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Surgical infections- Hawkins

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is a patient-related risk factor for surgical site infection (SSI)?

a)

Use of laparoscopic approach

b)

Obesity

c)

Short surgical duration

d)

Appropriate antibiotic timing

2.

Which of the following is a process-related risk factor for SSI?

a)

Smoking

b)

Diabetes

c)

Rough surgical technique

d)

Immunosuppression

3.

Which of the following contributes to creating a “suitable medium” for surgical infection?

a)

High oxygen tension

b)

Adequate blood flow

c)

Closed space with low pH

d)

Open air exposure

4.

The most common pathogen involved in SSIs is:

a)

E. coli

b)

Pseudomonas

c)

Staphylococcus aureus

d)

Streptococcus viridans

5.

Which host condition increases susceptibility to surgical infection?

a)

Vigorous physical activity

b)

Immunocompromised state

c)

Low ASA score

d)

Good nutritional status

6.

Which wound class has the lowest expected infection rate?

a)

Class I – Clean

b)

Class II – Clean-contaminated

c)

Class III – Contaminated

d)

Class IV – Dirty-infected

7.

A bowel resection with visible necrotic tissue but no pus is classified as:

a)

Clean

b)

Clean-contaminated

c)

Contaminated

d)

Dirty-infected

8.

Which of the following is an example of a clean-contaminated procedure?

a)

Inguinal hernia repair

b)

Appendectomy with no perforation

c)

Dog bite wound

d)

Ruptured appendix

9.

A surgical wound with frank pus and retained devitalized tissue is best classified as:

a)

Class I – Clean

b)

Class II – Clean-contaminated

c)

Class III – Contaminated

d)

Class IV – Dirty-infected

10.

What is the expected infection rate for a Class III contaminated wound?

a)

~2%

b)

5–15%

c)

>15%

d)

>30%

11.

Prophylactic antibiotics should ideally be administered:

a)

2 hours before incision

b)

At wound closure

c)

After signs of infection develop

d)

Within 1 hour prior to incision

12.

Which procedure does not routinely require prophylactic antibiotics unless high-risk?

a)

Clean-contaminated

b)

Contaminated

c)

Dirty

d)

Certain clean surgeries

13.

Antibiotic doses should be repeated during surgery based on:

a)

Surgical duration

b)

Patient weight

c)

Antibiotic half-life

d)

Wound classification

14.

Which consideration is least important in choosing a prophylactic antibiotic?

a)

Local flora

b)

Known MRSA status

c)

Duration of surgery

d)

Medication allergies

15.

What is the appropriate intraoperative redosing interval for cefazolin?

a)

Every 1 hour

b)

Every 2 hours

c)

Every 4 hours

d)

Only at incision

16.

Which patient history factor most likely impacts antibiotic sensitivity?

a)

Vegetarian diet

b)

Prior hospitalization

c)

Family history of MRSA

d)

Lack of prior illness

17.

In vitro antibiotic sensitivity results may not correlate in vivo due to:

a)

Short half-life of antibiotics

b)

Drug allergy

c)

Host immunity

d)

Site penetration issues

18.

Which of the following increases the likelihood of antibiotic resistance?

a)

No prior infection

b)

Prior infection with resistant organisms

c)

Surgical procedure in a clean site

d)

Low ASA score

19.

Which factor should be most considered when empirical antibiotic therapy fails?

a)

Patient's sex

b)

Antibiotic cost

c)

Prior antibiotic exposure

d)

Family history

20.

Failure to respond to antibiotic therapy despite culture sensitivity may be due to:

a)

Resistance at the lab

b)

Allergy

c)

Inability of antibiotic to reach infection site

d)

Lack of hygiene

21.

Which mechanism is used by bacteria to resist antibiotics?

a)

Increasing permeability to antibiotics

b)

Developing enzymes that destroy antibiotics

c)

Enhancing antibiotic absorption

d)

Lowering host immunity

22.

Which structural modification contributes to MRSA resistance?

a)

New capsule formation

b)

Biofilm development

c)

Altered cell wall proteins preventing drug binding

d)

Increased protein synthesis

23.

What allows bacteria to avoid antibiotic effects through decreased exposure?

a)

Active drug uptake

b)

Antibiotic trapping

c)

Efflux pumps

d)

Enzyme inactivation

24.

A surgical patient develops resistance to a previously effective drug. What likely happened?

a)

Drug degradation by liver

b)

Spontaneous mutation or gene acquisition

c)

Drug underdosing

d)

Patient noncompliance

25.

Which of the following most contributes to multidrug resistance in hospital settings?

a)

Short hospital stay

b)

Strict isolation

c)

Repeated antibiotic use

d)

High ASA scores

26.

A patient presents with a painful, red swelling on the fingertip pulp. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Paronychia

b)

Felon

c)

Eponychia

d)

Herpetic whitlow

27.

Which of the following is the best treatment for a subungual abscess?

a)

Oral steroids

b)

Nail removal only

c)

Incision and drainage at the point of fluctuance

d)

Topical antifungals

28.

Which hand infection is characterized by fusiform digit swelling, pain with passive extension, and flexed posture?

a)

Human bite infection

b)

Pyogenic tenosynovitis

c)

Felon

d)

Paronychia

29.

What is the appropriate initial treatment for early paronychia without abscess?

a)

Nail removal

b)

I&D only

c)

Soaks, elevation, and oral antibiotics

d)

IV antifungals

30.

Which organism is most associated with necrotizing hand infections such as streptococcal gangrene?

a)

Pasteurella multocida

b)

Staphylococcus aureus

c)

Streptococcus pyogenes

d)

E. coli

31.

Which of the following increases the risk of diabetic foot infections?

a)

Peripheral neuropathy

b)

Good glucose control

c)

High protein diet

d)

Use of antifungal creams

32.

What is the most common initial presentation of a diabetic foot infection?

a)

Painless swelling

b)

Osteomyelitis

c)

Skin and soft tissue lesion with purulence

d)

Gangrene

33.

Which test suggests underlying osteomyelitis in a diabetic foot wound?

a)

Babinski reflex

b)

Probe-to-bone test

c)

ABI index

d)

Tinel's sign

34.

What is the first-line treatment for mild diabetic foot infections?

a)

Surgical amputation

b)

IV antibiotics

c)

Antivirals and wound debridement

d)

Oral antibiotics, wound care, and pressure offloading

35.

What percentage of diabetic foot infection patients have PAD?

a)

<10%

b)

~20%

c)

~40%

d)

>75%

36.

Which pathogen is most commonly associated with dog bite infections?

a)

Pseudomonas

b)

Pasteurella multocida

c)

E. coli

d)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

37.

A patient has acute cholecystitis. What bacterial group is most likely involved?

a)

Anaerobes only

b)

Fungi

c)

Gram-negative bacilli and gram-positive cocci

d)

Mycobacteria

38.

What is the most common pathogen found in acute perforated appendicitis?

a)

Streptococcus pyogenes

b)

H. pylori

c)

E. coli

d)

Clostridium difficile

39.

Which organism is most likely found 2 hours after perforation of a duodenal ulcer?

a)

Klebsiella

b)

H. pylori

c)

Enterobacter

d)

MRSA

40.

Which of the following is not typically associated with dog bite wound flora?

a)

Capnocytophaga canimorsus

b)

Pasteurella canis

c)

Staphylococcus aureus

d)

Salmonella typhi

41.

Which virus poses the greatest occupational risk to surgeons due to high transmissibility?

a)

A. HSV

b)

B. HCV

c)

C. HIV

d)

D. HBV

42.

What is the most effective method to protect against occupational transmission of bloodborne viruses?

a)

Prophylactic antibiotics

b)

Face shields alone

c)

Universal precautions

d)

Hand sanitizer

43.

Which viruses are included in the CDC’s list of common bloodborne pathogens?

a)

HIV, Hep A, CMV

b)

HSV, EBV, CMV

c)

HBV, HCV, HIV

d)

RSV, HCV, HBV

44.

What should a surgeon do immediately after a needlestick injury?

a)

Finish the procedure and report later

b)

Rinse and wait for symptoms

c)

Wash vigorously and report exposure

d)

Ignore unless symptoms develop

45.

Which of the following is not part of universal precautions?

a)

Double gloving

b)

One-handed needle recapping

c)

Patient HIV testing

d)

Eye protection

46.

A fever on post-op day 1 is most commonly caused by:

a)

Wound infection

b)

UTI

c)

Atelectasis

d)

DVT

47.

Which of the following is the most likely cause of a post-op fever associated with localized erythema and drainage from an incision?

a)

Pulmonary embolism

b)

Surgical site infection

c)

UTI

d)

Atelectasis

48.

What does “Wonder Drugs” refer to in the 5 W's?

a)

Post-op pain medications

b)

Anesthesia-related fevers

c)

Drug-induced fever or transfusion reactions

d)

Herbal supplements

49.

What symptom would lead you to suspect DVT as the cause of post-op fever?

a)

Flank pain

b)

Calf tenderness and swelling

c)

Jaundice

d)

Bradycardia

50.

Which action is most appropriate in evaluating an early post-op fever with pulmonary findings?

a)

Begin steroids

b)

Order abdominal ultrasound

c)

Obtain chest X-ray

d)

Start antifungal therapy