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Leo CT lq

Total questions: 250

Worksheet time: 2hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

: What is the abbreviation of the International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea?

a)

A. MARPOL

b)

B. SOLAS

c)

C. STCW

d)

D. ISM

2.

What does the International Life-Saving Appliance (LSA) Code regulate?

a)

A. Safety of cargo on board

b)

B. International standards for life-saving equipment on board

c)

C. Rescue procedures at sea

d)

D. Ship structure and equipment

3.

What is the primary purpose of visible signaling devices on a ship?

a)

A. Help the ship move faster

b)

B. Support onboard recreational activities

c)

C. Signal and indicate location when the ship encounters an emergency or accident

d)

D. Reduce fuel consumption

4.

Where are the instruction manuals and training equipment on board located?

a)

A. Engine room

b)

B. Each crew member's cabin or the dining/recreation room

c)

C. Bridge

d)

D. Only placed in the captain’s room

5.

What does the Muster List contain?

a)

A. Crew list

b)

B. Individual duties in case of an alarm

c)

C. Ship’s itinerary

d)

D. Life-saving equipment standards

6.

: When should crew members and passengers abandon the ship

a)

A. When the ship begins to slightly tilt

b)

B. When the captain gives the abandon ship order and no other option to save the ship

remains

c)

C. As soon as an incident is detected

d)

D. At any time if feeling unsafe

7.

What is the function of an immersion suit?

a)

A. Helps the wearer retain body heat in cold water

b)

B. Helps the wearer swim faster

c)

C. Fire-resistant

d)

D. Protects against impact

8.

: Who commonly uses an anti-exposure suit?

a)

A.                Crew members on rescue boats

b)

B.                 Passengers on cruise ships

c)

C.                 Port authority staff

d)

D.                Fishermen

9.

: What is the function of a maritime evacuation system?

a)

A.  Quickly moves people from the survival deck to life-saving craft

b)

B.  Helps ships avoid collisions

c)

C.  Locates the ship in an emergency

d)

D.  Forecasts maritime weather

10.

How does an inflatable appliance function?

a)

A.  Automatically inflates when activated

b)

B.  Always remains inflated

c)

C.  Uses an engine to maintain balance

d)

Can only be inflated manually

11.

: What is the function of a rescue boat?

a)

A.  Used to save people in distress and tow life-saving craft

b)

B.  Serves as a means of marine transportation

c)

C.  Used for cargo transportation

d)

Used for recreational purposes

12.

When should the ship be abandoned?

a)

A.  When the ship tilts 5 degrees

b)

B.  When all efforts to save the ship have failed

c)

C.  When passengers request evacuation

d)

D.  When fuel runs out

13.

What is the function of retro-reflective material?

a)

A.  Reflects light for easy detection

b)

B.  Helps retain body heat

c)

C.  Water-resistant

d)

D.  Fire-resistant

14.

What is the certified free-fall drop height?

a)

A.  The maximum height from which a lifeboat can safely drop

b)

The height of the ship above the water

c)

The distance from the ship to shore

d)

The depth of the ship below water

15.

Where is the Muster List usually placed?

a)

A.  Main corridor, bridge, engine control room

b)

B.  In the cargo hold

c)

C.  Only in the captain’s room

d)

D.  Under the ship’s deck

16.

What is the recovery time of a rescue boat?

a)

A.  The time required to lift the boat to a position where people can transfer onto the ship’s deck

b)

B.  The duration a boat can stay on water

c)

C.  The duration a rescue boat can withstand wave pressure

d)

D.  The time a boat can operate before requiring maintenance

17.

: What is the function of a life-saving appliance?

a)

A.  Maintains the survival of people in distress after leaving the ship

b)

    Assists in cargo transportation

c)

  Serves as a resting area on the sea

d)

Helps stabilize the ship

18.

What are the characteristics of a novel life-saving appliance?

a)

A.  Higher or equivalent safety standards compared to older equipment

b)

B.  Lighter than traditional equipment

c)

C.  More expensive but less effective

d)

D.  Only used on military ships

19.

: What is a rescue boat designed for?

a)

A.  To rescue people in distress and tow life-saving appliances

b)

B.  To maintain the ship’s speed in case of an incident

c)

C.  To inspect the ship’s hull

d)

D.  To transport cargo

20.

Where is the theoretical freeboard height measured from?

a)

A.  From the upper edge of the main keel to the upper edge of the dry deck beam

b)

B.  From the bottom edge of the ship to the water surface

c)

C.  From the top of the ship to the water surface

d)

D.  From the side of the ship to the bottom of the ship

21.

What is a Ro-Ro passenger ship?

a)

A.  A passenger ship with a Ro-Ro cargo hold or a designated cargo compartment

b)

B.  A cargo ship with a passenger hold

c)

C.  A cruise ship

d)

D.  A fishing vessel

22.

Which type of vessel is required to have life-saving radio equipment?

a)

A.  Only passenger ships

b)

B.  Only cargo ships of 500 GT or more

c)

C.  All passenger ships and cargo ships of 300 GT or more

d)

D.  Only cargo ships from 300 GT to 500 GT

23.

How many two-way VHF radio telephones must be equipped on a cargo ship with a gross tonnage between 300 GT and below 500 GT?

a)

A.  1

b)

B.  2

c)

C.  3

d)

D.  4

24.

: Until when can two-way VHF radio telephones installed on ships before 1/2/1992, be used if permitted by the Maritime Authority?

a)

A. 1/2/1995

b)

B. 1/2/1997

c)

C. 1/2/1999

d)

D. 1/2/2000

25.

What is the minimum number of search and rescue locating devices required on passenger ships and cargo ships with a gross tonnage of 500 GT or more?

a)

A. 1

b)

B. 2

c)

C. 3

d)

D. 4

26.

What is the minimum number of search and rescue locating devices required on cargo ships with a gross tonnage between 300 GT and below 500 GT?

a)

A. 1

b)

B. 2

c)

C. 3

d)

D. 4

27.

: How should search and rescue locating devices be arranged?

a)

A.  Only placed on the ship's deck

b)

B.  Fixed onto the ship

c)

C.  Can be quickly transferred to life-saving appliances

d)

Only equipped in the navigation bridge

28.

: If a ship has at least two search and rescue locating devices, where must one device be placed?

a)

A.  In the free-fall lifeboat

b)

B.  In the navigation bridge

c)

C.  On the ship's deck

d)

D.  In the engine room

29.

: What is the minimum number of parachute flares that must be equipped on a ship?

a)

A. 6

b)

B. 8

c)

C. 10

d)

D. 12

30.

What does the ship’s emergency communication system include?

a)

A.  Fixed equipment

b)

B.  Portable equipment

c)

C.  Both fixed and portable equipment

d)

D.  Only the public address system

31.

What is the purpose of the general emergency alarm system?

a)

A.  Summon passengers and crew to muster stations

b)

Broadcast entertainment information on board

c)

Record ship operation data

d)

Control the GPS navigation system

32.

: What happens to the onboard entertainment sound system when the general emergency alarm system is activated?

a)

A.  Continues operating normally

b)

B.  Automatically shuts off

c)

C.  Reduces volume to the lowest level

d)

D.  Automatically switches to silent mode

33.

What requirement must the general emergency alarm system on passenger ships meet?

a)

A.  Only audible in the navigation bridge

b)

B.  Clearly audible on all open decks

c)

C.  Only audible in crew living areas

d)

D.  Only operational upon captain’s command

34.

: On ships equipped with a maritime evacuation system, communication must be ensured between which locations?

a)

A.  Boarding station and evacuation deck

b)

B.  Navigation bridge and cargo hold

c)

C.  Control station and engine room

d)

D.  Rescue boat and kitchen

35.

: What characteristic must the public address system on passenger ships have?

a)

A.  Can be completely turned off when necessary

b)

B.  Clearly audible despite environmental noise

c)

C.  Only required to transmit signals during emergencies

d)

D.  Operates only when powered by the main engine

36.

What special function must the public address system have?

a)

A.  Blocks all signals from the alarm system

b)

B.  Overrides to broadcast emergency information even if speakers are off or muted

c)

C.  Operates only when the ship is docked

d)

D.  Operates only in case of a critical emergency

37.

How many minimum branch circuits must the public address system have on passenger ships built after July 1, 1997?

a)

A. 1

b)

B. 2

c)

C. 3

d)

D. 4

38.

How many amplifiers are required for the public address system on passenger ships?

a)

A. 1

b)

B. 2

c)

C. 3

d)

D. 4

39.

: What power source must the public address system be connected to?

a)

A.  The ship's main power supply

b)

B.  Emergency power supply

c)

Backup battery

d)

Portable charger

40.

: Is replacement required for the public address system on passenger ships built before July 1, 1997?

a)

A.  Yes, mandatory replacement

b)

B.  No, if approved by the Maritime Authority

c)

C.  Partial replacement required

d)

D.  Only periodic inspection required

41.

What equipment does the International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea (SOLAS), 1974 regulate?

a)

A.  Only two-way radio telephones

b)

B.  Only alarm systems

c)

C.  All safety and communication equipment on board

d)

D.  Only the public address system

42.

: How must lifebuoys be arranged on a ship?

a)

A.  On both ship sides and all open decks extending to the ship’s sides

b)

B.  Only at the stern

c)

C.  Only in the bridge

d)

Only on the main deck

43.

What is the minimum length of the floating lifeline attached to lifebuoys?

a)

A.  15 meters

b)

B.  20 meters

c)

C.  30 meters or twice the height from the storage position to the water surface

d)

D.  50 meters

44.

At least half of the total lifebuoys on board must be equipped with what?

a)

A.  Lifelines

b)

B. Self-illuminating lights

c)

C. Sound signal transmitters

d)

D. Cutting tools

45.

: What is the minimum number of lifebuoys on a ship that must be equipped with both self-illuminating lights and self-activating smoke signals?

a)

A. 1

b)

B. 2

c)

C. 3

d)

D. 4

46.

: What is the minimum number of infant life jackets required on passenger ships operating for less than 24 hours?

a)

A. 1% of the total number of passengers

b)

B. 2.5% of the total number of passengers

c)

C. 5% of the total number of passengers

d)

D. 10% of the total number of passengers

47.

: What is the minimum percentage of life jackets suitable for children that must be equipped on a ship?


a)

A. 5%

b)

B. 10%

c)

15%

d)

D. 20%

48.

: How should life jackets be arranged on a ship?

a)

A.  Stored in the cargo hold

b)

B.  Fixed in the bridge

c)

C.  Always easily accessible with clear storage instructions

d)

D.  Only placed in lifeboats

49.

In the case of passengers weighing over 140 kg and having a chest circumference of up to 1750 mm, what should be provided?

a)

A.  No additional equipment needed

b)

B.  Special life jackets suitable for them

c)

C.  Only additional safety harnesses required

d)

D.  Reduce the number of standard life jackets

50.

Who must be equipped with immersion suits and anti-exposure suits?

a)

A.  All passengers on the ship

b)

B.  Only the captain

c)

C.  Crew members of rescue boats and maritime evacuation system personnel

d)

D.  Service staff on the ship

51.

When operating in warm climates, is it mandatory to equip anti-exposure suits?

a)

A.  Yes, always mandatory

b)

B.  No, if the Maritime Authority determines that thermal protection is unnecessary

c)

C.  Only required on passenger ships

d)

D.  Only mandatory if there are children on board

52.

: What type of ship must comply with muster list regulations?

a)

A.  Only cargo ships over 500 GT

b)

B.  Only passenger ships

c)

C.  Only cargo ships over 300 GT

d)

D.  All ships

53.

: In passenger ships, in which language must muster list instructions be written?

a)

A.  Only in English

b)

B.  The ship’s national language and English

c)

C.  English and Chinese

d)

D.  Only in the official language of the flag state

54.

Where must muster lists and emergency instructions be posted on a ship?

a)

A.  Only in the bridge and engine room

 

b)

B. Only in crew living quarters

c)

C.  In visible locations throughout the ship, including the bridge, engine room, and crew living quarters

d)

D.  Only in passenger areas

55.

What must illustrations and instructions in passenger cabins include?

a)

A.  Ship diagram

b)

B.  Muster stations, actions to take in emergencies, and life jacket wearing instructions

c)

C.  Menu and ship itinerary

d)

D.  Crew list

56.

Why must instructional signs be posted at muster stations and passenger areas?

a)

A.  To decorate and enhance the ship's appearance

b)

B.  To help passengers understand evacuation procedures in case of emergencies

c)

C.  To improve ship security

d)

To meet technical inspection requirements

57.

What type of ships must comply with usage instruction regulations?

a)

A.  Only cargo ships over 500 GT

b)

B.  Only passenger ships

c)

C.  Only cargo ships over 300 GT

d)

D.  All ships

58.

: What characteristics must instructional signs or symbols on ships have?

a)

A.  Illustrate the function of control equipment

b)

B.  Be clearly visible under emergency lighting conditions

c)

C.  Use symbols in accordance with organizational recommendations

d)

D.  All of the above

59.

Which of the following is a correct requirement for life-saving crew assignment?

a)

A.  Sufficient trained personnel to assist untrained individuals

b)

B.  Only certified crew members needed to operate life-saving appliances

c)

C.  Only deck officers responsible for life-saving appliances

d)

D.  No need for a designated life-saving crew list

60.

Who is responsible for ensuring the proper distribution of trained personnel and life-saving appliance operators?

a)

A.  Deck officer

b)

B.  Captain

c)

C.  Maritime Authority

d)

D.  Lifeboat operator

61.

Who is responsible for ensuring the proper distribution of trained personnel and life-saving appliance operators?

a)

A.  Deck officer

b)

B.  Captain

c)

C.  Maritime Authority

d)

D.  Lifeboat operator

62.

What is the responsibility of the life-saving appliance operator?

a)

A.  Ensure crew members under their command are familiar with their duties

b)

B.  Perform major repairs on life-saving appliances

c)

C.  Check fuel levels for life-saving appliances

d)

D.  Command the entire ship during emergencies

63.

Who must be in charge of a motorized life-saving appliance?

a)

A.  A deck officer

b)

B.  An engineer capable of operating and performing minor repairs

c)

C.  The ship’s chief engineer

d)

D.  No designated operator required

64.

What conditions must muster stations meet?

a)

A.  Provide sufficient space for all assembled individuals

b)

B.  At least 0.35 m² per person

c)

C.  Be located near embarkation stations for life-saving appliances

d)

D.  All of the above

65.

What characteristics must corridors and stairways leading to muster stations have?

a)

A.  Illuminated by emergency power source

b)

Equipped with protective railings

c)

Only need lighting at night

d)

Painted red for easy identification

66.

What conditions must muster stations and embarkation areas meet?

a)

A.  Must have sufficient lighting from an emergency power source

b)

B.  Only need lighting when the ship encounters an emergency

c)

C.  No lighting required if natural light is available

d)

D.  Can be replaced with glow-in-the-dark instructions

67.

What should be the length of ladders leading to life-saving appliances?

a)

A.  From the deck to the waterline when the ship is in its lightest loaded condition

b)

B.  From the deck to the ship’s bottom

c)

C.  From the deck to the ship’s edge

d)

D.  Fixed length of 5 meters

68.

How must launching stations be arranged to meet operational safety requirements?

a)

A.  Ensure safe deployment of life-saving appliances

r

b)

B.  Close to the ship’s engine area

c)

C.  Positioned anywhere on the ship

d)

D.  Behind the ship’s propelle

69.

What is the special method of launching life-saving appliances?

a)

A.  Using lifting cranes

b)

B.  Free fall

c)

C.  Pulled by ropes

d)

D.  Manual lowering

70.

If life-saving appliances are positioned at the front of the ship, where must they be placed?

a)

A.  On the ship’s deck

b)

B.  Behind the collision bulkhead

c)

C.  Next to the engine

d)

D.  At the top of the mast

71.

How must life-saving appliances be stored to avoid interference?

a)

A.  Must not obstruct the operation of other life-saving appliances

b)

B.  Must not interfere with the ship’s engines

c)

C.  Must not obstruct cargo storage areas

d)

D.  Must not disrupt crew resting areas

72.

: How far above the water must life-saving appliances, excluding life rafts, be positioned when the ship is fully loaded?

a)

A.  At least 5 meters

b)

B.  Not less than 2 meters

c)

C.  Not less than 3 meters

d)

D.  At least 4 meters

73.

Each life-saving appliance must be fully equipped according to the requirements of:

a)

A.  SOLAS 1974 Convention

b)

B.  The ship's internal regulations

c)

C.  The life-saving equipment manufacturer

d)

A.  The ship's insurance contract

74.

Where should life-saving appliances not be placed on an oil tanker?

a)

A.  On explosive cargo tanks

b)

B.  On the superstructure deck

c)

C.  In the captain’s cabin

d)

D.  Near emergency stairways

75.

What is the minimum distance from the stern of a lifeboat to the ship’s propeller on cargo ships of 120m or longer?

a)

A.  One lifeboat length

b)

B.  1.5 times the lifeboat length

c)

C.  Two times the lifeboat length

d)

D.  No specific regulations

76.

: In what condition must lifeboats always be stored?

a)

A.  Detached from the launching system

b)

B.  Always attached to the launching system

c)

C.  Folded to save space

d)

D.  Stored in the cargo hold

77.

How must life rafts be stored to allow for deployment?

a)

A.  Free-fall release

b)

B.  Fixed securely in place

c)

C.  Stored under the deck

d)

D.  Attached to the mast

78.

The launching system for life-saving appliances must be operational at a ship tilt of how many degrees?

A.  5 degrees

B.  10 degrees

C.  15 degrees

D.  20 degrees

a)

A.  5 degrees

b)

B.  10 degrees

c)

C.  15 degrees

d)

D.  20 degrees

79.

What equipment must each lifeboat have to ensure safety during launching?

a)

A.  Launching and recovery system

b)

B.  Special mooring rope

c)

C.  Large cranes

d)

D.  Backup generator

80.

: What must be ensured during the launching of life-saving appliances?

a)

A.  The launching equipment must be fully illuminated

b)

B.  The ship must be completely stationary

c)

C.  All crew members must abandon the ship

d)

D.  All electrical equipment on the ship must be turned off

81.

: If there is a risk of excessive rolling damaging life-saving appliances, what equipment must be available on the ship?

a)

A.  Anti-roll stabilizers

b)

B.  Emergency towing lines

c)

C.  Support cranes

d)

D.  Protective air cushions

82.

What is the maximum recovery time for a rescue boat under normal sea conditions?

a)

A.  3 minutes

b)

B.  5 minutes

c)

C.  7 minutes

d)

D.  10 minutes

83.

: At what maximum speed (knots) must a rescue boat be capable of launching while the ship is moving?

a)

A.  2 knots

b)

B.  3 knots

c)

C.  5 knots

d)

D.  7 knots

84.

: Which part of the ship must be illuminated when launching life-saving appliances at night?

a)

A.  The launching station and the water area where the appliance is lowered

b)

B.  The main mast

c)

C.  The ship’s kitchen

d)

D.  The engine room

85.

: Why must maritime evacuation systems be protected from protruding ship structures?

a)

A.  To prevent damage during deployment

b)

B.  To save space on the ship’s deck

c)

C.  To reduce the ship’s weight

d)

D.  To make storage easier

86.

: What must a plan for rescuing people from the water ensure?

a)

A.  Minimizing risk for crew members involved in rescue operations

b)

B.  Increasing the ship’s response time

c)

C.  Ensuring the ship moves faster

d)

D.  Keeping the ship stationary during rescue

87.

: Which convention must line-throwing appliances comply with?

a)

A.  SOLAS 1974

b)

B.  International Maritime Law

c)

C.  Marine Insurance Regulations

d)

D.  Aviation Safety Code

88.

: According to SOLAS 1975, before a ship departs, all crew members assigned emergency duties must be instructed on their responsibilities and:

a)

A.  Only participate in training if an emergency occurs

b)

B.  Familiarize themselves with life-saving equipment and emergency procedures on board

c)

C.  Conduct a drill one month after the ship starts its voyage

d)

D.  Only read the instruction manual

89.

: When must passenger assembly be conducted on ships with voyages longer than 24 hours?

a)

A.  As soon as the ship leaves port

b)

B.  Within 24 hours after passengers board

c)

C.  Immediately when passengers board

d)

D.  Before the ship arrives at the destination port

90.

: Passenger safety announcements must be made through:

a)

A.  The ship’s public address system or an equivalent method

b)

Only a video displayed on onboard screens

c)

.  Providing written instructions to passengers

d)

Signboards throughout the ship

91.

How frequently must each crew member participate in abandon ship and fire drills?

a)

A.  Once a month

b)

B.  Once every three months

c)

C.  Once every six months

d)

D.  Once every twelve months

92.

: When more than 25% of the crew is new to the ship, within how long must a drill be conducted after departure?

a)

A.  12 hours

b)

B.  24 hours

c)

C.  48 hours

d)

D.  72 hours

93.

: During each abandon ship drill, what must passengers and crew do before leaving the ship?

a)

A.  Wear appropriate clothing and correctly don life jackets

b)

B.  Stand still and wait for orders

c)

C.  Independently find the nearest life-saving appliance

d)

D.  Only listen to announcements

94.

: What is the minimum frequency for lowering and maneuvering lifeboats on the water?

a)

A.  Once per month

b)

B.  Once every three months

c)

C.  Once every six months

d)

D.  Once per year

95.

In the case of free-fall lifeboat deployment, crew members must:

a)

A.  Perform an actual free-fall launch during each drill

b)

B.  Only sit in position and correctly fasten seat belts during certain drills

c)

C.  No drills required if previously trained

d)

D.  Only practice on land

96.

: Emergency lighting during abandon ship drills must:

a)

A.  Only be checked when an actual emergency occurs

b)

B.  Not require checking

c)

C.  Be tested in every abandon ship drill

d)

Be checked once per year

97.

: How soon must training in the use of life-saving equipment be conducted after a new crew member boards?

a)

A.  24 hours

b)

A.  48 hours

c)

B.  Two weeks

d)

C.  One month

98.

: What is the maximum interval for training in launching life rafts?

a)

A.  Once every two months

b)

B.  Once every four months

c)

C.  Once every six months

d)

D.  Once every twelve months

99.

: When must records of drills and training be documented?

a)

A.  Daily

b)

B.  Only upon request from superiors

c)

C.  Only when an emergency occurs

d)

D.  After each drill or training session

100.

: When must life-saving appliances be in operational readiness?

a)

A.  Before departure and at all times during the voyage

b)

B.  Only before departure

c)

C.  Only when the ship enters hazardous areas

d)

D.  Upon notification from the captain

101.

How often must lifeboat lowering cables be replaced at a minimum?

a)

A.  2 years

b)

B.  3 years

c)

C.  5 years

d)

D.  10 years

102.

: Life-saving equipment must be inspected weekly to ensure:

a)

A.  Always ready for operation

b)

B.  Only inspected when a technical fault occurs

c)

C.  Checked upon passenger request

d)

D.  Only inspected every six months

103.

Monthly inspections of life-saving appliances must be conducted by:

a)

A.  Direct observation without a checklist

b)

B.  Based on a checklist and recorded in a logbook

c)

C.  Only upon request from authorities

d)

D.  Passengers conducting self-inspections

104.

: Inflatable life rafts must undergo periodic maintenance at least once every:

a)

A.  6 months

b)

B.  12 months

c)

C.  24 months

d)

D.  36 months

105.

: How often must a maritime evacuation system be deployed at a minimum?

a)

A.  Every 2 years

b)

B.  Every 3 years

c)

C.  Every 4 years

d)

D.  Every 6 years

106.

: Maintenance of lifeboat lowering equipment must include:

a)

A.  Periodic maintenance and an annual full inspection

b)

B.  Only inspected when an issue occurs

c)

A.  Conducted at the captain’s discretion

d)

B.  Only visual inspections required

107.

: Passenger ships on international routes (not short international voyages) must be equipped with lifeboats capable of carrying at least what percentage of the total number of people onboard?

a)

A.  30%

b)

B.  37.5%

c)

C.  50%

d)

D.  25%

108.

Which life-saving appliance may the Maritime Authority permit as a substitute for lifeboats?

a)

A.  Lifebuoys

b)

B.  Life rafts

c)

C.  Rescue boats

d)

D.  Thermal protection devices

109.

Passenger ships on short international voyages must have lifeboat capacity for at least what percentage of the total number of people onboard?

a)

A.  50%

b)

B.  30%

c)

C.  37.5%

d)

D.  25%

110.

All life-saving appliances must be capable of being lowered into the water with a full complement of people within how long after the abandon ship order is given?

a)

A.  15 minutes

b)

B.  20 minutes

c)

C.  25 minutes

d)

D.  30 minutes

111.

: For passenger ships with a gross tonnage of less than 500 and a total number of persons onboard fewer than 200, what is the required life-saving arrangement?

a)

A.  Only equipped with lifeboats

b)

B.  Only equipped with life rafts

c)

C.  Equipped with life rafts sufficient to carry all persons onboard

d)

No life-saving appliances required

112.

: How many rescue boats are required on passenger ships with a gross tonnage of 500 or more?

a)

A.  1 boat per side

b)

B.  2 boats per side

c)

C.  3 boats per side

d)

D.  4 boats per side

113.

On passenger ships, each lifeboat or rescue boat must not tow more than how many life rafts?

a)

A. 5 rafts

b)

B. 6 rafts

c)

C. 7 rafts

d)

D. 8 rafts

114.

Passenger ships with a length between 120m and under 180m must be equipped with at least how many lifebuoys?

a)

A. 12

b)

18

c)

24

d)

30

115.

Each passenger ship must be equipped with additional life jackets for at least what percentage of the total number of people onboard?

a)

A. 3%

b)

B. 5%

c)

C. 7%

d)

D. 10%

116.

What must each life jacket on passenger ships be equipped with?

a)

A. Rescue light

b)

B. Swimwear

c)

C. Thermal protection device

d)

D. Locator device

117.

What is the maximum davit head height above the water when the ship is in its lightest loaded condition?

a)

A. 10m

b)

B. 15m

c)

C. 20m

d)

D. 25m

118.

What is the minimum area required per passenger at muster stations on passenger ships?

a)

A. 0.25 m²

b)

B. 0.35 m²

c)

C. 0.45 m²

d)

D. 0.55 m²

119.

Passenger Ro-Ro ships built on or after July 1, 1998, must meet which requirements?

a)

A. Section b(iii, iv), c(i, ii, iii, iv, v)

b)

B. Section d(i, ii, iii)

c)

C. Section e(i, ii, iii)

d)

D. Section f(i, ii, iii)

120.

One of the rescue boats on a Ro-Ro passenger ship must be of which type?

a)

A. Lifeboat

b)

B. Fast rescue boat

c)

C. Rescue craft

d)

D. Covered lifeboat

121.

Each search and rescue locating device must be secured inside the life raft so that its antenna is how many meters above sea level when deployed?

a)

A. 0.5m

b)

B. 1m

c)

C. 1.5m

d)

D. 2m

122.

What must each life raft on Ro-Ro passenger ships be equipped with to ensure safety?

a)

A. Extended towing line

b)

B. Search and rescue locating device

c)

C. Illuminating light

d)

D. Swimwear

123.

If a Ro-Ro passenger ship built before July 1, 1997, cannot install a fast rescue boat, what is the reasonable alternative?

a)

A. Install a lifeboat

b)

B. Use additional life rafts

c)

C. Increase the number of lifebuoys

d)

D. Provide additional life jackets

124.

What type of life raft must be equipped on Ro-Ro passenger ships?

a)

A. Automatically self-righting raft

b)

B. Raft without a canopy

c)

C. Raft without a slide

d)

D. Raft with a rudder

125.

How many specially trained crew members must a fast rescue boat on a Ro-Ro passenger ship have at a minimum?

a)

A. 1 crew member

b)

B. 2 crew members

c)

C. 3 crew members

d)

D. 4 crew members

126.

Under what conditions must life rafts on Ro-Ro passenger ships be safely usable?

a)

A. Only in calm waters

b)

B. When overturned

c)

C. In rough seas

d)

D. Only in warm weather

127.

How many covered lifeboats must cargo ships be equipped with?

a)

A. At least one

b)

B. Sufficient capacity for all persons onboard

c)

C. Only one per side of the ship

d)

D. No mandatory requirement

128.

If a life raft weighs more than 185 kg, which of the following requirements is correct?

a)

A. No additional life rafts needed

b)

B. The total capacity of life rafts on each side must be sufficient to carry all persons onboard

c)

C. Only required to accommodate 50% of persons onboard

d)

D. No special requirements

129.

Cargo ships shorter than how many meters may apply special regulations regarding life-saving equipment?

a)

A. 85m

b)

B. 100m

c)

C. 150m

d)

D. 200m

130.

Under what condition can a lifeboat on cargo ships be accepted as a rescue boat?

a)

A. The boat and its launch/recovery system meet the requirements for a rescue boat

b)

B. The boat can accommodate at least 10 people

c)

C. The boat has a special paint color

d)

D. The boat has a fully enclosed canopy

131.

Cargo ships may replace lifeboats with which of the following options?

a)

A. Lifebuoys

b)

B. Free-fall lifeboats

c)

C. Covered life rafts

d)

D. No alternative option

132.

What is the minimum number of lifebuoys required on cargo ships with a length between 150m and under 200m?

a)

A. 8

b)

B. 10

c)

C. 12

d)

D. 14

133.

What type of self-illuminating light must lifebuoys on oil tankers have?

a)

A. Battery-powered

b)

B. Solar-powered

c)

C. Reflective

d)

D. No specific regulation

134.

According to regulations, what must each person on a cargo ship be equipped with?

a)

A. A suitable swimming suit

b)

B. A lifebuoy

c)

C. A handheld signal light

d)

D. An oxygen tank

135.

: How must immersion suits be stored on cargo ships?

a)

A. Stored in the ship’s compartment

b)

B. Kept in the captain’s cabin

c)

C. Easily accessible with clear indicators

d)

D. No specific storage requirement

136.

Lifeboats on cargo ships with a gross tonnage of 20,000 or more must be capable of launching while the ship is moving at what speed?

a)

A. 2 knots

b)

B. 5 knots

c)

C. 10 knots

d)

D. 15 knots

137.

In which language must the onboard instruction manual be written?

a)

A. English

b)

B. The crew’s native language

c)

C. The working language of the ship

d)

D. Any language

138.

What must the ship’s muster list specify?

a)

A. Ship engine operation procedures

b)

B. The specific duties of each crew member in an emergency

c)

C. First aid instructions

d)

D. Cargo handling procedures

139.

Who must approve the muster list on passenger ships?

a)

A. The captain

b)

B. The Maritime Authority

c)

C. The crew council

d)

D. No approval required

140.

When must the muster list be revised?

a)

A. When the ship changes its route

b)

B. When there are crew changes affecting assigned duties

c)

C. Annually

d)

D. Upon passenger request

141.

What must be included in the onboard training manual?

a)

A. How to wear a life jacket

b)

B. How to operate life-saving appliance engines

c)

C. How to use helicopter rescue equipment

d)

D. All of the above

142.

What must cargo ships with maritime evacuation systems be equipped with?

a)

A. Additional lifebuoys

b)

B. Onboard training equipment for evacuation systems

c)

C. Free-fall lifeboats

d)

D. Automatic fire suppression systems

143.

How quickly must life-saving appliances be launched after the abandon ship order is given?

a)

A. 5 minutes

b)

B. 10 minutes

c)

C. 15 minutes

d)

D. 20 minutes

144.

What type of lifeboat must be equipped on chemical and gas carriers?

a)

A. Boat with its own air supply system

b)

B. Fire-resistant lifeboat

c)

C. Lifeboat without a canopy

d)

D. Inflatable lifeboat

145.

What function must life rafts on cargo ships have to automatically release when the ship sinks?

a)

A. Automatically opens when touching water

b)

B. Automatic release of securing lines

c)

C. Must be manually activated by crew members

d)

D. No specific requirement

146.

Who must receive the technical analysis for alternative life-saving equipment designs?

a)

A. Captain

b)

B. Maritime Authority

c)

C. Ship manufacturer

d)

D. Crew council

147.

What is the role of personal safety equipment on ships?

a)

A. Entertainment devices on board

b)

B. Helps ensure crew survival in case of ship emergencies

c)

C. Only used during maritime safety training

d)

D. Helps the ship move faster

148.

What must officers and crew do regarding personal safety equipment?

a)

A. Ignore them entirely

b)

B. Only use them when ordered by the captain

c)

C. Be proficient in their use and undergo regular training

d)

D. Only know their storage location

149.

What material must lifebuoys be made of?

a)

A. Lightweight metal

b)

B. Wood

c)

C. Highly buoyant, impact-resistant material

d)

D. Synthetic rubber

150.

What is the maximum outer diameter of a lifebuoy?

a)

A. 800mm

b)

B. 600mm

c)

C. 1000mm

d)

D. 400mm

151.

A lifebuoy must have sufficient buoyancy to keep how many kilograms of iron afloat in fresh water?

a)

A. 10kg

b)

B. 12.5kg

c)

C. 14.5kg

d)

D. 20kg

152.

What is the minimum required weight for a lifebuoy?

a)

A. 1kg

b)

B. 2.5kg

c)

C. 3.5kg

d)

D. 4kg

153.

What is the maximum height from which a lifebuoy must withstand a drop?

a)

A. 10m

b)

B. 20m

c)

C. 30m

d)

D. 40m

154.

What is the minimum operating duration for a self-illuminating lifebuoy light?

a)

A. 30 minutes

b)

B. 1 hour

c)

C. 2 hours

d)

D. 3 hours

155.

How long must the smoke signal from a lifebuoy last at a minimum?

a)

A. 5 minutes

b)

B. 10 minutes

c)

C. 15 minutes

d)

D. 20 minutes

156.

How long must a life jacket be able to withstand fire?

a)

A. 1 second

b)

B. 2 seconds

c)

C. 3 seconds

d)

D. 5 seconds

157.

What is the maximum height from which a person wearing a life jacket must be able to jump into the water?

a)

A. 2m

b)

B. 3m

c)


C. 4.5m

d)

D. 5m

158.

How quickly must a life jacket be able to turn an unconscious person into a safe position?

a)

A. 3 seconds

b)

B. 5 seconds

c)

C. 10 seconds

d)

D. 15 seconds

159.

How many centimeters must a life jacket lift an unconscious person’s mouth above the water surface?

a)

A. 5cm

b)

B. 10cm

c)

C. 12cm

d)

D. 15cm

160.

What is the function of an anti-exposure suit?

a)

A. Keeps the body warm when immersed in water

b)

B. Helps improve swimming speed

c)

C. Increases deep-diving capability

d)

D. Used for rain protection

161.

The maximum duration for wearing an anti-exposure suit is?

a)

A. 30 seconds

b)

B. 1 minute

c)

C. 2 minutes

d)

D. 5 minutes

162.

How long can an anti-exposure suit withstand direct flame exposure?

a)

A. 1 second

b)

B. 2 seconds

c)

C. 5 seconds

d)

D. 10 seconds

163.

What equipment can an anti-exposure suit replace?

a)

A. Lifeboat

b)

B. Life jacket

c)

C. Lifeline

d)

D. Smoke signal

164.

What is the minimum buoyancy provided by an anti-exposure suit?

a)

A. 50N

b)

B. 60N

c)

C. 70N

d)

D. 80N

165.

How long does an anti-exposure suit take to turn a face-down person to a face-up position in water?

a)

A. 3 seconds

b)

B. 5 seconds

c)

C. 7 seconds

d)

D. 10 seconds

166.

What is the function of an anti-exposure thermal protection device?

a)

A. Helps maintain body temperature when immersed in cold water

b)

B. Improves swimming speed

c)

C. Enhances high-temperature resistance

d)

D. Protects skin from sunlight

167.

What is the effective operating temperature range of an anti-exposure suit?

a)

A. -50ºC to 10ºC

b)

B. -30ºC to 20ºC

c)

C. -20ºC to 30ºC

d)

D. -10ºC to 40ºC

168.

What is the purpose of a parachute flare?

a)

A. Signal distress in emergency situations

b)

B. Accurately determine the ship's position on a map

c)

C. Mark maritime boundaries

d)

D. Warn of collisions with other ships

169.

What is the minimum altitude a parachute flare must reach when launched?

a)

A. 100m

b)

B. 200m

c)

C. 300m

d)

D. 500m

170.

What is the minimum average luminous intensity of a parachute flare?

a)

A. 10.000 cd

b)

B. 20.000 cd

c)

C. 30.000 cd

d)

D. 40.000 cd

171.

What is the minimum burning duration of a parachute flare (seconds)?

a)

A. 20 seconds

b)

B. 30 seconds

c)

C. 40 seconds

d)

D. 50 seconds

172.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a parachute flare?

a)

A. Burns bright red

b)

B. Burns continuously with an average luminous intensity of no less than 30,000 cd

c)

C. Falls at a rate greater than 10m/s

d)

D. Must have a complete ignition system

173.

What is the purpose of a handheld flare?

a)

A. Illuminating the ship in foggy conditions

b)

B. Signaling distress at a low altitude

c)

C. Lighting a fire for warmth in emergency situations

d)

D. Used as a warning firework

174.

What is the minimum average luminous intensity of a handheld flare?

a)

A. 10.000 cd

b)

B. 15.000 cd

c)

C. 20.000 cd

d)

D. 25.000 cd

175.

What is the minimum burning duration of a handheld flare?

a)

A. 30 seconds

b)

B. 45 seconds

c)

C. 1 minute

d)

D. 2 minutes

176.

What is the purpose of a floating smoke signal?

a)

A. Emits smoke signals to indicate distress or mark location

b)

B. Warns of collisions with other ships

c)

C. Serves as an alarm signal for passengers on board

d)

D. Supports the ship’s navigation system

177.

What is the minimum smoke emission duration of a floating smoke signal?

a)

A. 1 minute

b)

B. 2 minutes

c)

C. 3 minutes

d)

D. 4 minutes

178.

How long does a floating smoke signal continue emitting smoke when submerged 100mm underwater?

a)

A. 5 seconds

b)

B. 10 seconds

c)

C. 15 seconds

d)

D. 20 seconds

179.

What requirements must a line-throwing appliance on a ship meet?

a)

A. Must have at least 4 projectiles carrying a line of 230m in length

b)

B. Only used in adverse weather conditions

c)

C. Must weigh less than 5kg

d)

D. Only used in cases of ship grounding

180.

What is the minimum number of two-way radios required on a ship?

a)

A. 1 radio

b)

B. 2 radios

c)

C. 3 radios

d)

D. 4 radios

181.

What is the minimum number of two-way radios required on a ship with a GRT between 300 and under 500RT?

a)

A. 1 radio

b)

B. 2 radios

c)

C. 3 radios

d)

D. 4 radios

182.

What is the function of a radar transponder (SART) on a ship?

a)

A. Detects other ships in the surrounding area

b)

B. Transmits radar signals to assist in locating a distressed vessel

c)

C. Helps the ship determine its speed

d)

D. Supports ship docking operations

183.

If a ship has a GRT between 300 and under 500, what is the minimum number of radar transponders required?

a)

A. 1 transponder

b)

B. 2 transponders

c)

C. 3 transponders

d)

D. 4 transponders

184.

What is the function of the GMDSS system?

a)

A. Locates ships using sound waves

b)

B. Supports internal communication on board

c)

C. Ensures global maritime safety and distress communication

d)

D. Provides weather forecasts for ships

185.

What is the purpose of an Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon (EPIRB)?

a)

A. Locates the position of a distressed vessel

b)

B. Enhances communication between crew members

c)

C. Warns of dangerous marine life in the ship's path

d)

D. Adjusts the ship's navigation direction

186.

Which of the following devices are included in the GMDSS system?

a)

A. VHF-DSC radio, MF/HF-DSC radio, NAVTEX receiver, INMARSAT system

b)

B. Light signal transmitter and ocean current detector

c)

C. Ship speed monitoring system and security cameras

d)

D. Automatic navigation computer and radar system

187.

What is the primary purpose of life rafts equipped on ships?

a)

A. Increase ship speed in emergency situations

b)

B. Ensure survival of all crew members in case of distress

c)

C. Help the ship withstand large waves

d)

D. Only for use on cruise ships

188.

Based on their construction, how many main types of life rafts are there?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

189.

What materials can life rafts be made of?

a)

A. Wood or plastic

b)

B. Metal or rubber-coated fabric

c)

C. Brick or stone

d)

D. Concrete or cement

190.

For self-inflating life rafts, what is the required inflation time at -30°C?

a)

A. 30 seconds

b)

B. 1 minute

c)

C. 3 minutes

d)

D. 5 minutes

191.

What is the maximum allowable weight of a life raft (including equipment)?

a)

A. 100 kg

b)

B. 150 kg

c)

C. 185 kg

d)

D. 250 kg

192.

What is the minimum rowing speed of a life raft (in nautical miles per hour)?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

193.

What is the minimum height from which a life raft must be able to withstand a person jumping onto it?

a)

A. 2.5m

b)

B. 3m

c)

C. 4.5m

d)

D. 5m

194.

What materials are lifeboats made of?

a)

A. Metal, wood, synthetic plastics

b)

B. Wood, paper, rubber

c)

C. Metal, cement, bricks

d)

D. Synthetic plastics, clay, aluminum

195.

How many main types of lifeboats are there?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

196.

What temperature range must a lifeboat be able to operate effectively within?

a)

A. -30°C to +50°C

b)

B. -1°C to +30°C

c)

C. -10°C to +65°C

d)

D. -30°C to +65°C

197.

For a partially enclosed lifeboat, what is the minimum percentage of the boat’s length that must be covered by a rigid canopy?

a)

A. 10%

b)

B. 15%

c)

C. 20%

d)

D. 25%

198.

Where must a fully enclosed lifeboat have windows or translucent panels?

a)

A. Only at the front

b)

B. Only at the rear

c)

C. On both sides of the boat

d)

D. No windows required

199.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a free-fall lifeboat?

a)

A. Designed with an open roof

b)

B. Released from a certain height for rapid evacuation

c)

C. Does not require a crew member to operate during descent

d)

D. Only used on cargo ships

200.

How long must a fire-resistant lifeboat provide protection when continuously exposed to fire?

a)

A. 3 minutes

b)

B. 5 minutes

c)

C. 8 minutes

d)

D. 10 minutes

201.

What is the minimum speed required for a rescue boat (knots)?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

202.

What is the minimum speed at which a rescue boat must be capable of towing a life raft (knots)?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

203.

How long must the air support system on a lifeboat ensure breathable air inside the boat at a minimum?

a)

A. 5 minutes

b)

B. 10 minutes

c)

C. 15 minutes

d)

D. 20 minutes

204.

When maintaining inflatable rescue boats, what is the most important inspection condition?

a)

A. The boat must be fully submerged underwater

b)

B. The boat must be fully inflated

c)

C. The boat must be flipped upside down for inspection

d)

D. The boat must be fully deflated

205.

How many main types of lifeboat launching and recovery equipment are there?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

206.

What is the typical lifespan of a self-illuminating lifebuoy light battery?

a)

A. 6 months

b)

B. 1 year

c)

C. 2 years

d)

D. 3 years

207.

How should an immersion suit be inspected?

a)

A. Try wearing it and swimming

b)

B. Visual inspection and pressure testing

c)

C. Burn a small portion to check durability

d)

D. Measure internal temperature using sensors

208.

: Where are immersion protection devices stored on a ship?

a)

A. In the engine room

b)

B. On the lifeboat

c)

C. In the passenger compartment

d)

D. On the ship’s deck

209.

How should parachute flares be periodically inspected?

a)

A. Daily

b)

B. Weekly by visual inspection and monthly parameter check

c)

C. Only inspect when used

d)

D. Only inspect when the ship is docked

210.

What is the most important factor to inspect on a parachute flare casing?

a)

A. The color of the casing

b)

B. The shape of the flare head

c)

C. Expiration date

d)

D. The hardness of the casing

211.

How should handheld torches be periodically inspected?

a)

A. Weekly by visual inspection and monthly parameter check

b)

B. Only when used

c)

C. Once a year

d)

D. No inspection required

212.

When numbering lifeboats, where are even-numbered boats placed?

a)

A. Starboard side

b)

B. Port side

c)

C. Bow of the ship

d)

D. Stern of the ship

213.

How should lifebuoys be inspected weekly?

a)

A. Visual inspection

b)

B. Dropping into the water for testing

c)

C. Pressure testing

d)

D. Measuring material durability

214.

How is the self-illuminating light on a lifebuoy inspected?

a)

A. Turning on the light switch

b)

B. Checking the battery and testing in an upright position

c)

C. Immersing the light in water

d)

D. Measuring brightness with specialized equipment

215.

What is a special characteristic of floating smoke signals?

a)

A. Emits sound when activated

b)

B. Can only be used during the daytime

c)

C. No expiration date

d)

D. Sends a signal using colored smoke

216.

: When inspecting floating smoke signals, what factor should be checked most carefully?

a)

A. The color of the emitted smoke

b)

B. Expiration date and casing condition

c)

C. The durability of the lid fastening cord

d)

D. The weight of the signal

217.

Where are self-inflating life rafts stored on a ship?

a)

A. In the passenger compartment

b)

B. On the ship's deck, placed on a rack

c)

C. In the engine room

d)

D. On the lifeboat

218.

What is the most important factor when inspecting life rafts?

a)

A. The raft’s color

b)

B. The raft’s identification number and registration expiration date

c)

C. The material of the raft

d)

D. The size of the raft

219.

How should lifeboats be inspected periodically?

a)

A. Visually every week and a full check of all onboard equipment every month

b)

B. Only when an incident occurs

c)

C. Only when the ship is anchored

d)

D. Once a year

220.

What does the monthly routine inspection of lifeboats include?

a)

A. Checking provisions, drinking water, medicine, and rescue equipment

b)

B. Checking the color of the lifeboat

c)

C. Measuring the temperature in the bridge compartment

d)

D. Inspecting the boat's paint coating

221.

How often must lifeboats be lowered to water level?

a)

A. Weekly

b)

B. At least once every three months

c)

C. Once a year

d)

D. When requested by the captain

222.

What elements should be inspected in the davit system for lowering and retrieving lifeboats?

a)

A. Only the outer paint coating

b)

B. Only the cable load capacity

c)

C. The entire system, including corrosion resistance, cables, brakes, and control mechanisms

d)

D. No periodic inspection is required

223.

What does the inspection of the wire rope winch system include?

a)

A. Checking the brake, remote control system, and power supply system

b)

B. Only inspecting the cable

c)

C. Only inspecting the winch motor

d)

D. No inspection required

224.

How often should the dynamic testing of winch brakes be conducted?

a)

A. Once a year

b)

B. Once every five years

c)

C. Once a month

d)

D. Once every ten years

225.

What is the most important requirement when inspecting winch brakes?

a)

A. The brake must engage immediately when pressed

b)

B. The brake must have a delay to avoid load shock

c)

C. The brake must be light for easy operation

d)

D. The brake is not important, only the cable strength matters

226.

What does the overhaul of the loaded release hook system include?

a)

A. Only inspecting the hook cable

b)

B. Disassembling components, adjusting the system, and testing with the specified load

c)

C. Only lubricating the joints

d)

D. No overhaul needed, only visual inspection

227.

What is the main purpose of fire prevention and firefighting on board a ship?

a)

A. To reduce insurance costs

b)

B. To protect lives, property, and the marine environment

c)

C. To comply with international maritime law

d)

D. To improve crew skills

228.

What is one of the basic requirements of fire prevention and firefighting on board?

a)

A. Buying the most modern equipment

b)

B. Having knowledge, skills, and strong discipline

c)

C. Keeping machinery running at all times

d)

D. Ensuring the ship is always full of fuel

229.

Which of the following is the most common heat source causing fire in the engine room?

a)

A. Mobile phone

b)

B. Mechanical friction

c)

C. Steam

d)

D. Sunlight

230.

When can electrical sparks cause a fire?

a)

A. Near inert gases

b)

B. Outdoors

c)

C. Near flammable materials

d)

D. In oxygen-free areas

231.

What type of heat source is metal welding and cutting?

a)

A. Heat from chemical reaction

b)

B. Heat from sunlight

c)

C. Heat from electric arc and flame

d)

D. Heat from friction

232.

What are the components of the fire triangle?

a)

A. Smoke, heat, water

b)

B. Fuel, oxygen, heat

c)

C. Flame, electricity, gas

d)

D. Pressure, heat, light

233.

What is the principle behind extinguishing a fire?

a)

A. Reduce light from the flame

b)

B. Remove one element of the fire triangle

c)

C. Increase ambient temperature

d)

D. Replace fuel with another substance

234.

Class A fire involves which type of materials?

a)

A. Flammable liquids

b)

B. Flammable gases

c)

C. Ordinary solid combustibles

d)

D. Metals

235.

Class B fires usually involve which of the following?

a)

A. Solids

b)

B. Flammable liquids like gasoline, oil

c)

C. Inert gases

d)

D. Metals

236.

When does a Class C fire occur?

a)

A. When flammable gases like propane, butane catch fire

b)

B. When garbage burns

c)

C. When electrical equipment burns

d)

D. When engine room burns

237.

Fire involving live electrical equipment is classified as?

a)

A. Class A

b)

B. Class B

c)

C. Class C

d)

D. Electrical fire

238.

Which of the following materials is more flammable?

a)

A. Iron

b)

B. Copper

c)

C. Gasoline

d)

D. Glass

239.

How many main forms of heat transfer contribute to the spread of fire?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

240.

What is the heat transfer through metal called?

a)

A. Convection

b)

B. Conduction

c)

C. Radiation

d)

D. Transmission

241.

Which type of heat transfer occurs when hot air moves and spreads fire?

a)

A. Conduction

b)

B. Transmission

c)

C. Convection

d)

D. Radiation

242.

What is the heat transfer through electromagnetic waves called?

a)

A. Convection

b)

B. Radiation

c)

C. Conduction

d)

D. Transmission

243.

A fixed fire-fighting appliance is a device that is:

a)

A. Can be moved to different locations

b)

B. Permanently installed at a location

c)

C. Stored in a locker

d)

D. Used to inspect extinguishers

244.

Which of the following is an example of a fixed fire-fighting system?

a)

A. Portable powder extinguisher

b)

B. CO₂ system for engine room

c)

C. Trolley-type extinguisher

d)

D. Mini hand extinguisher

245.

Foam fire-fighting systems are typically used for:

a)

A. Electrical fires

b)

B. Solid combustibles

c)

C. Flammable liquids

d)

D. Flammable gases

246.

What fire extinguisher is most suitable for putting out fires in metal?

a)

A. Water

b)

B. Powder

c)

C. CO₂

d)

D. Special powder

247.

What is the maximum weight of a portable extinguisher?

a)

A. 9 kg

b)

B. 12 kg

c)

C. 15 kg

d)

D. 20 kg

248.

How does a CO₂ extinguisher work?

a)

A. Cools and removes oxygen

b)

B. Forms foam on surface

c)

C. Chemical reaction

d)

D. Blows dry powder

249.

Which device is most suitable for flammable liquid fires on deck?

a)

A. Foam extinguisher

b)

B. Water extinguisher

c)

C. Compressed air

d)

D. Fire blanket

250.

Which of the following should NOT be used on electrical fires?

a)

A. CO₂

b)

B. Dry powder

c)

C. Foam

d)

D. Clean agent extinguisher