20K, 20k, and 50K. What is the algorithm for all processes to be allocated memory?
a)
Best-fit
b)
Next-fit
c)
First-fit
d)
Worst-fit
10.
Which memory management technique involves dividing memory into fixed-sized partitions to accommodate varying process sizes?
a)
Paging Management
b)
Contiguous Allocation
c)
Segmentation
d)
Virtual Memory Management
11.
If FIFO page replacement is used with three page frames, how many page faults will occur with the reference string 1, 2, 3, 4, 1, 2 (if the three frames are initially empty)?
a)
6
b)
4
c)
5
d)
3
12.
What does the term 'blocking' refer to in the context of I/O software?
a)
A technique for managing device drivers.
b)
A mechanism for ensuring device synchronization.
c)
The process of stopping a process until an I/O operation is completed.
d)
A method of allocating memory for I/O operations.
13.
In the Windows OS, which statement is true about the blocked state of a process?
a)
Waiting for an event triggered by the CPU's scheduling mechanism
b)
Waiting for an event that has not happened yet
c)
Waiting to input/output and Waiting for an event that has not happened yet
d)
The CPU and Memory are waiting to other events
14.
Which statement best describes the function of virtual memory in the Windows operating system?
a)
Virtual memory is used to store temporary files created by applications to free up physical RAM.
b)
Virtual memory allows a larger address space than the physical memory available, by using a combination of RAM and hard disk space.
c)
Virtual memory is a reserved area on the hard disk used exclusively for storing system files.
d)
Virtual memory enables the operating system to manage the computer's display settings for multiple monitors.
15.
What kind of file access did early operating system provide?
a)
Liner access
b)
Unsequential access
c)
Random access
d)
Sequential access
16.
RAID level_____works worst with operating systems that habitually ask for data one sector at a time
a)
0
b)
1
c)
2
d)
3
17.
In file sharing, B links to one of C's files by having the system create a new file, of type LINK, and entering that file in B's directory. The new file contains just the path name of the file to which it is linked. When B reads from the linked file, the operating system sees that the file being read from is of type LINK, looks up the name of the file, and reads that file. Which of the following is the correct about the type of file sharing described above?
a)
Synchronous Linking
b)
Symbolic Linking
c)
Traditional (hard) Linking
d)
Synthetic Linking
18.
Consider two statements: Statement 1: A Log-structured File System (LFS) is a design for file systems in which all changes to the file system's state are appended sequentially to a log. This innovative approach contrasts with traditional file systems, which often overwrite blocks in place to update files or file metadata. Statement 2: Journaling File System: first writes a log entry listing the three actions to be completed. The log entry is then written to disk. Only after the log entry has been written, do the various operations begin. Choose the correct option
a)
Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true
b)
Statement 1 is false, statement 2 is false
c)
Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false
d)
Statement 1 is false, statement 2 is true
19.
In the Linux OS, which key combination stops the ping command in the terminal?
a)
Ctrl + Break
b)
Ctrl + D
c)
Ctrl + C
d)
Ctrl + Z
20.
Many popular operating systems, including Windows and Linux, run on multiprocessors. What are the main advantages of multiprocessor systems?
a)
Increase throughput
b)
Decrease throughput
c)
Low-speed communication
d)
Reduced reliability
21.
The most common ways operating systems can be structured are as a monolithic system, a hierarchy of layers, a microkernel, a client-server, a virtual machine, or an exokernel. What is not the main feature of a monolithic system?
a)
Information hiding: Every procedure is hiding from every other procedure.
b)
The operating system runs as a single program in kernel mode.
c)
The operating system is organized as a hierarchy.
d)
The operating system is written as a collection of procedures, linked together into a single, large executable program.
22.
In the FIFO page replacement algorithm, what data structure is commonly used to implement the page replacement queue?
a)
Stack
b)
Queue
c)
Linked list
d)
Array
23.
In the Round-robin scheduling, what happens to a process when it runs out of the time allocated by the system?
a)
The process switches from running to a ready state.
b)
The process switches from running to a blocked state.
c)
The process switches from running to a suspended-ready state.
d)
The process switches from running to a suspended state.
24.
Which of the following best describes the relationship between threads within a single process?
a)
Threads are completely independent and do not share any resources.
b)
Threads share the same memory space but have their own registers.
c)
Threads are separate and isolated from one another.
d)
Threads are tightly integrated, and they all have their own separate memory space.
25.
In the Dining Philosophers problem, what do the philosophers represent?
a)
Real-world philosophers dining in a restaurant.
b)
Concurrent processes that compete for access to shared resources.
c)
Philosophical concepts unrelated to computing.
d)
A form of computer virus.
26.
Suppose there are 4 memory blocks, B1, B2, B3, and B4, with sizes of 600K, 500K, 200K, and 300K, respectively. And we have 4 processes, P1, P2, P3, and P4, with corresponding request sizes of 250K, 420K, 150K, and 450K. When applying the best-fit algorithm, which memory blocks are allocated to the process?
a)
P1->B4, P2->B2, P3->B3, P4->B1
b)
P1->B4, P2->B1, P3->B3, P4->B2
c)
P1->B1, P2->B2, P3->B4, B4: none allocated
d)
P1->B1, P2->B2, P3->B3, B4: none allocated
27.
Suppose the free memory area has the following sizes in the following order: 10KB, 4KB, 15KB, 18KB, 7KB, 9KB, 13KB, and 20KB. A process that needs 12 KB of memory has been placed into a 20 KB block. Which of the following Memory Management algorithms is applied to the selection process?
a)
Worst-fit
b)
First-fit
c)
Best-fit
d)
Next-fit
28.
A computer with a 32-bit virtual address uses a two-level page table. Virtual addresses are split into a 10-bit top-level page table field (PT1), a 10-bit second-level page table field (PT2), and an offset. How many PT1, PT2, and offsets are there with the virtual address 0x00403008 or 0000 0000 0100 0000 0011 0000 0000 1000?
a)
PT1=1; PT2=3 offset=8
b)
PT1=1; PT2=1; offset=8
c)
PT1=4; PT2=3; offset=8
d)
PT1=4; PT2=1; offset=8
29.
When a virtual memory system manages memory in fixed length units, which of the following terms correctly represents its unit?
a)
Frame
b)
Page
c)
Block
d)
Segment
30.
If FIFO page replacement algorithm is used with four page frames, how many page faults will occur with the reference string 0172327103 if the four frames are initially empty?
a)
4 Pages
b)
5 Pages
c)
6 Pages
d)
7 Pages
31.
If optimal page replacement is used with four page frames, how many page faults will occur with the reference string 7, 0, 1, 2, 0, 3, 0 if the four frames are initially empty?
a)
5
b)
6
c)
4
d)
7
32.
When a new process is created in a paging system, which of the following is appropriate to determine program size and create page table?
a)
process creation time.
b)
process execution time.
c)
page fault time.
d)
process termination time.
33.
Which of the following best describes the difference between a process and a thread in the context of the Windows operating system?
a)
A process contains multiple threads and shares resources, while a thread is an independent execution unit within a process.
b)
A process is a program in execution, while a thread is a sequence of instructions that can execute independently.
c)
A process and a thread are essentially the same in Windows OS, with no significant difference between them.
d)
A process represents system resources, while a thread is responsible for user interface interactions in Windows OS.
34.
In a file's metadata, what information does the file size typically represent?
a)
The physical size of the storage medium.
b)
The number of characters in the file.
c)
The number of pages in the file.
d)
The amount of space the file occupies on the storage medium.
35.
What is each controller in memory-mapped I/O used for?
a)
Perform any error correction necessary
b)
Communication with memory
c)
Communication with the CPU
d)
Perform read and write with I/O devices
36.
In DMA transfer cycle, what two modes can many buses operate in?
a)
Word-at-a-time mode and byte mode.
b)
Word-at-a-time mode and block mode.
c)
Word-at-a-time mode and bit mode.
d)
Word-at-a-time mode and page mode.
37.
What are the three basic different ways that I/O operations in computer system can be performed?
a)
Programmed I/O
b)
Memory-mapped I/O
c)
Interrupt-driven I/O
d)
I/O using DMA
38.
Which type of clock in a computer system keeps track of the current time and date and is typically battery-powered to retain data even when the system is turned off?
a)
System clock
b)
CPU clock
c)
Real-time clock (RTC)
d)
Network clock
39.
If a process has begun to burn a Blu-ray, suddenly taking the Blu-ray recorder away from it and giving it to another process will result in a garbled Blu-ray. What does the scenario above indicate?
a)
It's an Un-preemptable resource
b)
It's a Preemptable resource
c)
It's a Non-sharable recourse
d)
It's a Non-preemptable resource
40.
A problem closely related to deadlock and livelock is _____.
a)
Starvation
b)
Communication
c)
Two-phase locking
d)
Prevention
41.
What happens to the program counter after an instruction is fetched?
a)
It is reset to zero
b)
It is updated to point to the next instruction
c)
It is used to store the result of the instruction
d)
It is used to store the total length of the program being executed
42.
Since operating systems interact closely with the hardware, some knowledge of computer hardware is useful for understanding them. Computers are built up of processors, memory, and I/O devices.... Which of the following is not a part of the operating system?
a)
Performance monitor
b)
Input/output control program
c)
Job control program
d)
Supervisor
43.
When a process is running in a contention zone, no other processes are running in the same zone. What is this condition called?
a)
Mutual exclusion.
b)
Bounded-waiting.
c)
Progress.
d)
Critical exclusion.
44.
In virtual memory, a solution adopted in the 1960s was to split programs into little pieces called___
a)
overlays
b)
pages
c)
page table
d)
page fault
45.
Which scenario would the FIFO (First-In-First-Out) page replacement algorithm suffer from the 'Belady's Anomaly'?
a)
When the number of frames allocated to a process exceeds the number of pages
b)
When the number of frames allocated to a process is less than the number of pages
c)
When the number of frames allocated to a process remains constant over time
d)
When the number of frames allocated to a process varies randomly
46.
What is the primary disadvantage of using a fixed-size page table in a paging system?
a)
It limits the number of pages a process can have.
b)
It results in excessive memory consumption.
c)
It requires a complex page replacement algorithm.
d)
It leads to inefficient page allocation.
47.
In UNIX, which type of file is used to model disks?
a)
Regular files.
b)
Character special files.
c)
Block special files.
d)
Directories.
48.
What is the state of the file when the process finishes and this file can be accessed by other processes?
a)
Exit
b)
Terminate
c)
Exist
d)
Suspend
49.
When a directory has been read, it should be closed to free up internal table space that is ___
a)
Close
b)
Closedir
c)
Delete
d)
Opendir
50.
When the computer is booted, what is used to read in and executes?
a)
BIOS, Boot Block
b)
CPU, BIOS
c)
BIOS, MBR
d)
MBR, BIOS
51.
In Windows 95, which is the maximum partition size, if the FAT type is FAT-32 and the block size is 16 KB?
a)
1TB
b)
2TB
c)
512MB
d)
128MB
52.
What addresses are typically used by most DMA controllers for transmission?
a)
Logical memory
b)
Abstract memory
c)
Virtual memory
d)
Physical memory
53.
What types of operations is DMA useful for?
a)
Transfers large and fast data between memory and I/O devices.
b)
Transfers large and slow data between memory and I/O devices.
c)
Transfers slow and small data between memory and I/O devices.
d)
Transfers small data between memory and cache or memory and I/O devices.
54.
While the search for cylinder 11 is in progress, new requests appear for cylinders 1, 36, 16, 34, 9, and 12 considering SSF (Shortest Seek First) scheduling, what is the total number of head movements?
a)
61
b)
111
c)
60
d)
108
55.
In a bitmap image processing operating system, what does each bit typically represent?
a)
A single pixel's color
b)
A sequence of characters
c)
A data packet in network transmission
d)
A unit of storage capacity
56.
The first general-purpose electronic computer, the ENIAC, had 18,000 vacuum tubes and consumed ___ watts of power
a)
1400000
b)
140000
c)
14000
d)
1400
57.
If a process has begun to burn a Blu-ray, suddenly taking the Blu-ray recorder away from it and giving it to another process will result in a garbled Blu-ray. What does the scenario above indicate?
a)
It's an Un-preemptable resource
b)
It's a Preemptable resource
c)
It's a Non-sharable recourse
d)
It's a Non-preemptable resource
58.
Which condition among the four conditions for deadlock is described by 'Each resource is either currently assigned to exactly one process or is available'?
a)
Mutual exclusion condition.
b)
Hold-and-wait condition.
c)
No-preemption condition.
d)
Circular wait condition.
59.
Which condition, if not present in the system, can help prevent deadlocks?
a)
Mutual exclusion
b)
Hold and wait
c)
No preemption
d)
Circular wait
60.
Structure of a disk drive consists of ___
a)
only one metal platter
b)
two metal platters
c)
one or more metal platters
d)
many metal platters
61.
In Unix, which command is used to move the file pointer?
a)
Write
b)
Mount
c)
Link
d)
lseek
62.
A simple structuring model for a monolithic system is.
a)
Main procedure
b)
Service procedures
c)
Utility procedures
d)
All of the above
63.
Which of the following process state transitions (from-to) is illegal?
a)
Ready, Blocked (waiting)
b)
Running, Blocked (waiting)
c)
Blocked, Ready
d)
Running, Ready
64.
A preemptive version of shortest job first (SJF) is ___
a)
Shortest Process Next
b)
First-Come, First-Served
c)
Shortest remaining time next
d)
Shortest used time
65.
What is the address that the main memory unit sees and manipulates called?
a)
Physical address
b)
Address space
c)
Physical space
d)
Logical address
66.
What memory management technique uses a binary representation where each bit corresponds to an allocation unit?
a)
Bitmap
b)
Linked List
c)
Paging
d)
Partition
67.
If FIFO page replacement is used with three page frames, how many page faults will occur with the reference string 1, 3, 0, 3, 5, 6 (if the three frames are initially empty)?
a)
6
b)
4
c)
7
d)
3
e)
5
68.
In the context of memory management, what is the primary advantage of segmented memory over paging in memory management?
a)
Simplified address translation
b)
Efficient use of memory space
c)
Reduced overhead in memory management
d)
Elimination of fragmentation
69.
The simplest form of directory system is having one directory containing all the files. It is called the ___
a)
Root directory
b)
User directory
c)
Parent directory
d)
Current directory
70.
Sector 0 of the disk is called the ___ and is used to boot the computer.
a)
DMA
b)
MBR
c)
FAT
d)
NTFS
71.
Which I/O mode is most suitable for transferring data between memory and I/O devices without the CPU being bothered?
a)
Direct Memory Access
b)
Programmed I/O
c)
Interrupt-driven I/O
d)
Polling
72.
Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of Device-Independent I/O Software layer?
a)
Uniform interfacing for device drivers
b)
Allocating and releasing dedicated devices
c)
Providing a device-independent block size
d)
Allocating port numbers to I/O devices
e)
Error handling
73.
Which operation in stable storage involves writing and verifying a block on both drives until it is successfully written and verified?
a)
Stable read.
b)
Crash recovery
c)
Stable write.
d)
Data synchronization.
74.
In a system with multiple processes and resources, which algorithm is commonly used to determine if the resource allocation state is safe or not?
a)
Dijkstra's Algorithm
b)
Banker's Algorithm
c)
Kruskal's Algorithm
d)
Floyd-Warshall Algorithm
75.
Which of the following statements is incorrect about Translation Look-aside Buffer (TLB)?
a)
TLB only maintains a subset of the entries stored in the full memory-based page table
b)
When there is a TLB miss the system needs to access the page table
c)
The use of TLB eliminates the need for keeping a page table in memory
d)
None of the other choices
76.
Which of the following is not a CPU scheduling criterion?
a)
CPU utilization
b)
Burst time
c)
Throughput
d)
Response time
77.
A network that's congested or has filled a large percentage of its I/O buffer space can become deadlocked if it doesn't have ____ to control the flow of messages through the network.
a)
Protocols
b)
Policies
c)
Procedures
d)
Rules
78.
Which of the following is appropriate to release page table and pages?
a)
Process creation
b)
Process termination time
c)
Page fault time
d)
Process execution
79.
What is Software proposal in the solution of Mutual exclusion with Busy waiting?
a)
Peterson's Solution
b)
All of the other choices
c)
Lock Variables
d)
Strict Alternation
80.
A directory in UNIX/Linux consists of the following
a)
None of the other choices
b)
File name, file size, location of the file on disk, date created, owner ID
c)
Inode number and file name
d)
File name, file size, location of the file on disk
81.
What is NOT an operating system mode?
a)
System mode
b)
User mode
c)
Kernel mode
d)
Supervisor mode
82.
What is the correct approach with the Mutual Exclusion condition to prevent Deadlock?
a)
Request all resources initially
b)
Order resources numerically
c)
Spool everything
d)
Take resources away
83.
Which of the events that causes the processes to be created, when the operation system creates a new process and runs the next job from the input queue?
a)
Initiation of a batch job
b)
User request to create a new process
c)
System initialization
d)
Execution of a process creation system call
84.
____ is a specialized WRITE command for existing data files that allows for adding records to end of the file.
a)
UPDATE
b)
REWRITE
c)
APPEND
d)
MODIFY
85.
Which of the following statements is incorrect about Translation Look-aside Buffer (TLB)?
a)
TLB only maintains a subset of the entries stored in the full memory-based page table
b)
When there is a TLB miss the system needs to access the page table
c)
None of the other choices
d)
The use of TLB eliminates the need for keeping a page table in memory
86.
Which of the following process state transitions is correct, when the scheduler picks a process from the ready queue to run?
a)
Running -> ready
b)
Ready -> running
c)
Blocked (waiting) -> ready
d)
Running -> Blocked (waiting)
87.
What are the two types of I/O devices roughly?
a)
Block devices and sequence devices
b)
Block devices and character devices
c)
Character devices and I/O devices
d)
Character devices and digital devices
88.
If a process has begun to burn a Blu-ray, suddenly taking the Blu-ray recorder away from it and giving it to another process will result in a garbled Blu-ray. What does the scenario above indicate?
a)
It's an Un-preemptable resource
b)
It's a Preemptable resource
c)
It's a Non-sharable recourse
d)
It's a Non-preemptable resource
89.
If FIFO page replacement algorithm is used with four page frames, how many page faults will occur with the reference string 0172327103 if the four frames are initially empty?
a)
4 Pages
b)
5 Pages
c)
6 Pages
d)
7 Pages
90.
Assume we have a 16-bit virtual address and a 4-KB page size. How many indexes are in a one-level page table?
a)
16
b)
4
c)
8
d)
64
91.
Which tool is used for both Deadlock Detection & Recovery and Deadlock Avoidance?
a)
Resource Request Matrix
b)
Resource Allocation Matrix
c)
Resource Graph
d)
Pie chart
92.
What are the weaknesses of RAID 0?
a)
Requires the highest number of disks in RAID modes
b)
There is no data recovery mechanism
c)
The unit of data transmitted is at the BIT level
d)
Does not improve read and write speeds
93.
If LRU page replacement is used with three page frames, how many page faults will occur with the reference string 7, 0, 1, 2, 0, 3 (if the three frames are initially empty)?
a)
5
b)
4
c)
6
d)
3
94.
In the context of modern computer components, the CPU (Central Processing Unit) is responsible for:
a)
Storing data for long-term use.
b)
Managing network connections.
c)
Executing program instructions and performing calculations.
d)
Displaying graphical user interfaces.
95.
The basic concepts on which all operating systems are built are processes, memory management, I/O management, the file system, and security. What is the interface that is provided to access the services of the
a)
System calls
b)
API
c)
Library
d)
Assembly instruction
96.
In interprocess communication, which synchronization method requires hardware support?
a)
TSL Instruction
b)
Peterson's Solution
c)
Sleep and Wakeup
d)
Semaphores
97.
Which file access method is often used to optimize access to large files in a file system?
a)
Sequential access
b)
Direct access
c)
Indexed access
d)
Linked access
98.
The_____was invented to attach all the slow I/O devices, such as the keyboard and mouse, to the computer.
a)
ISA
b)
PCI
c)
DMI
d)
USB
99.
What is the role of the Memory Management Unit (MMU) in a computer system?
a)
The MMU translates virtual addresses into physical addresses
b)
It controls the allocation of memory to different processes.
c)
It manages the paging and swapping of memory pages.
d)
It is a data structure used in computer operating systems for virtual memory management
100.
In the context of resource allocation or resource management models. What does it mean for an arc to be directed from a process to a resource?
a)
That the process is currently waiting for that resource.
b)
That the process is currently ready waiting for that resource.
c)
That the process is currently blocked waiting for that resource.
d)
That the process is currently running for that resource.
101.
Blu-ray discs are examples of which type of I/O device?
a)
Block device
b)
Disk device
c)
Input device
d)
Character device
102.
What does 'no preemption' imply in the context of deadlocks?
a)
Resources can be preempted from one process to another.
b)
Resources cannot be preempted once allocated.
c)
Processes can be terminated to free up resources.
d)
Resources are allocated in a circular manner.
103.
Which early operating system was designed for the UNIVAC I computer and is often considered one of the first operating systems?
a)
MS-DOS
b)
UNIX
c)
COBOL
d)
EDVAC
104.
What is a nonpreemptable resource?
a)
The one that can be taken away from its current owner with potentially causing failure.
b)
The one that cannot be taken away from its current owner with potentially causing failure.
c)
The one that can be taken away from its current owner without potentially causing failure.
d)
The one that cannot be taken away from its current owner without potentially causing failure.
105.
A computer has 4GB RAM of which the operating system occupies 2GB. The processes are all 1024 MB and have the same characteristics. How many percent is CPU utilization when these programs are idle waiting for I/O 50% of the time?
a)
0.75
b)
0.9
c)
0.01
d)
0.5
106.
In file access system, random access files are essential for many applications, for example database systems. What two methods are used to specify where to start reading?
a)
Write and Read
b)
Write and Seek
c)
Read and Seek
d)
Read and Write
107.
This register contains the condition code bits, which are set by comparison instructions, the CPU priority, the mode (user or kernel), and various other control bits is called the:
a)
All of the above
b)
IR (Instruction Register)
c)
PC (Program Counter)
d)
PSW (Program Status Word)
108.
In the Banker's algorithm, what is the purpose of the 'maximum demand' matrix?
a)
To specify the number of instances of each resource currently held by each process.
b)
To record the maximum resources each process may need during its execution.
c)
To list the resources currently available in the system.
d)
To identify deadlocked processes.
109.
How does memory abstraction through address spaces benefit a computer system?
a)
It allows each process to access the entire physical memory directly.
b)
It isolates processes from one another, preventing unauthorized access.
c)
It eliminates the need for virtual memory.
d)
It reduces CPU processing speed.
110.
A computer with a 32-bit address uses a two-level page table. Virtual addresses are split into a 10-bit top-level page table field, an 12-bit second-level page table field, and an offset. What is the size of the pages?
a)
512B page
b)
1-KB page
c)
2-KB page
d)
4-KB page
111.
What is the DISADVANTAGE of segmentation in the memory management?
a)
It can have external fragmentation.
b)
The average segment size is larger than the actual page size.
c)
It is easier to relocate segments than the entire address space.
d)
The segment table is smaller as compared to the page table.
112.
The operating system can be considered from two perspectives: resource manager and extension machine. From an extended machine perspective, what functions does the system provide to help users use it more conveniently than the actual machine?
a)
Provide users with abstract information.
b)
Provide users with progress information.
c)
Provides users with memory information.
d)
Provides users with information about the drive.
113.
Regarding the hypervisor, the operating system running on the hardware is called the host operating system. Which of the following is the correct type?
a)
Type 1
b)
Type 2
c)
Type 3
d)
Type 4
114.
What is the purpose of Direct Memory Access (DMA) in I/O hardware?
a)
To manage device controllers.
b)
To allocate memory for device drivers.
c)
To enable devices to transfer data to and from memory without CPU intervention.
d)
To provide user interfaces for I/O devices.
115.
What are the four important issues for I/O software? Choose correct answers.
a)
Error handling
b)
Device independence
c)
Synchronous and Asynchronous
d)
Uniform naming
e)
Buffering
116.
Which of the following cannot be shared among different threads of a process?
a)
process's code
b)
Open files
c)
process's data
d)
thread's stack
117.
What are the two types of I/O devices roughly?
a)
Block devices and sequence devices
b)
Block devices and character devices
c)
Character devices and I/O devices
d)
Character devices and digital devices
118.
In deadlock, what is no-preemption condition?
a)
Processes currently holding resources that were granted earlier can request new resources.
b)
Resources previously granted cannot be forcibly taken away from a process. They must be explicitly released by the process holding them.
c)
There must be a circular list of two or more processes, each of which is waiting for a resource held by the next member of the chain.
d)
Each resource is either currently assigned to exactly one process or is available.
119.
Which of the following statements regarding deadlock is correct?
a)
Allocation is a logical process while acquisition is its physical implementation.
b)
Banker's Algorithm is used to guarantee absolute mutual exclusion during resource acquisition.
c)
A combination of semaphore and mutex ensures safe resource allocation.
d)
Kernel is responsible for exclusive resource acquisition by a process while IPC takes care of safe resource allocation among multiple processes.
120.
Which of the following is NOT one of the usual duties of Clock Software?
a)
Maintaining the time of day.
b)
Helping processes in running longer than they are allowed to.
c)
Accounting for CPU usage.
d)
Handling the alarm system call made by user processes.
e)
Doing profiling, monitoring, and statistics gathering.
121.
Suppose there are 6 memory blocks B1, B2, B3, B4, B5, and B6 with corresponding sizes of 300 KB, 600 KB, 380KB, 200 KB, 750 KB, and 125 KB. And we have 5 processes, P1, P2, P3, P4, and P5, with corresponding request sizes of 115KB, 500KB, 358KB, 200 KB, and 375 KB. When applying the best-fit algorithm, which memory block is process P5 assigned to?
a)
B5
b)
B3
c)
B4
d)
B2
122.
How many layers are there in the I/O software system?
a)
3
b)
4
c)
5
d)
6
123.
In Linux, the command ps -aux gives the equivalent of the following in MS-Windows
a)
Start/shutdown.
b)
Start/Run input CMD.
c)
Open program Task Manager.
d)
Open Add/Remove program.
124.
Which of the following is not a common directory attribute or property?
a)
Directory name
b)
Directory structure
c)
Directory owner
d)
Directory path
125.
In file systems, what is sector 0 of the disk called?
a)
Boot block
b)
Superblock
c)
MBR (Master Boot Record)
d)
Free space mgmt
126.
Modern operating systems are primarily responsible for:
a)
Designing computer components.
b)
Managing and coordinating hardware resources.
c)
Developing software applications.
d)
Enhancing the user's browsing experience.
127.
In the context of memory management, which statement accurately describes a logical address in memory?
a)
A logical address representing the exact location of data in memory.
b)
An logical address generated by the CPU, also known as a virtual address.
c)
An logical address translated directly by the memory management unit (MMU).
d)
A logical address is used by the operating system to allocate memory.
128.
Which of the following information bits in the page table entry is used to indicate the types of access that are permitted?
a)
Present/absent bit
b)
Caching disabled
c)
Protection bit
d)
Modified bit
129.
In the operating system zoo, what is the main priority of time-sharing system over a multiprogramming system?
a)
The cost of managing smaller processes
b)
Increase the CPU's performance
c)
Response time is smaller
d)
Reduce the burst time of the process
130.
Regarding the computer's interrupt, which of the following is the number on the address lines that is used as an index into a table to fetch a new program counter?
a)
interrupt vector
b)
interrupt handler
c)
interrupt pointer
d)
interrupt executer
131.
What defines a critical section in the context of the Windows operating system?
a)
It is a section of code where the processor gives priority to execute multiple threads simultaneously.
b)
It is a section of code where hardware interrupts are disabled to ensure uninterrupted execution.
c)
It is a segment of code that only one thread can execute at a time to avoid data inconsistency or conflicts.
d)
It is a part of the kernel where system-level processes are given higher priority over user-level processes.
132.
Which operation is appropriate when system calls notify the OS that the file is coming and set some of its attributes?
a)
Delete
b)
Create
c)
Read
d)
Write
133.
What is the Ostrich algorithm?
a)
A deadlock recovery algorithm
b)
A deadlock dealing algorithm
c)
A deadlock detection algorithm
d)
A deadlock avoidance algorithm
134.
Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of Device-Independent I/O Software layer?
a)
Uniform interfacing for device drivers
b)
Allocating and releasing dedicated devices
c)
Providing a device-independent block size
d)
Allocating port numbers to I/O devices
e)
Error handling
135.
What is the primary purpose of the Kernel in an operating system structure?
a)
To provide a user-friendly interface.
b)
To manage hardware resources and provide services to software.
c)
To store user data and files.
d)
To control the display and graphics of the user interface.
136.
What technique is not used in the implementation of Virtual Memory?
a)
Paging
b)
Mapping
c)
Segmentation
d)
Partition
137.
The simplest form of I/O is to have the CPU do all the work. What is it called?
a)
Processed I/O
b)
Programmed I/O
c)
CPU I/O
d)
Memory-mapped I/O
138.
In Windows 95, which is the maximum partition size, if the FAT type is FAT-16 and the block size is 4 KB?
a)
128MB
b)
256MB
c)
512MB
d)
1024MB
139.
What is the primary purpose of process control blocks (PCBs) in process management?
a)
To display information about running processes on the screen.
b)
To store the user's program and data.
c)
To maintain information about each process, including its state, program counter, and CPU registers.
d)
To allocate memory for new processes.
140.
An interrupt has four properties: 1. The PC (Program Counter) is saved in a known place. 2. All instructions before the one pointed to by the PC have completed. 3. No instruction beyond the one pointed to by the PC has finished. 4. The execution state of the instruction pointed to by the PC is known. What type of Interrupt is it?
a)
Imprecise interrupt
b)
Synchronous interrupt
c)
Sequential interrupt
d)
Precise interrupt
141.
When using the Critical Regions solution, which of the following conditions is NOT necessary?
a)
Processes entering critical regions must set their speed or number of CPUs.
b)
Two processes are not in critical regions at the same time.
c)
A process outside the staging area must not prevent other processes from entering critical regions.
d)
Processes do not have to wait indefinitely to enter critical regions.
142.
What is segmentation with paging, and how does it enhance memory management?
a)
A technique for managing multiple memory segments simultaneously.
b)
A method that combines the flexibility of segmentation with the efficiency of paging.
c)
A scheme that uses fixed-size pages to allocate memory.
d)
A scheduling algorithm for thread management.
143.
A key concept in all operating systems is the_
a)
Files
b)
Process
c)
Input/Output
d)
The Shell
144.
Select the correct statement from the following options.
a)
Mouse is unique tool to interface between user and computer
b)
Windows operating system does not provide a work in network environment.
c)
The Windows operating system is viewed as an object that performs tasks.
d)
The Windows operating system has a graphical interface.
145.
A VMM (Virtual Machine Monitor) creates the illusion of multiple (virtual) machines on the same physical hardware. What is VMM also known?
a)
Hypovisor
b)
hypervisor
c)
shell
d)
console
146.
A system uses 3 page frames for storing process pages in main memory. It uses the Least Recently Used (LRU) page replacement policy. Assume that all the page frames are initially empty. What is the total number of page faults that will occur while processing the page reference string given below _4, 7, 6, 1, 7, 6, 1, 2, 7, 2
a)
2
b)
4
c)
6
d)
7
147.
Consider the statement: 'Each resource is either currently assigned to exactly one process or is available.' Which of the following is appropriate for this statement?
a)
No-preemption
b)
Hold-and-wait
c)
Mutual exclusion
d)
Circular wait
148.
To prevent people from hogging too much disk space, multiuser operating systems often provide a mechanism for enforcing a limit on individual user space. What do we call this mechanism?
a)
Disk Quota
b)
Allocation Limit
c)
Disk Space Limit
d)
Disk Allocation Limit
149.
Main memory is usually called
a)
RAM
b)
ROM
c)
EEPROM
d)
CMOS
150.
What are the basic states of a process?
a)
Running, Ready, and Blocked
b)
Running, Blocked, and Exit
c)
Create, Running, and Exit
d)
Create, Running, and Blocked
151.
Who is responsible for the Banker's algorithm?
a)
Dijkstra
b)
Zobel
c)
Newton
d)
Ostrich
152.
The development of computers has gone through five generations, with many operating systems in use such as FM, UNIX, OS/360, Windows, Linux,... According to you, in the first generation of computers, what operating system did users use to control your computer?
a)
This stage does not have an operating system.
b)
Users use the FM operating system.
c)
Users use the OS/360 operating system.
d)
Users use the UNIX operating system.
153.
In a thin client setup, where is most of the software and data processing performed?
a)
Locally on the thin client device.
b)
On a central server or cloud infrastructure.
c)
On a central server or client infrastructure
d)
On a dedicated network switch.
154.
What is a preemptable resource?
a)
The one that can be taken away from the process owning it with no ill effects
b)
The one that can be taken away from the process owning it with ill effects
c)
The one that can not be taken away from the process owning it with no ill effects
d)
The one that can not be taken away from the process owning it with ill effects
155.
_ include(s) every peripheral unit in the system such as disks, clocks, keyboards, displays, and so on.
a)
I/O devices
b)
Memory
c)
CPU
d)
Software
156.
In Unix, which the POSIX system call creates the new process?
a)
fork
b)
create
c)
new
d)
CreateProcess
157.
Suppose there are 4 memory blocks, B1, B2, B3, and B4, with sizes of 30K, 15K, 50K, and 20K, respectively. And we have 4 processes, P1, P2, P3, and P4, with corresponding request sizes of 15K, 20K, 20k, and 50K. What is the algorithm for all processes to be allocated memory?
a)
Best-fit
b)
Next-fit
c)
First-fit
d)
Worst-fit
158.
Which memory management technique involves dividing memory into fixed-sized partitions to accommodate varying process sizes?
a)
Paging Management
b)
Contiguous Allocation
c)
Segmentation
d)
Virtual Memory Management
159.
If FIFO page replacement is used with three page frames, how many page faults will occur with the reference string 1, 2, 3, 4, 1, 2 (if the three frames are initially empty)?
a)
6
b)
4
c)
5
d)
3
160.
What does the term 'blocking' refer to in the context of I/O software?
a)
A technique for managing device drivers.
b)
A mechanism for ensuring device synchronization.
c)
The process of stopping a process until an I/O operation is completed.
d)
A method of allocating memory for I/O operations.
161.
In the Windows OS, which statement is true about the blocked state of a process?
a)
Waiting for an event triggered by the CPU's scheduling mechanism
b)
Waiting for an event that has not happened yet
c)
Waiting to input/output and Waiting for an event that has not happened yet
d)
The CPU and Memory are waiting to other events
162.
Which statement best describes the function of virtual memory in the Windows operating system?
a)
Virtual memory is used to store temporary files created by applications to free up physical RAM.
b)
Virtual memory allows a larger address space than the physical memory available, by using a combination of RAM and hard disk space.
c)
Virtual memory is a reserved area on the hard disk used exclusively for storing system files.
d)
Virtual memory enables the operating system to manage the computer's display settings for multiple monitors.
163.
What kind of file access did early operating system provide?
a)
Liner access
b)
Unsequential access
c)
Random access
d)
Sequential access
164.
RAID level_____works worst with operating systems that habitually ask for data one sector at a time
a)
0
b)
1
c)
2
d)
3
165.
In file sharing, B links to one of C's files by having the system create a new file, of type LINK, and entering that file in B's directory. The new file contains just the path name of the file to which it is linked. When B reads from the linked file, the operating system sees that the file being read from is of type LINK, looks up the name of the file, and reads that file. Which of the following is the correct about the type of file sharing described above?
a)
Synchronous Linking
b)
Symbolic Linking
c)
Traditional (hard) Linking
d)
Synthetic Linking
166.
Consider two statements: Statement 1: A Log-structured File System (LFS) is a design for file systems in which all changes to the file system's state are appended sequentially to a log. This innovative approach contrasts with traditional file systems, which often overwrite blocks in place to update files or file metadata. Statement 2: Journaling File System: first writes a log entry listing the three actions to be completed. The log entry is then written to disk. Only after the log entry has been written, do the various operations begin. Choose the correct option
a)
Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true
b)
Statement 1 is false, statement 2 is false
c)
Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false
d)
Statement 1 is false, statement 2 is true
167.
In the Linux OS, which key combination stops the ping command in the terminal?
a)
Ctrl + Break
b)
Ctrl + D
c)
Ctrl + C
d)
Ctrl + Z
Reset
