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Worksheets

Upper Limb Orthotics

Total questions: 162

Worksheet time: 1hrs 22mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which carpal bone is most frequently fractured at the wrist?

a)

Scaphoid

b)

Lunate

c)

Trapezium

d)

Capitate

2.

Injury or compression to the long thoracic nerve can cause weakness to the _____ and lead to which condition?

a)

Subscapularis; shoulder impingement

b)

Supraspinatus; abductor weakness

c)

Serratus anterior; scapular winging

d)

Infraspinatus; loss of external rotation

3.

A positive varus stress test at the elbow would most likely indicate damage to what structures:

a)

Lateral collateral ligament

b)

Annular ligament

c)

Ulnar collateral ligament

d)

Medial collateral ligament

4.

All of the motions below are necessary to place a patient in the position of active insufficiency of the biceps brachii EXCEPT...

a)

Shoulder flexion

b)

Shoulder abduction

c)

Elbow supination

d)

Elbow flexion

5.

The supraspinatus contracts eccentrically during abduction of the shoulder.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

A nurse missed a patient's median cubital vein while trying to withdraw blood and then inserted the needle far too deeply into the cubital fossa. This error could cause any of the following problems EXCEPT:

a)

paralysis of the median nerve

b)

paralysis of the ulnar nerve

c)

bruising of the insertion tendon of the biceps brachii muscle

d)

blood spurting from the brachial artery

7.

Abduction of the thumb occurs perpendicular to the palm.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

The axis of rotation for wrist movements is reported to pass through which structure:

a)

Lunate

b)

Scaphoid

c)

Capitate

d)

Pisiform

9.

The boutonniere deformity is described as:

a)

PIP hyperextesion, DIP flexion

b)

PIP flexion, DIP hyperextension

c)

PIP flexion, DIP flexion

d)

PIP hyperextension, DIP hyperextension

10.

Normal range of motion for elbow extension and flexion is:

a)

15 to 30 degrees

b)

30 to 145 degrees

c)

-5 to 145 degrees

d)

0 to 100 degree

11.

Which prehension pattern below will be utilized to grasp a glass of water?

a)

Hook

b)

Tip to tip

c)

Key

d)

Cylindrical

12.

Motions that increase tension in the medial collateral ligament of the elbow are:

a)

Varus

b)

Supination

c)

Valgus

d)

Pronation

13.

Flexion and extension of the CMC joint occur parallel to the palm.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

The close-packed position of the MCP joints is which of the following positions?

a)

full adduction

b)

full extension

c)

full abduction

d)

full flexion

15.

Which of the carpal bones can be palpated in the floor of the anatomical snuffbox?

a)

Lunate

b)

Scaphoid

c)

Capitate

d)

Pisiform

16.

Which carpal bone is saddle shaped, allowing a wide range of motion at its articulation with the 1st metacarpal?

a)

trapezoid

b)

pisiform

c)

triquetrum

d)

trapezium

17.

Which carpal bone has the characteristics of a sesamoid bone?

a)

trapezium

b)

lunate

c)

capitate

d)

pisiform

18.

A patient with weak or paralyzed finger flexors may produce a slight grip (tenodesis) by...

a)

flexing the wrist and elbow

b)

extending the wrist

c)

flexing the wrist and extending the elbow

d)

ulnarly deviating the wrist and flexing the elbow

19.

A swan neck deformity of the fingers would be characterized by which following presentation...

a)

Hyperextension of MCP with flexion of PIP

b)

Flexion of PIP with hyperextension of DIP

c)

Hyperextension of PIP with hyperextension of DIP

d)

Hyperextension of PIP with flexion of DIP

20.

The most congruent position (close-packed) of the proximal interphalangeal joints is

a)

Maximal adduction

b)

Maximal flexion

c)

Maximal extension

d)

Maximal abduction

21.

Ulnar tilt of the distal radius allows for more _____ and palmar tilt allows for more _____ at the wrist.

a)

ulnar deviation; extension

b)

radial deviation; flexion

c)

ulnar deviation; flexion

d)

radial deviation; extension

22.

The ultimate function of motion at the scapulothoracic joint is to:

a)

work independent of the GH motion

b)

provide downward rotation during shoulder girdle elevation

c)

orient the glenoid fossa for optimal contact with the humeral head when maneuvering the arm

d)

decrease stability at the AC and SC joints

23.

Injury to what structure would most likely result in a shoulder AC joint "separation" injury?

a)

Costoclavicular ligament

b)

Coracohumeral ligament

c)

Interclavicular ligament

d)

Coracoclavicular ligament

24.

What position would provide for passive insufficiency of the long head of the triceps brachii?

a)

elbow flexion with shoulder flexion and abduction

b)

elbow extension with shoulder flexion and external rotation

c)

elbow flexion with shoulder extension and adduction

d)

elbow extension with shoulder extension and internal rotation

25.

Impingement syndrome at the subacromial space would typically include injury to which of the following TWO structures (select BOTH)?

a)

Axillary pouch

b)

Deltoid

c)

Supraspinatus tendon

d)

Subacromial bursae

26.

The properly functioning rotator cuff assists in all of the following activities except?

a)

Internal and External rotation of the GH joint

b)

Compression of the subacromial space

c)

Humeral head depression

d)

Abduction of the GH joint

27.

As the clavicle is elevated, the scapula experiences downward rotation.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

Stability of the glenuhumeral joint is mainly from:

a)

Muscles

b)

Joint Capsule

c)

Strong Ligaments

d)

Bony Anatomy

29.

What degree of shoulder flexion ROM at the glenohumeral joint would be typical?

a)

120 degrees

b)

160 degrees

c)

180 degrees

d)

65 degrees

30.

All of the following are upward rotators of the scapula at the scapulothoracic joint except.

a)

Levator Scapula

b)

Serratus Anterior

c)

Lower Trapezius

d)

Upper Trapezius

31.

The end feel of complete elbow extension is

a)

Spongey

b)

Firm

c)

Soft tissue approximation

d)

Hard/Bony

32.

Which of the following is true regarding the "screw home mechanism" of the elbow?

a)

during pronation, the ulna migrates proximally causing a compression force

b)

during supination, the ulna migrates proximally causing a compression force

c)

during pronation, the radius migrates proximally causing a compression force

d)

during supination, the radius migrates proximally causing a compression force

33.

The close-packed position of the humeroulnar joint includes the following TWO motions (select BOTH):

a)

full supination

b)

full extension

c)

full flexion

d)

full pronation

34.

Max flexion torque for the 3 primary flexors occurs at what degree of elbow flexion?

a)

90 degrees

b)

0 degrees

c)

120 degrees

d)

45 degrees

35.

You are evaluating a healthy patient for flexion PROM of the elbow. You would expect the flexion PROM to be close to what value below?

a)

90 degrees

b)

180 degrees

c)

120 degrees

d)

-5 degrees

e)

145 degrees

36.

For open chain flexion at the humeroradial joint, the arthrokinematics are as follows

a)

anterior roll and anterior slide of the radius on the relatively fixed humerus

b)

spin of the radius on the humerus

c)

gliding between the articular surfaces

d)

anterior roll and posterior slide of the radius on the relatively fixed humerus

37.

For open chain supination at the distal radioulnar joint, the arthrokinmatics are as follows...

a)

spin occurs in the same direction as the movement of the forearm

b)

roll occur in the opposite direction

c)

rotation occurs due to constraint by fibro-osseous ring

d)

roll and slide occur in the same direction

38.

The Ulna accepts 80% of all compressive forces though the wrist.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

]The supinators are capable of producing more torque than the pronators.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

The functional wrist-hand position places the thumb in _____ opposition compared to the resting wrist-hand position.

a)

an equal amount of

b)

less

c)

more

41.

When fabricating a Rancho style hand orthosis, at what length would you terminate the thumb post?

a)

1st digit MCP joint

b)

1st digit CMC joint

c)

1st digit mid finger nail bed

d)

1st digit IP joint

42.

A "long opponens" orthosis refers to…

a)

A wrist hand finger orthosis that fully encompasses all digits

b)

A wrist hand finger orthosis that fully encompasses all digits

c)

An elbow orthosis that fully extends to the wrist

d)

A wrist hand orthosis that aids in thumb positioning

43.

Which named hand orthosis design offers adjustability due to being formed from aluminum?

a)

Texas Institute for Rehabilitation and Research

b)

Rancho Los Amigos

c)

Institute for Rehabilitation and Medicine

44.

Which joint utilizes the most degrees of freedom?

a)

Elbow

b)

Wrist

c)

Metacarpophalangeal

d)

Glenohumeral

45.

The "functional arc" of range of motion for the forearm that is needed to perform normal daily activities is which of the following?

a)

30° pronation, 60° supination

b)

60° pronation, 30° supination

c)

50° pronation, 50° supination

d)

75° pronation, 25° supination

46.

Which WHO design would be most appropriate for a patient with wrist extensor strength of 3/5, whose strength decreases to 2/5 when fatigued?

a)

Ratchet WHO

b)

Wrist driven WHO

c)

Wrist action WHO

47.

Which of the following would be the most precise form of prehension?

a)

Pad to pad

b)

Tip to tip

c)

Key

d)

Hook

48.

An "opponens bar" in an upper extremity orthosis does which of the following?

a)

Maintains the thumb in extension

b)

Maintains the thumb in adduction

c)

Maintains the thumb in abduction

d)

Maintains the thumb in flexion

49.

Which position would provide for passive insufficiency of the long head of the triceps brachii?

a)

Elbow extension with shoulder extension and internal rotation

b)

Elbow flexion with shoulder flexion and abduction

c)

Elbow extension with shoulder flexion and external rotation

d)

Elbow flexion with shoulder extension and adduction

50.

Various pinch prehension maneuvers are all reliant on function of which nerve?

a)

Ulnar

b)

Radial

c)

Median

d)

Musculocutaneous

51.

Which of the carpal bones can be palpated in the floor of the anatomical snuffbox?

a)

Scaphoid

b)

Lunate

c)

Pisiform

d)

Capitate

52.

The "functional arc" of range of motion for the forearm that is needed to perform normal daily activities is which of the following?

a)

0° radial deviation, 40° ulnar deviation

b)

10° radial deviation, 30° ulnar deviation

c)

30° radial deviation, 10° ulnar deviation

d)

20° radial deviation, 20° ulnar deviation

53.

Due to metacarpal length/positioning, MCP joints are aligned oblique to the distal ends of the radius and ulna.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

You are evaluating a healthy patient for flexion PROM of the elbow. You would expect the flexion PROM to be close to which value below?

a)

180°

b)

145°

c)

90°

d)

120°

55.

What is the primary function of brachioradialis?

a)

Wrist extension

b)

Elbow flexion

c)

Forearm pronation

d)

Wrist flexion

56.

Which of the following statements is true regarding the carrying angle of the elbow?

a)

Normal carrying angle is around 13° degrees

b)

Normal carrying angle has medial deviation of the ulna relative to the humerus

c)

Women typically have a smaller carrying angle than men

d)

Normal carrying angle is in slight varus

57.

More than others, which joint relies heavily on muscle tone and function for its stability?

a)

Glenohumeral joint

b)

Radioulnar joint

c)

Interphalangeal joint

d)

Metacarpophalangeal joint

58.

The deltoid muscle acts to abduct the shoulder with what other muscle?

a)

Supraspinatus

b)

Infraspinatus

c)

Trapezius

d)

Subscapularis

59.

Which WHO design would be most appropriate for a patient with wrist extensor strength of 1/5?

a)

Wrist action WHO

b)

Wrist driven WHO

c)

Ratchet WHO

60.

A "palmar bar" in an upper extremity orthosis does which of the following?

a)

Maintains the MCP joints in flexion

b)

Maintains the transverse arch shape of the hand

c)

Maintains the MCP joints in extension

d)

Maintains the longitudinal arch shape of the hand

61.

Which answer below best describes the position of active insufficiency for the biceps brachii?

a)

Shoulder extension, elbow extension, and forearm pronation

b)

Shoulder flexion, elbow flexion, and forearm supination

c)

Shoulder flexion, elbow extension, and forearm supination

d)

Shoulder extension, elbow flexion, and forearm pronation

62.

Digitopalmar grip maneuvers are all reliant on the function of which nerve more than others?

a)

Median

b)

Musculocutaneous

c)

Radial

d)

Ulnar

63.

Which named hand orthosis design requires casting and allows for active opposition of the 4th and 5th fingers?

a)

Texas Institute for Rehabilitation and Research

b)

Rancho Los Amigos

c)

Institute for Rehabilitation and Medicine

64.

Which named hand orthosis design is typically produced as prefabricated thermoplastic hand shells?

a)

Rancho Los Amigos

b)

Institute for Rehabilitation and Medicine

c)

Texas Institute for Rehabilitation and Research

65.

The "functional arc" of range of motion for the elbow that is needed to perform normal daily activities is which of the following?

a)

30-130° flexion

b)

0-165° flexion

c)

0-130° flexion

d)

30-165° flexion

66.

All of the following prehensile patterns involve the thumb EXCEPT:

a)

Spherical

b)

Key

c)

Hook

d)

Tip to tip

67.

The functional wrist-hand position places the MCP joints in _____ flexion compared to the resting wrist-hand position.

a)

an equal amount of

b)

less

c)

more

68.

Abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi brevis, and opponens digiti minimi are all muscles that make up the _____.

a)

Hypothenar eminence

b)

Thenar eminence

69.

The functional wrist-hand position places the thumb in _____ opposition compared to the resting wrist-hand position.

a)

more

b)

less

c)

an equal amount of

70.

Which type of humeral fracture would you most likely see as an orthotist?

a)

comminuted fracture

b)

non-displaced fracture

c)

open fracture

d)

intra-articular fracture

71.

Use of distal outriggers in upper limb orthosis design is most often seen in the treatment of which condition?

a)

Burn

b)

Stroke

c)

Fracture

d)

Osteoarthritis

72.

Edema following severe burns can arguably be more detrimental to recovery than the initial cell death injury.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

A patient is seen in clinic. The patient presents with a midshaft humeral fracture (10 degrees of varus is noted at the fracture site). What orthosis would you recommend?

a)

Sarmiento humeral fracture orthosis

b)

Sling combined with their current long arm cast

c)

Midshaft humeral fractures cannot be managed with an orthosis

d)

SEWHO

74.

A fracture involving the distal articular surface of the humerus can lead to degenerative elbow arthritis.

a)

True

b)

False

75.

If a patient has sustained burn on her hand and is at risk for clawhand deformity, where was the most likely location of the burn?

a)

Dorsal aspect of the hand

b)

Volar aspect of the hand

76.

Which thumb deformity can result from rheumatoid arthritis and presents with MCP hyperextension and IP flexion?

a)

Swan neck deformity

b)

Mallet thumb

c)

Claw thumb

d)

Boutonniere deformity

77.

If a patient has sustained burn on her hand and is at risk for flexion contractures at all joints, where was the most likely location of the burn?

a)

Volar aspect of the hand

b)

Dorsal aspect of the hand

78.

Trimlines of a humeral fracture brace in the upper extremity need to encompass the fracture site.

a)

True

b)

False

79.

Which of the following appropriately describes the alignment deformity risks at the MCP joints for an individual with severe rheumatoid arthritis?

a)

Ulnar deviation and volar subluxation

b)

Ulnar deviation and dorsal subluxation

c)

Radial deviation and dorsal subluxation

d)

Radial deviation and dorsal subluxation

80.

Which potential condition following a severe burn includes MCP hyperextension?

a)

Swan neck deformity

b)

Claw hand deformity

c)

Boutonniere deformity

d)

Mallet finger deformity

81.

Which nerve injury is most likely with a displaced mid-shaft humeral fracture?

a)

Axillary nerve

b)

Radial nerve

c)

Musculocutaneous nerve

d)

Ulnar nerve

82.

Orthotic treatment is often used for all of the following types of burns EXCEPT:

a)

First degree

b)

Second degree

c)

Third degree

83.

The younger someone is, the more likely that a bone fracture will heal quicker.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

Which thumb deformity can result from rheumatoid arthritis and presents with MCP flexion and IP hyperextension?

a)

Swan neck deformity

b)

Boutonniere deformity

c)

Mallet thumb

d)

Claw thumb

85.

Which type of deformity results from damage to the central slip of a phalanx?

a)

Swan neck deformity

b)

Boutonniere deformity

c)

Claw hand deformity

d)

Mallet finger deformity

86.

The condition of Ulnar drift occurs at what joint?

a)

DIP

b)

MCP

c)

CMC

d)

PIP

87.

Which type of arthritis is most synonymous with "degenerative joint disease"?

a)

Rheumatoid arthritis

b)

Osteoarthritis

88.

What modification can you make to an ulnar fracture orthosis to increase its effectiveness at immobilizing a distal 2/3 ulnar fracture?

a)

Increase pressure M/L for increased immobilization

b)

Increase pressure A/P for increased immobilization

c)

Add rigid aluminum stays for increased immobilization

d)

Cross the elbow joint for a longer lever arm

89.

Which joint(s) of the hand is/are most susceptible to osteoarthritis? (select only one answer)

a)

MCPs of the fingers

b)

MCP of the thumb

c)

CMC of the thumb

d)

CMCs of the fingers

90.

A very tight extensor digitorum muscle prevents full finger flexion into a fist from taking place, especially if the wrist is also flexed. This is an example of _____.

a)

Passive insufficiency

b)

Active insufficiency

c)

Spasticity

91.

Some shoulder elbow wrist orthoses position the glenohumeral joint in its close-packed position. Which of the following describes that position?

a)

Abduction and external rotation

b)

Abduction and internal rotation

c)

Flexion and external rotation

d)

Flexion and internal rotation

92.

This prehensile pattern is characterized by stabilizing the object between thumb and lateral border of the index finger.

a)

Hook Grip

b)

Key Grip

c)

Spherical Grip

d)

Tip to Tip Grip

93.

In forearm pronation…

a)

the radius moves in rotation around a fixed ulna

b)

the ulna moves in rotation around a fixed radius

c)

the radius and ulna each provide half of the rotation, rotating around each other

94.

You are evaluating a healthy patient for flexion PROM of the elbow. You would expect the flexion PROM to be close to which value below?

a)

145

b)

180

c)

120

d)

90

95.

Which of the following muscles is not part of the thenar eminence?

a)

Adductor pollicis

b)

Flexor pollicis brevis

c)

Abductor pollicis brevis

d)

Extensor pollicis brevis

96.

Which upper limb orthotic device utilizes parallelogram mechanical linkage in its design?

a)

ratchet WHO

b)

wrist-driven WHO

c)

wrist-action WHO

97.

Assuming a mobile thumb, which of the following is the most important unit for achieving span grasp – specifically spherical grip as in holding a ball?

a)

Ring Finger

b)

Small Finger

c)

Index Finger

d)

Middle Finger

98.

A patient you are working with has a median nerve lesion. You would expect that they will have loss of all functions EXCEPT:

a)

Flexor carpi ulnaris

b)

Abductor pollicis longus

c)

Flexor pollicis brevis

d)

Opponens pollicis

99.

Which type of peripheral nerve injury results in "intrinsic minus" deformity?

a)

Ulnar + radial nerve injury

b)

Median + ulnar nerve injury

c)

Median + radial nerve injury

d)

Axillary + musculoskeletal nerve injury

100.

For which brachial plexus injury pathology would a wrist driven WHO be a more appropriate choice?

a)

Erb's palsy

b)

Radial nerve palsy

c)

Klumpke's palsy

101.

A brachial plexus injury occurs resulting in decreased wrist and hand function. Which type of injury is most likely the cause?

a)

Klumpke's palsy

b)

Erb's palsy

c)

Ulnar neuritis

d)

Trisomy 21

102.

Which is a more serious brachial plexus injury that has a poorer prognosis?

a)

Preganglionic injury

b)

Postganglionic injury

103.

Which specific brachial plexus injury results in the "intrinsic minus" hand position?

a)

Radial nerve palsy

b)

Klumpke's palsy

c)

Erb's palsy

104.

C8 and T1 involvement in a brachial plexus injury typically results in what is referred to as…

a)

Klumpke's palsy

b)

Radial nerve palsy

c)

Erb's palsy

105.

Your patient presents with her right radial nerve intact and severed median and ulnar nerves. What orthosis should you recommend?

a)

Static wrist hand finger orthosis

b)

Wrist driven wrist hand finger orthosis

c)

Hand orthosis

d)

Static wrist hand orthosis

106.

The posterior cord of the brachial plexus leads to which of the following nerves?

a)

Ulnar nerve

b)

Median nerve

c)

Radial nerve

d)

Musculocutaneous nerve

107.

Which specific brachial plexus injury results in what is referred to as "waiter's tip position"?

a)

Erb's palsy

b)

Radial nerve palsy

c)

Klumpke's palsy

108.

Which condition might show limited improvement after use of NSAIDs and rest/immobilization?

a)

Carpal tunnel syndrome

b)

Dupuytren's contracture

c)

Trigger finger

d)

De Quervain's tenosynovitis

109.

Which of the following appropriately describes carpal tunnel syndrome?

a)

Median nerve compression at dorsal wrist

b)

Median nerve compression at volar wrist

c)

Ulnar nerve compression at volar wrist

d)

Ulnar nerve compression at dorsal wrist

110.

Which muscle would MOST likely be involved in tennis elbow?

a)

abductor pollicis longus

b)

flexor digitorum

c)

pronator teres

d)

extensor carpi radialis brevis

111.

Which of the following is true regarding Nursemaid's elbow?

a)

The injury results from tension force applied to a flexed elbow and supinated forearm

b)

The injury results from compression force applied to an extended elbow and pronated forearm

c)

The injury results from compression force applied to a flexed elbow and supinated forearm

d)

The injury results from tension force applied to an extended elbow and pronated forearm

112.

What is the appropriate wrist positioning for an orthosis meant to treat carpal tunnel syndrome?

a)

20 degrees extension

b)

20 degrees flexion

c)

40 degrees extension

d)

neutral flexion/extension

113.

Which of the following appropriately describes cubital tunnel syndrome?

a)

Radial nerve compression at lateral elbow

b)

Ulnar nerve compression at medial elbow

c)

Ulnar nerve compression at lateral elbow

d)

Radial nerve compression at medial elbow

114.

Which is correct?

a)

Cubital tunnel syndrome involves the median nerve; carpal tunnel syndrome involves the radial nerve

b)

Cubital tunnel syndrome involves the ulnar nerve; carpal tunnel syndrome involves the median nerve

c)

Cubital tunnel syndrome involves the radial nerve; carpal tunnel syndrome involves the median nerve

d)

Cubital tunnel syndrome involves the radial nerve; carpal tunnel syndrome involves the ulnar nerve

115.

Which of the following muscle tendons are most likely involved in De Quervain's tenosynovitis?

a)

extensor pollicis brevis

b)

adductor pollicis

c)

abductor digiti minimi

d)

flexor pollicis brevis

116.

In which condition is the DIP not in flexion?

a)

Mallet finger

b)

Swan neck deformity

c)

Boutonierre deformity

117.

Which phalangeal deformity occurs as a result of disruption of the central slip at the PIP joint?

a)

Claw finger

b)

Swan neck deformity

c)

Boutonierre deformity

d)

Mallet finger

118.

The lumbricals act to:

a)

Extend the MCP joints and flex the IP joints

b)

Extend the MCP joints and extend the IP joints

c)

Flex the MCP joints and extend the IP joints

d)

Flex the MCP joints and flex the IP joints

119.

The axillary nerve branches most closely off of which of the following nerves?

a)

Radial Nerve

b)

Median Nerve

c)

Ulnar Never

d)

Musculocutaneous Nerve

120.

You see a patient with wrist drop, paralysis of the triceps, brachioradialis, supinator, and extensor muscles of the wrist and digits. What nerve is responsible for this and where likely is the injury?

a)

Median nerve; radial groove

b)

Radial nerve; distal elbow

c)

Ulnar nerve; shoulder joint

d)

Radial nerve; superior to the triceps brachii muscle

121.

The radial nerve is injured within the radial groove. Which muscle would NOT be paralyzed?

a)

Triceps brachii

b)

Supinator

c)

Brachioradialis

d)

Extensor carpi radialis

122.

Which nerve root is least often impacted in a brachial plexus injury?

a)

T1

b)

C8

c)

C6

d)

C5

e)

C7

123.

Injury to the median nerve will result in what characteristic appearance when a patient tries to make a fist?

a)

Boutonierre deformity

b)

Hand of benediction

c)

Claw hand

d)

Ape hand

124.

Orthotic treatment for basilar joint arthritis and De Quervain's tenosynovitis requires the application of similar immobilization principles.

a)

True

b)

False

125.

Which condition might respond best to NSAIDs and rest/immobilization?

a)

Trigger finger

b)

Boutonierre deformity

c)

Swan neck deformity

d)

Dupuytren's contracture

126.

Regarding Dupuytren's contracture and trigger finger, in both conditions, the finger is flexed and cannot be extended at all without surgery.

a)

True

b)

False

127.

Which phalangeal deformity occurs as a result of a volar plate avulsion at the PIP joint?

a)

Mallet finger

b)

Boutonierre deformity

c)

Swan neck deformity

d)

Claw finger

128.

A very severe case of cubital tunnel syndrome could result in…

a)

Wrist drop

b)

Claw hand

c)

Swan neck deformity

d)

Ape hand deformity

129.

Nursemaid's elbow refers to…

a)

subluxation of the distal radius

b)

subluxation of the proximal ulna

c)

subluxation of the distal ulna

d)

subluxation of the proximal radius

130.

Most patients who has sustained a spinal cord injury are…

a)

Young male

b)

Young female

c)

Older male

d)

Older female

131.

Your patient has sustained a spinal cord injury, and upon evaluation you find that the strength in her extremities is largely unimpaired, but she has minimal position sense of her joints and major sensory impairment. Which diagnosis is most appropriate for her?

a)

Posterior Cord Syndrome

b)

Anterior Cord Syndrome

c)

Central Cord Syndrome

d)

Brown-Sequard Syndrome

132.

Which nerve risks entrapment at the elbow due to traction from spastic positioning (if orthotic treatment is not implemented)?

a)

Median

b)

Radial

c)

Musculocutaneous

d)

Ulnar

133.

In a spinal cord injury, which is typically the case?

a)

The periphery of the spinal cord is damaged, but centrally it remains intact and unimpaired.

b)

Centrally the spinal cord is damaged, but at the periphery it remains intact and unimpaired.

134.

Flexor spasticity and contracture can be expected at the wrist and hand for most stroke patients when not treated early.

a)

True

b)

False

135.

A manual muscle test assessment of knee extension provides a quick assessment of the motor integrity of which spinal level?

a)

S1

b)

L2

c)

L4

d)

L5

e)

L3

136.

Which type of incomplete spinal cord injury is the most common?

a)

Anterior Cord Syndrome

b)

Central Cord Syndrome

c)

Posterior Cord Syndrome

d)

Brown-Sequard Syndrome

137.

Which is likely the most appropriate daytime orthosis for a patient with a complete C6 spinal cord injury?

a)

Ratchet WHFO with mobile arm support

b)

HdO

c)

Wrist driven WHO with extension assist

d)

Wrist driven WHO (without extension assist)

138.

In cases of stroke and traumatic brain injury, the majority of motor recovery is said to occur within…

a)

The first six months

b)

The first month

c)

The first three months

d)

The first 12 months

139.

Which is likely the most appropriate daytime orthosis for a patient with a complete C7 spinal cord injury?

a)

HdO

b)

Wrist driven WHO with extension assist

c)

Wrist driven WHO (without extension assist)

d)

Ratchet WHFO with mobile arm support

140.

To quickly assess the motor integrity of the C6 spinal level, what would you ask your patient to do (as you hold their limb segment in resistance)?

a)

Extend their wrist

b)

Flex their elbow

c)

Abduct their little finger

d)

Flex their middle finger

e)

Extend their elbow

141.

A manual muscle test assessment of long toe extension provides a quick assessment of the motor integrity of which spinal level?

a)

L3

b)

S1

c)

L4

d)

L5

e)

L2

142.

Which of the following refers to the resistance of muscle to fast movement (velocity-dependent)?

a)

Tone

b)

Clonus

c)

Rigidity

d)

Spasticity

143.

Which is likely the most appropriate daytime orthosis for a patient with a complete C8 spinal cord injury?

a)

Wrist driven WHO (without extension assist)

b)

Ratchet WHFO with mobile arm support

c)

Wrist driven WHO with extension assist

d)

HdO

144.

Which of the following refers to a series of involuntary, rhythmic muscular contractions and relaxations?

a)

Clonus

b)

Tone

c)

Spasticity

d)

Rigidity

145.

How is the electrical signal stopped when botulinum toxin has been used?

a)

Neuron dendrites are damaged

b)

Release of chemicals at the neuromuscular junction is prevented

c)

Neuron axon is damaged

d)

Neuron myelin sheath is damaged

146.

When someone is given a botox injection to treat spasticity, results will be apparent immediately.

a)

True

b)

False

147.

Which of the following describes a patient's clinical presentation if they have Brown-Sequard Syndrome?

a)

Complete loss unilaterally (motor control, proprioception, pain sensitivity, temperature sensitivity)

b)

Bilateral variable loss of motor control, proprioception, pain sensitivity, and temperature sensitivity (upper extremity impacted more than lower extremity)

c)

Bilateral variable loss of motor control, pain sensitivity, and temperature sensitivity; preserved proprioception bilaterally

d)

Motor control and proprioception lost unilaterally; pain and temperature sensitivity lost contralaterally

148.

To quickly assess the motor integrity of the C8 spinal level, what would you ask your patient to do (as you hold their limb segment in resistance)?

a)

Flex their middle finger

b)

Flex their elbow

c)

Extend their wrist

d)

Extend their elbow

e)

Abduct their little finger

149.

For which diagnosis would orthotic intervention of a wrist driven WHO with extension assist likely be most appropriate?

a)

C7 AIS D

b)

C5 AIS B

c)

C8 AIS C

d)

C6 AIS A

150.

Which of the following refers to the resistance of muscle to slow movement?

a)

Tone

b)

Spasticity

c)

Rigidity

d)

Clonus

151.

Which typically happens first following acute ischemic stroke?

a)

Flaccid paralysis

b)

Hypertonia

c)

Flexor synergy patterns

d)

Extensor synergy patterns

152.

Severe extensor spasticity and contracture can be expected at the elbow for most stroke patients when not treated early.

a)

True

b)

False

153.

Which is likely the most appropriate daytime orthosis for a patient with a complete C5 spinal cord injury?

a)

Wrist driven WHO (without extension assist)

b)

Ratchet WHFO with mobile arm support

c)

HdO

d)

Wrist driven WHO with extension assist

154.

All injectable options to treat spasticity wear off in six months or less.

a)

True

b)

False

155.

For which diagnosis would orthotic intervention of a wrist driven WHO without extension assist likely be most appropriate?

a)

C7 AIS B

b)

C8 AIS D

c)

C5 AID E

d)

C6 AIS A

156.

A manual muscle test assessment of ankle plantarflexion provides a quick assessment of the motor integrity of which spinal level?

a)

L3

b)

L2

c)

L5

d)

L4

e)

S1

157.

A patient with a diagnosis of Brown Sequard Syndrome (SCI) occurring at C4 and affecting his right upper extremity and right lower extremity comes to your clinic for a LE orthosis. He is ambulatory but requires minimal assistance. Initially, what assistive device would be most appropriate?

a)

Crutches

b)

Single point cane on the left side

c)

Single point cane on the right side

d)

Front wheeled walker

158.

A manual muscle test assessment of ankle dorsiflexion provides a quick assessment of the motor integrity of which spinal level?

a)

L3

b)

L2

c)

L5

d)

L4

e)

S1

159.

Which of the following muscle tendons are most likely involved in De Quervain's tenosynovitis?

a)

flexor pollicis longus

b)

extensor digitorum

c)

adductor pollicis

d)

abductor pollicis longus

160.

Which muscle would MOST likely be involved in golfer's elbow?

a)

Supinator

b)

Flexor carpi ulnaris

c)

Abductor pollicis longus

d)

Extensor digitorum

161.

Which muscle would LEAST likely be involved in medial epicondylitis?

a)

extensor carpi radialis brevis

b)

pronator teres

c)

flexor carpi radialis

d)

flexor digitorum superficialis

162.

You see a patient who describes pain in her shoulder after chopping wood. You find on physical examination weakness with shoulder flexion and you note scapular winging. What is most likely the cause?

a)

Compression of the axillary nerve

b)

Rotator cuff impingement and tendonitis

c)

Compression of the long thoracic nerve

d)

Compression of the suprascapular nerve