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Worksheets

HIPPA

Total questions: 167

Worksheet time: 11hrs 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Diovan is an example of a conventional compressed tablet.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

Compressed tablets coated with colored or uncolored thin film of water soluble polymeric material which disintegrates rapidly in the G.I. tract (film coated tablets). Select all that apply

a)

Biaxin

b)

Erythromycin

c)

Diovan

3.

Why can't potassium chloride (Klor Con) be in capsule form?

a)

It's very soluble; thus causes localized irritation and gastric distress

b)

IT IS NOT very soluble; thus causes localized irritation and gastric distress

4.

Which of the following are Advantages of modified release dosage forms? Select all that apply

a)

Improved patient compliance

b)

maintain the therapeutic level of a drug for a longer duration

c)

obtain continuous effect of the drug as a consequence for constant drug blood level

d)

reduced local irritation of drug substance in the GI tract due to high local concentration

e)

reduced frequency of drug administration

5.

Oral controlled release dosage forms are better suited for drugs with shorter elimination half life. What is the time frame?

a)

8-10 hours

b)

2-6 hours

c)

10-12 hours

d)

12-16 hours

6.

Extremely insoluble drugs are not well suited for modified release dosage forms since they tend to be absorbed slowly.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

Disadvantages of modified release drugs (Select all that apply)

a)

More expensive to produce

b)

If administered too frequently, undesirable high blood level of drug may result due to repetition of the loading dose and accumulation factor

c)

Less expensive to produce

8.

Repeat action dosage form is not effective for patient compliance as conventional dosage form.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

The thickness of the coat material applied will control the release of a drug from beads.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

Each group of beads will have ____ thickness of coating material

a)

different

b)

same

11.

Beads with thin coating material will release drug ____

a)

faster

b)

slower

12.

In Osmotic systems, gastric fluid from outside the tablet goes inside the tablet and dissolves the drug

a)

True

b)

False

13.

What is the lowest value of Tortuosity?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

14.

Which of the following is the dimension for the first order rate constant?

a)

mg/hr.

b)

mole.lit-1

c)

hour-1

d)

Cal/mole

e)

0K

15.

Which of the following inactive ingredients are required to prepare an immediate release tablet by employing suitable method? (select all that apply)

a)

Diluent

b)

coloring agent

c)

surface active agent

d)

Binding agent

e)

Flavoring agent

16.

Which of the following commercially available product uses the coated bead technique to control the release of the drug?

a)

Slow-K

b)

K-Dur

c)

Micro-K

d)

Wellbutrin XL

e)

Ambien CR

17.

Which of the following property of a therapeutic agent is ideal to develop a modified release dosage form?

a)

Low volume of distribution

b)

Narrow therapeutic range

c)

Very low aqueous solubility

d)

Long elimination half-life

e)

Short elimination half-life

18.

Which of the following commercial product represents an example of a non-disintegrating matrix type modified release dosage forms?

a)

Micro K 10 mEq

b)

K-Dur 20 mEq

c)

Klor-Con 10 mEq

d)

Adalant CC

e)

Glucotrol XL

19.

Which of the following factors will influence the drug release from a coated slow release bead type modified release dosage form? (select all that apply)

a)

Thickness of the coat

b)

Osmotic pressure of the dissolution fluid

c)

Permeability of the polymer

d)

True density of a drug

e)

Solubility of a drug inside the bead

20.

Which of the following will contribute to slower drug release from a non-disintegrating matrix type modified release dosage form?

a)

High Porosity

b)

High equilibrium solubility of a drug

c)

High true density of a drug

d)

Low tortuosity

e)

High tortuosity

21.

Hydrophilic polymers act as emulsifying agents by forming a stable monomolecular layer at the interface between the external and internal phases

a)

True

b)

False

22.

Which following statement(s) is(are) correct? (select all that apply)

a)

A. The formulation process of Drug-in-Adhesive transdermal patches is more complicated than that of Reservoir transdermal patches

b)

B. Drug-in-Adhesive transdermal patches have higher potential for dose dumping than Reservoir transdermal patches

c)

C. Matrix transdermal Patches are usually more comfortable to use then Reservoir transdermal patches

23.

Which of the following R.L. plot of drug release rate against time best describes the drug release from a modified release dosage form that belongs to G.I.T.S?

a)

a) Declining rate followed by constant rate

b)

b) Contact rate all throughout

c)

c) Increasing rate followed by constant rate

d)

d) Increasing rate followed by declining rate

e)

e) Constant rate followed by declining rate

24.

Which of the following inactive ingredients are mixed with the active pharmaceutical ingredients during the preparation of granules for immediate release tablets? (Select all that apply)

a)

Diluent

b)

Lubricant

c)

Glidant

d)

Binding agent

e)

Anti-adherent

25.

Which of the following are used as diluent in the formulation of an immediate release tablet dosage form? Select all that apply

a)

A. Starch powder

b)

B. Spray dried lactose

c)

C. Microcrystalline cellulose

d)

D. Tragacanth powder

e)

E. Talc

26.

Which of the following is an appropriate dimension for the first order rate?

a)

A. mg/hr

b)

B. mole lit.1

c)

C. hour-1

d)

D. cal/mole

e)

E. OK

27.

Which of the following is most commonly used diluent for immediate release tablets for oral administration?

a)

A. Di Calcium Phosphate

b)

B. Talc

c)

C. Microcrystalline Cellulose

d)

ExplotabR

e)

Sodium Bicarbonate

28.

Which of the following is likely to be observed when the drug dissolution from an immediate release tablet is very slow?

a)

A. Short peak time

b)

B. Short peak time and high peak plasma concentration

c)

C. Long peak time and high peak plasma concentration

d)

D. Short peak time and quicker onset of action.

e)

E. Long peak time and slower onset of action

29.

The unit for zero order rate constant is?

a)

a. mg/min

b)

b. min^-1

c)

c. mg

d)

d. min

e)

e. mg^-1

30.

Zero order is a process which doesn’t depend on drug concentration.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

First order is a process which depends on drug concentration.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

Zero order kinetics is a process that is directly proportional to the drug concentration involved in process.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

When talking about first order kinetics the Half-life depends on initial drug

concentration.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

When talking about first order kinetics the half-life is concentration independent?

a)

True

b)

False

35.

Which of the following is NOT true about conventional tablets or immediate release

dosage forms?

a)

a. They require disintegrating agents

b)

b. They require binding agents

c)

c. They require grinding of particles to reduce the particle size

d)

d. They have economy in manufacturing

36.

Modified dosage form has a longer duration of action.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

A shorter half -life is best suitable for which dosage form?

a)

a. Solution

b)

b. Suspension or emulsion

c)

c. Extended release

d)

d. Tablet

38.

pMDI’s, the momentum of aerosol particles generated depends on the device

rather than the patients IFR.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Which of the following is/are true about the property tortuosity? Select all that apply

a)

a. It influences drug release from a certain type of modified release dosage form

b)

b. It is inversely proportional to the compressional force

c)

c. Its lowest value is one

40.

Which of the following commercially available product(s) are prepared by

employing the principle of osmotic pressure difference between the solution inside

and outside the dosage form? Select all that apply

a)

Concerta^R

b)

b. Wellbutrin^R XL

c)

c. Omeprazole

41.

Which of the following unit applies to a rate constant when the drug release data,

from a modified release form, is fitted to the square root or cubic equation?

a)

a. mg.hr^-1

b)

b. hr^½

c)

c. hr^-1

d)

d. hr^-1/2

42.

(True/False) Tortuosity is one of the factors that influence the release of a drug

from a non-disintegrating matrix type modified release dosage form. In general, the greater the tortuosity, the faster is the drug release from the dosage form.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

(True/False) In general, the particle size of the suspensoid is larger in oral and

topical suspensions when compared with ophthalmic and parenteral suspensions.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

Which of the following will influence the drug release from the porous non-

disintegrating matrix release dosage form?

a)

a. True density of the powder

b)

b. Tortuosity of the matrix

c)

c. Equilibrium solubility of the matrix

d)

d. Thickness of the coating material

45.

Which of the following may be employed to minimize the mottling problem in an immediate release tablet formulation?

a)

Avoid using binding agent

b)

Slow drying of granules

c)

Rapid drying of granules

d)

Drying granules without heat

e)

Avoid using diluent

46.

Which of the following will contribute to greater variation in the drug content uniformity results of an immediate release tablet? Select all that apply

a)

A. Poor flow of granules

b)

B. High granule porosity

c)

C. Inadequate binding agent

d)

D. Inadequate diluent

e)

E. Low granule porosity

47.

Which of the following is the right unit of permeability coefficient?

a)

A. cm/s

b)

B. cm2/s

c)

C. cm2/s2

d)

D. cm/s2

48.

In aerosol delivery, the inhaled particles _________ in diameter are deposited on the tracheobronchial surface by __________.

a)

A. greater than 5 um; gravitational sedimentation

b)

B. between 0.5-3 um; Brownian diffusion

c)

C. greater than 5 um; inertial impaction

d)

D. between 0.5-3 um; inertial impaction

49.

Which of the following commercially available products uses the coated beat technique to control the release of the drug?

a)

Wellbutrin XL

b)

Ambien CR

c)

Slow K

d)

Micro K

e)

K-Dur R

50.

Is the following statement true or false? Hydrophilic polymers act as emulsifying agents by forming a stable monomolecular layer at the interface between the external and internal phases.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

When dispensing a transdermal patch, a patient should be advised: (Select all that apply)

a)

A. To fold the used patch in half with the adhesive sides sticking together

b)

B. To moisture the selected area of skin prior to applying the patch.

c)

Not to use more than one patch at one time unless prescribed.

52.

Which of the following is the characteristic layer of a reservoir transdermal system?

a)

A. Adhesive

b)

B. Drug matrix

c)

C. Liner

d)

D. Drug in adhesive

e)

E. Membrane

53.

Which of the following is the unit for the rate constant associated with the slow first order release of a drug from a modified release dosage form?

a)

A. hr.1/2

b)

B. mg/hr

c)

C. hr.mg-1

d)

D. mg.ml.hr-1

e)

E. hr.-1

54.

Increase in tidal volume results in less penetration of aerosol particles deeper into the distal tracheobronchial and alveolar regions.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

Increase in tidal volume results in _______ penetration of aerosol particles deeper into the _______ tracheobronchial and alveolar regions.

a)

A. greater; distal

b)

B. less; proximal

c)

C. greater; proximal

d)

D. less; distal

56.

Which of the following factors will influence the drug release from a coated slow release bead type modified release dosage form? (Select all that apply)

a)

A. Thickness of the coat

b)

B. Osmotic pressure of the dissolution fluid

c)

C. Permeability of the Polymer

d)

D. True density of a drug

e)

E. Solubility of a drug inside the bead

57.

Which one of the following commercial product represents an example of a non disintegrating matrix type modified release dosage form?

a)

Micro K 10 mEq

b)

K-Dur 20 mEq

c)

Klor Con 10 mEq

d)

Adalat CC

e)

Glucotrol XL

58.

Cell death and muscle contraction are disadvantages of which of the following methods of skin permeation enhancement?

a)

A. Iontophoresis

b)

B. Microneedles

c)

C. Sonophoresis

d)

D. Electroporation

59.

Which of the following structures can serve as a shunt route for transdermal drug delivery?

a)

A. Epidermis

b)

B. Hair follicles

c)

C. Stratum corneum

d)

D. Dendritic cells

e)

E. Melanocytes

60.

For using, Fentanyl patch which of the following is TRUE? (Select all that apply)

a)

A. Skin temperature does not affect fentanyl absorption

b)

B. Hypothermic patients may not get

    adequate pain relief

c)

C. Febrile patients may absorb more drug

61.

Which of the following TDS yields a drug permeation profile characterized by a concentration plateau?

a)

A. Infinite dose formulations

b)

B. Finite dose formulations

62.

Which of the following parameters is NOT relevant when developing a transdermal delivery system?

a)

A. Partition coefficient of the drug

b)

B. Drug therapeutic index

c)

C. Potency of the drug

d)

D. Drug molecular weight

63.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of TDDS?

a)

A. Enables self administration

b)

B. Drug half-life extension through the use of a reservoir

c)

C. Painless route of administration

d)

D. Possibility of an extended therapy with a single application

e)

E. Development of local allergic reactions to treatment

64.

The unit of the Valve Discharge Rate could be _______

a)

A. mg/mL

b)

B. mg/sec

c)

C. g/mL

d)

D. mg/g

65.

Which statement is TRUE about the nebulizers? (Select all that apply)

a)

A. Air jet nebulizers may cause crystallization of drug due to the evaporation of solvent

b)

B. Ultrasonic nebulizers can nebulize high viscosity liquids

c)

C. Ultrasonic nebulizers can be used for thermo sensitive drugs

d)

D. Air jet nebulizers are louder than ultrasonic nebulizers

66.

Deposition by diffusion _________ with the increase in particle size.

a)

A. increases

b)

B. decreases

c)

C. remains same

d)

D. could increase or decrease

67.

Which of the following is an appropriate dimension for the first order rate?

a)

A. mg/hr

b)

B. mole.lit-1

c)

C. hour-1

d)

D. cal/mole

e)

OK

68.

Enteric coated tablet is a type of controlled release tablet that is coated with a material insensitive to the acidic environment of the stomach; the coating material of such a tablet , however, will dissolve in the alkaline pH of the intestine and make the drug available for absorption.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

Which of the following property of a drug is considered ideal for its development

into a modified release dosage form?

a)

A. High dose

b)

B. Short elimination half-life

c)

C. Long elimination half-life

d)

D. High aqueous solubility

70.

There are some striking differences between zero and first order processes; unit for the rate constant and integrated equation are two of them.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

Which of the following property of a drug is ideal to prepare a modified release dosage form?

a)

A. Narrow therapeutic range

b)

B. Long elimination half life

c)

C. Highly insoluble drug

d)

D. Short elimination half life

72.

Which of the following apply to porosity and tortuosity; two parameters that play an important role in influencing the drug release from a certain type of a modified release dosage form?

a)

A. Each parameter influences the drug release from a non-disintegrating matrix type modified release dosage form.

b)

B. Each parameter is directly proportional to the compressional forces.

c)

C. Each parameter influences the drug release from coated bead type modified release form

d)

D. The lowest value for each parameter is zero

73.

Which of the following products use the principle of osmotic pressure difference in controlling the drug release (Select all that apply)

a)

A. Ambien CR

b)

B. Concerta

c)

C. Theo-Dur

d)

D. Ditropan XL

e)

E. Lipitor

74.

Shelf-life can be viewed as a thermodynamic parameter.

a)

True

b)

False

75.

Is the following statement true or false? Half-life of a drug undergoing zero order degradation depends on degradation rate constant and initial concentration of the drug.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

Which of the following equations define the relationship between temperature and the rate of a chemical reaction?

a)

A. Arrhenius Equation

b)

B. Fick's Law

c)

C. Noyes-Whitney equation

d)

D. Stocks law

77.

There are some striking differences between zero and first order processes. In the former, the constant percent of the remaining amount of a drug is eliminated per unit time while, in the latter, the constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit time.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

Which of the following best describes the relationship between the elimination half-life against the systemic clearance for a drug that exhibits the characteristics of a first order process, one compartment model, and eliminated exclusively by the kidneys?

a)

A. Directly proportional with a positive slope (R.L. Plot)

b)

B. Directly proportional with a positive slope (S.L. Plot)

c)

C. Inversely proportional with a negative slope (R.L. Plot)

d)

D. Declining curvilinear plot (R.L. Paper)

e)

E. Horizontal line with slope =0 (R.L. Plot

79.

Which of the following apply if an intravenously administered drug exhibits the characteristics of a one compartment model and first order process? (Select all that apply)

a)

A. Duration of action and termination of action are identical

b)

B. Unit for rate of elimination and elimination rate constant will be identical

c)

C. Unit for termination of action and duration of action is identical

d)

D. Requires finite time time to attain the distribution equilibrium

e)

E. Presence of two phases in a plasma concentration versus time profile

80.

Which of the following will always be present, regardless of the nature of the drug and the route of administration, following the administration of a drug to a subject? (Select all that apply)

a)

A. Absorption

b)

B. Distribution

c)

C. Metabolism

d)

D. Elimination

e)

E. Dissolution

81.

Which of the following apply if a drug exhibits the characteristics of a first order process? (Select all that apply)

a)

A. Active transport

b)

B. Unit for the rate constant is always reciprocal of time

c)

C. Passive diffusion is operative

d)

D. Unit for rate and rate constant is identical

e)

E. Rate remains unchanged with time

82.

Which of the following is true about the term e^-Kt?

a)

A. Its value increases as time increases

b)

B. Its value is one when time is equal to infinity

c)

C. Its value is zero when time is equal to zero

d)

D. Its value cannot be greater than one

e)

E. It is directly proportional to the administered dose

83.

Which of the following best describes the term elimination?

a)

A. It is the irreversible loss of drug from the body in a chemically unchanged form

b)

B. It is the irreversible loss of drug from the body

c)

C. It is the reversible loss of drug from the body in a chemically unchanged form

d)

D. It is the irreversible loss of drug from the body in a chemically changed form

e)

E. It is the irreversible loss of drug from the GI tract in a chemically unchanged form

84.

Which of the following formulation factor are true for transdermal patch? Select all that apply

a)

Delivery of a high molecular weight drugs

b)

pH of the vehicle

c)

Partition coefficient

d)

Polar drugs favor transport between cells (intercellular route)

85.

Rolling ball Q-C tests measure the force required to remove the release liner from an adhesive patch.

a)

True

b)

False

86.

What is the most significant barrier for transdermal drug delivery?

a)

Molecular size of drug molecules

b)

Skin structure

c)

Patient noncompliance

d)

A high cost of TDDs

87.

Which of the following statements is true about transdermal patch application?

a)

The part of the skin where the patch is to be applied should be properly cleaned

b)

You can cut it in halves.

c)

Can not be self-administered

88.

The movement of drugs through the membrane is defined as __________.

a)

Permeation

b)

Permeants

c)

Partitioning

d)

Diffusion

89.

Contains a liquid or semisolid (gelled) blend of a drug and polymer and any other excipients

a)

Drug reservoir

b)

Membrane

c)

Adhesive

d)

Backing layer

90.

Which component does NOT exist in Drug-in-adhesive single layer transdermal patch?

a)

Rate controlling membrane

b)

Liner

c)

Backing Layer

91.

Regarding matrix-type transdermal patches, which of the following statements are true?

a)

Most commonly used

b)

Contain a drug reservoir layer

c)

Matrix is a blend of drug, polymer, and excipients

d)

DIA systems are a special case of matrix systems

e)

Have no protective liner

92.

Delivery of a high molecular weight drugs are advantages of which of the following methods of skin permeation enhancement?

a)

Iontophoresis

b)

Microneedles

c)

Sonophoresis

d)

Electroporation

93.

Which of the following drug properties are preferable for transdermal delivery? Select all that apply

a)

High potency

b)

High molecular weight

c)

Low potency

d)

Low molecular weight

e)

Lop P values between 1-4

94.

Which of the following Q-C tests determines the ability to properly adhere to a patient’s skin?

a)

Peel Adhesion test

b)

Release liner peel test

c)

Rolling ball test

d)

Invitro release testing

95.

Transdermal drug delivery systems are designed to enable the passage of drugs into the skin.

a)

True

b)

False

96.

The application of a formulation to the skin to deliver a drug through the SKIN into the general CIRCULATION for a SYSTEMIC effect.

a)

True

b)

False

97.

What are the common layers for all types of transdermal patches? Select all that apply

a)

Adhesive

b)

Liner

c)

Drug matrix

d)

Backing Layer

e)

Membrane

98.

Which of the following are true about TDDS? Select all that apply

a)

Matrix transdermal patches are usually more comfortable to use than Reservoir transdermal patch

b)

The formulation process of Drug-in-Adhesive transdermal patches more complicated than that of reservoir transdermal patch

c)

Protective liner can not removed before application to enable drug release

d)

Adhesive contains a liquid or semisolid (gelled) blend of a drug and polymer and any other excipients

99.

Entry of molecules into the tissue is defined as _________.

a)

Penetration

b)

Percutaneous absorption

c)

Permeations

d)

Permeants

100.

Which of the following is a advantage of TDDS? Select all that apply

a)

Enables self-administration

b)

Painless route of administration

c)

Avoiding gastrointestinal degradation/irritation

d)

Bypassing the first-pass metabolism

e)

Development of local allergic reaction to treatment

101.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of TDDS?

a)

Enables self-administration

b)

Drugs half-life extension through the use of a reservoir

c)

Painless route of administration

d)

Possibility of an extended therapy with a single application

e)

Development of local allergic reaction to treatment

102.

Match the different formulation steps of reservoir-type TDDS with their respective order.

a)

Step 1: Delivery unit pre-construction

Step 2: Filling the drug reservoir

Step 3: Sealing

b)

Step 1: Filling the drug reservoir

Step 2: Delivery unit pre-construction

Step 3: Sealing

c)

Step 1: Filling the drug reservoir

Step 2:Sealing

Step 3: Delivery unit pre-construction

103.

Which of the following Q-C test determines how quickly an adhesive can from a bond with another surface?

a)

Release liner peel test

b)

Rolling ball tests

c)

Peel adhesion test

104.

Which of the following dosage form its administered at a constant rate?

a)

Transdermal patch

b)

Oral tablet

c)

Ointment

d)

Powder

105.

In Nicotrol as DIA system the polymer matrix controls the drug release rate.

a)

True

b)

False

106.

In Nicotrol DIA system the API is sandwiched between backing layer and liner.

a)

True

b)

False

107.

Which of the following TDDS yields a drug permeation profile characterized a steady state slope and lag time.

a)

Infinite dose formulations

b)

Finite dose formulations

108.

Porosity (Ɛ) is inversely related (but not inversely proportional) to the compressional forces

a)

True

b)

False

109.

The higher the compressional forces, the lower will be the matrix porosity (Ɛ)

a)

True

b)

False

110.

Shelf life of a drug is usually set at a time when 90% of the initial labeled amount is degraded at room temperature.

a)

True

b)

False

111.

Hydrolysis is a process in which chemicals interact with water molecules yielding reaction products.

a)

True

b)

False

112.

Which of the following equation represents 10% of API degrade by this time?

a)

Q10=k(T+10)/kt

b)

AT= 0.9A0

c)

T90= 0.1A0/k0

d)

K=Ae(-Ea/RT)

113.

Which of the following excipients that may be critical in terms of drug product stability? Select all that apply

a)

Buffer

b)

Preservatives (antioxidants)

c)

Acids

d)

Bulking agents

114.

Which of the following equation represent Arrhenius equation?

a)

T1/2= 0.693/K

b)

Log Kapp = logA – Ea/2.303RT

c)

Q10 = K(T+10)/KT

115.

Which of the following equation represents 90% of API remains unchanged?

a)

Q10=k(T+10)/kt

b)

AT= 0.9A0

c)

T90= 0.1A0/k0

d)

K=Ae(-Ea/RT)

116.

Activation energy (Ea) is an important factor determining the speed of a reaction or degradation of a drug. If the Ea required for the molecules to become activated is low, the degradation rate is low.

a)

True

b)

False

117.

Activation energy (Ea) is an important factor determining the speed of a reaction or degradation of a drug. If the Ea required for the molecules to become activated is HIGH, the degradation rate is low.

a)

True

b)

False

118.

Which of the following constitute the major advantages of administering a drug via modified release dosage form? Select all that apply

a)

Improved patient compliance

b)

Better bioavailability

c)

Increase frequency of administration

d)

Reduced frequency of administration

119.

Which of the following are considered as modified release dosage form? Select all that apply

a)

Porous matrix type tablet

b)

Liquid with ion exchange resin

c)

Sugar coated tablet

120.

Non-disintegrating matrix type modified release tablets are prepared by compressing the therapeutics agent, excipient, and polymers. In general, the higher the compressional forces employed to prepare the greater is the porosity and tortuosity of the matrix.

a)

True

b)

False

121.

Which of the following is true about the various types of coated tablets?

a)

Most of the available coated tablets are enteric coated

b)

Most of the available coated tablets are film coated

c)

Most of the available coated tablets are sugar coated

122.

Which of the following is/are reasons to develop a drug formulation in a modified release dosage form?

a)

Creating a pharmaceutical alternative

b)

Altering the pharmacological activity pf a drug

c)

Altering the duration of action of a drug

d)

Developing a less expensive dosage form

123.

Which of the following may be use as excipients to control the drug release from various modified release dosage forms? Select all that apply

a)

Starch

b)

Eudragit R ion exchange resins

c)

Methylcellulose

d)

Carnauba wax

124.

Which of the following according to Higuchi equation will influence the drug release from modified release dosage forms? Select all that apply

a)

Specific surface

b)

Hydrophobicity

c)

Porosity

d)

Amount of drug present per unit area

e)

True density

125.

Which of the following therapeutic agent is available in a modified release dosage form described as OROS?

a)

Glipizide

b)

Procainamide

c)

Potassium chloride

d)

Methylphenidate

126.

Which of the following biodegradable polymers are frequently used in various types of modified release dosage forms? Select all that apply

a)

Ethyl Cellulose

b)

Glycolic/lactic acid copolymersv

c)

Poly-DL lactic acid

d)

Polyglycolic acid

127.

The higher the compressional forces, the higher is the matrix tortuosity

a)

True

b)

False

128.

Which of the following physical chemical property is utilized in developing G.I.T.S. type modified release dosage form?

a)

Diffusion

b)

Dissolution

c)

Osmotic pressure

d)

Solution pH

129.

Which of the following polymers are frequently used in various types of modified release dosage forms?

a)

Sodium Lauryl sulfate

b)

Eudragit S

c)

Eudragit R

d)

Ethyl cellulose

e)

Methyl cellulose

130.

Which of the following excipient is likely to present in a coating solution of a certain type of modified release dosage form?

a)

Coloring agent

b)

Antioxidant

c)

Fixing agent

d)

Preservative

131.

Modified dosage form has a longer duration of action.

a)

True

b)

False

132.

Which of the following will contribute to slower drug release from a non-disintegrating matrix type modified release dosage form?

a)

High tortuosity

b)

Low tortuosity

c)

High true density of a drug

d)

High equilibrium solubility of a drug

e)

High porosity

133.

Which of the following therapeutic agent is available as a coated bead type modified release dosage form?

a)

Potassium chloride

b)

Aspirin

c)

Nifedipine

d)

Acetaminophen

134.

Which of the following is/are true about the property tortuosity? Select all that apply

a)

Its lowest value is one

b)

It is inversely proportional to the compressional force

c)

It influences drug release from a certain type of modified release dosage form

135.

Which of the following is the unit for the rate constant associated with the slow first order release of a drug from a modified release dosage form?

a)

hr1/2

b)

mg/hr

c)

hr.mg-1

d)

mg.ml-1hr-1

e)

hr-1

136.

Which of the following equation can be used to describe a drug release from a cylindrical non disintegrating matrix type modified release dosage form with all surface exposed to the dissolution fluid?

a)

Zero order equation

b)

Higuchi square root equation

c)

First order equation

d)

Cubic equation

137.

Which of the following is true about the enteric-coated tablets?

a)

The coating will dissolve only above pH of 10.0

b)

The coating will dissolve only at pH of 4.0

c)

The coating will dissolve only in alkaline condition

d)

The coating will dissolve only in acidic condition

138.

Which of the following apply to porosity and tortuosity; two parameters that apply an important role in influencing the drug release from a certain type of a modified release dosage form.

a)

Each parameter influences the drug release from a non-disintegrating matrix type modified release dosage form.

b)

Each parameter is directly proportional to the compressional forces.

c)

Each parameter influences the drug release from coated bead type modified release form.

d)

The lowest value for each parameter is zero.

139.

Which of the following unit applies to a rate constant when the drug release data, from a modified release dosage form, is fitted to the zero order process?

a)

Hr1/2

b)

Mg.hr-1

c)

Hr-1

d)

Mg.hr

140.

Which of the following properties will influence the drug release from a modified release dosage form? Select all that apply

a)

Equilibrium solubility

b)

Diffusion coefficient

c)

Angle of repose

d)

Contact angle

141.

Which of the following will control the drug release from beads as a modified release dosage form?

a)

Thickness of the coating layer

b)

Thickness of the drug layer

c)

Concentration of a fixing agent

d)

Concentration of a drug

142.

Which of the following therapeutic agent is available as an enteric coated type modified release dosage form?

a)

Aspirin

b)

Nifedipine

c)

Potassium Chloride

d)

Acetaminophen

143.

Which of the following commercial product belong to the class of modified release dosage form that uses coated beads?

a)

K-dur

b)

Nexium

c)

Klor-con

d)

Ambien

144.

Which of the following equations may be commonly employed to describe drug release from modified release dosage forms? Select all that apply

a)

Noyes-Whitney equation

b)

Yang’s equation

c)

Fick’s equation

d)

First order equation

e)

Higuchi equation

145.

Which of the following property of a therapeutics agent makes it a poor candidate for modified release dosage form? Select all that apply

a)

Rapid drug absorption

b)

Long elimination half life

c)

Broad therapeutic range

d)

Short elimination half-life

146.

Which of the following formulation factor play important role in influencing the release of drug? Select all that apply

a)

Higher drug

b)

Surface area

c)

Tortuosity

d)

Porosity

147.

Which of the following factors will influence the drug release from a coated slow-release bead type modified release dosage form? Select all that apply.

a)

Thickness of the coat

b)

Permeability of the polymer

c)

Osmotic pressure of the dissolution fluid

d)

True density of a drug

e)

Solubility of a drug inside the bed

148.

Which of the following inactive ingredient is added to the drug solution prior to its application on to the core spherical beads in a certain type of modified release dosage form?

a)

Fixing agent

b)

Diluent

c)

Preservative

d)

Coloring agent

149.

There are some striking differences between zero and first order processes; unit for the rate constant and the integrated equation are two of them.

a)

True

b)

False

150.

Which of the following is formulated as slow release beads? (Select all that apply)

a)

Nexium

b)

Adalat CC

c)

MicroK

d)

K-Dur

151.

Which of the following commercial product represents an example of a non-disintegrating matrix type modified release dosage form?

a)

Micro KR 10 meq

b)

Klorn-conR 10 meq

c)

K-DurR 20 meq

d)

Adalat CCR

e)

Glucotrol XLR

152.

Which of the following is considered as an advantage of a modified or controlled release dosage form? Select all that apply

a)

Increased drug accumulation

b)

Longer duration of action

c)

Increased frequency of drug administration

d)

Reduced local irritation of all drugs

153.

Which of the following unit applies to a rate constant when the drug release data, from a modified release form, is fitted to the square root or cubic equation?

a)

mg.hr-1

b)

hr1/2

c)

hr-1

d)

hr-1/2

154.

Which of the following fats and waxes are frequently used in various types of modified release dosage forms?

a)

Peg 800

b)

Eudragit E

c)

Eudragit L

d)

Hydrogenated castor oil

e)

White wax

155.

Which of the following commercially available product uses the coated bead technique to control the release of the drug?

a)

Welbutrin XL

b)

K-Dur

c)

Slow-K

d)

Ambien CR

e)

Micro K

156.

Which of the following therapeutic agent is/are available in modified release forms?

a)

Potassium chloride

b)

Lorazepam

c)

Amoxicillin

d)

Lisinopril HCL

157.

Which of the following routes of administration can be used to administer a drug via modified release dosage form? Select all that apply

a)

Oral

b)

Ocular

c)

Oral and topical only

d)

Topical

158.

Which of the following commercial product belong to the G.I.T.S. type modified release dosage form?

a)

Glucotrol XL

b)

Cardizem SR

c)

Micro-K

d)

Wellbutrin SR

159.

Which of the following products use the principle of osmotic pressure difference in controlling the drug release (Select all that apply).

a)

Ambien CR

b)

Concerta

c)

Theo−DurR

d)

Ditropan XLR

e)

LipitorR

160.

Tortuosity is one of the factors that influence the release of a drug from a non-disintegrating matrix type modified release dosage form. In general, the greater the tortuosity, the faster is the drug release from the dosage form.

a)

True

b)

False

161.

Which of the following will influence the drug release from the porous non-disintegrating matrix release dosage form?

a)

Thickness of the coating material

b)

Equilibrium solubility of the matrix

c)

Tortuosity of the matrix

d)

True density of the powder

162.

Which of the following products, though they contain an identical amount of an identical therapeutic agent, are not interchangeable? Select all that apply

a)

Diltiazem

b)

Zantac

c)

K-dur

d)

Klor-con

163.

Which of the following property of a drug is considered ideal for its development into a modified release dosage form? Select all that apply

a)

High aqueous solubility

b)

Long elimination half-life

c)

Short elimination half-life

d)

High dose

164.

Which of the following parameters are dimensionless? Select all that apply

a)

Porosity

b)

Tortuosity

c)

Specific surface

d)

Surface area

e)

Partition Coefficient

165.

Which of the following according to the Higuchi equation will yield a straight line with a positive slope?

a)

Amount of drugs remaining to be release against square root of time (RL paper)

b)

Cumulative amount of drug release against square root of time (SL paper)

c)

Cumulative amount of drug release against square of time (SL paper)

d)

Cumulative amount of drug release against time (RL paper)

e)

Cumulative amount of drug release against square root of time (RL paper)

166.

Which of the following commercially available product(s) are prepared by employing the principle of osmotic pressure difference between the solution inside and outside the dosage form? Select all that apply

a)

Omeprazole

b)

Wellbutrin^R XL

c)

Concerta^R

167.

All tablets must pass for disintegration except Chewable tablets and Extended/Modified release tablets?

a)

True

b)

False

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