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ER endo emergencies

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 68-year-old diabetic male presents to the ED with confusion and diaphoresis. His glucose is 42 mg/dL. He is alert and oriented. What is the best initial management?

a)

IV D50 bolus

b)

Oral glucose followed by complex carbohydrate and protein

c)

IM glucagon

d)

Start insulin drip

2.

Which patient is most likely to be admitted for observation after a hypoglycemic episode?

a)

Patient with a glucose of 55 mg/dL corrected by juice, on short-acting insulin, with reliable caregiver

b)

Patient who had a seizure from glucose of 48 mg/dL, on glipizide

c)

Patient with reactive hypoglycemia after exercise, improved with snacks

d)

Pregnant T1D patient with mild symptoms, now asymptomatic

3.

A patient with T1DM and sepsis is found unresponsive. His glucose is 35 mg/dL. IV access is not yet available. What is the best next step?

a)

Administer oral juice

b)

Administer IM glucagon

c)

Wait for IV access

d)

Observe for 15 minutes

4.

Why might IM glucagon fail to correct hypoglycemia in a chronic alcoholic patient?

a)

Insulin resistance

b)

Beta-blocker use

c)

Depleted hepatic glycogen stores

d)

Renal failure

5.

A patient treated for hypoglycemia is at risk for rebound hypoglycemia. What prevents this complication best?

a)

Administering glucagon

b)

Administering complex carbohydrate and protein

c)

Giving a second dose of D50

d)

Starting an insulin drip

6.

Which of the following is a common early symptom of hypoglycemia triggered by sympathetic activation?

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Urinary retention

c)

Sweating and palpitations

d)

Hypotension

7.

In the prehospital setting, which action is most appropriate when stroke-like symptoms are noted?

a)

Wait for labs before treatment

b)

Administer aspirin

c)

Check bedside glucose

d)

Perform rapid CT scan

8.

A hypoglycemic patient is given D10W. What is the approximate volume of D10W given in standard ED treatment?

a)

500 mL bolus

b)

50 mL bolus

c)

250 mL bolus

d)

1000 mL infusion

9.

Which of the following increases risk for hypoglycemia in diabetic patients?

a)

A. Hyperthyroidism

b)

B. Acute renal failure

c)

C. Glucocorticoid use

d)

D. NSAID use

10.

A diabetic patient becomes hypoglycemic while on vacation. Which scenario most likely contributed?

a)

Took insulin, skipped lunch, went hiking

b)

Ate double lunch, skipped insulin

c)

Took oral steroids, ate snacks

d)

Forgot nighttime insulin, ate a large dinner

11.

A 12-year-old boy presents to the ED with abdominal pain, vomiting, and tachypnea. Vitals show HR 118, RR 32, and glucose 410 mg/dL. What is the most appropriate next step?

a)

Administer subcutaneous insulin

b)

Begin IV fluid resuscitation

c)

Obtain HbA1C

d)

Administer sodium bicarbonate immediately

12.

Which of the following best describes the classic presentation of new-onset type 1 diabetes in the ED?

a)

Fatigue, dry skin, elevated cholesterol

b)

Polyuria, polydipsia, weight loss, tachypnea

c)

Slow-healing wounds, hypertension, vision changes

d)

Recurrent UTIs, obesity, numbness in toes

13.

What is the primary mechanism leading to DKA?

a)

Excessive dietary carbohydrate intake

b)

Acute insulin overdose

c)

Absolute or relative insulin deficiency

d)

Increased insulin sensitivity

14.

Which lab finding is most characteristic of DKA?

a)

Respiratory alkalosis

b)

Metabolic acidosis with elevated anion gap

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Elevated bicarbonate

15.

Which of the following would indicate that a patient is likely in DKA?

a)

Glucose 150 mg/dL, CO₂: 32, no ketones

b)

Glucose 490 mg/dL, CO₂: 8, large serum ketones

c)

Glucose 190 mg/dL, normal electrolytes, negative ketones

d)

Glucose 250 mg/dL, pH 7.40, bicarbonate 24

16.

What electrolyte abnormality is commonly seen after insulin therapy begins in DKA?

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Hypercalcemia

c)

Hypokalemia

d)

Hypernatremia

17.

A patient presents with DKA. After initial fluid bolus, what is the next step in management?

a)

Sodium bicarbonate drip

b)

High-dose IV insulin bolus

c)

Continuous insulin infusion and electrolyte monitoring

d)

Immediate transition to subcutaneous insulin

18.

What symptom of DKA is a result of prostaglandin release?

a)

Weight loss

b)

Polydipsia

c)

Abdominal pain and nausea

d)

Blurred vision

19.

Which condition can result in euglycemic DKA despite near-normal glucose levels?

a)

Chronic steroid use

b)

Use of SGLT2 inhibitors

c)

T2DM with insulin resistance

d)

Excessive sugar intake

20.

In DKA, which finding is most associated with severe disease and possible poor prognosis?

a)

Serum glucose >250 mg/dL

b)

Kussmaul respirations

c)

Serum bicarbonate <10 mEq/L

d)

Polyuria

21.

A 45-year-old chronic alcoholic presents with abdominal pain, vomiting, and tachypnea. He hasn’t eaten in 3 days and has low or undetectable blood alcohol levels. Labs show a high anion gap metabolic acidosis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Diabetic ketoacidosis

b)

Lactic acidosis

c)

Alcoholic ketoacidosis

d)

Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state

22.

Which treatment is most appropriate in alcoholic ketoacidosis (AKA)?

a)

IV insulin infusion

b)

D5NS and thiamine

c)

Normal saline and subcutaneous insulin

d)

Glucagon and potassium

23.

What key laboratory finding distinguishes alcoholic ketoacidosis from diabetic ketoacidosis?

a)

Low anion gap

b)

Negative or weakly positive serum ketones

c)

Markedly elevated glucose levels

d)

High TSH level

24.

Why is insulin contraindicated in most patients with alcoholic ketoacidosis?

a)

It worsens renal failure

b)

It increases blood alcohol levels

c)

Patients are not hyperglycemic and can become hypoglycemic

d)

It increases lactic acid

25.

Which of the following is a common complication of untreated AKA?

a)

Seizures due to hyperglycemia

b)

Hypoglycemia and electrolyte imbalances

c)

Pulmonary embolism

d)

Diabetic nephropathy

26.

Which vitamin deficiency must be corrected in patients with chronic alcohol use and suspected AKA?

a)

Vitamin C

b)

Vitamin D

c)

Thiamine (Vitamin B1)

d)

Folic acid

27.

A 76-year-old nursing home resident presents with lethargy and confusion. Blood glucose is 720 mg/dL, serum osmolality is 320 mOsm/kg, and serum ketones are negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Diabetic ketoacidosis

b)

Myxedema coma

c)

Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state

d)

Sepsis

28.

What is the first priority in the management of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS)?

a)

IV insulin drip

b)

Administration of bicarbonate

c)

Rapid correction of hypernatremia

d)

Aggressive IV fluid replacement with normal saline

29.

Which patient is most at risk for developing HHS?

a)

A T1DM patient using an insulin pump

b)

An elderly patient with undiagnosed T2DM and UTI

c)

A middle-aged alcoholic with pancreatitis

d)

A child with known T1DM noncompliant with insulin

30.

Which of the following is a key clinical feature of HHS, but not typically seen in DKA?

a)

Kussmaul respirations

b)

Severe dehydration and profound mental status changes

c)

Abdominal pain and vomiting

d)

Serum glucose >250 mg/dL

31.

A postpartum woman presents with fever, altered mental status, tachycardia, and lid lag. TSH is undetectable and free T4 is very high. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Thyrotoxicosis

b)

Thyroid storm

c)

Sepsis

d)

Myxedema coma

32.

Which of the following symptoms is most specific for myxedema coma?

a)

Heat intolerance, palpitations, diarrhea

b)

Facial swelling, hypothermia, bradycardia

c)

Tremor, insomnia, anxiety

d)

Seizure, hyperreflexia, exophthalmos

33.

What is the initial pharmacologic treatment of choice in thyroid storm?

a)

IV levothyroxine

b)

Radioactive iodine

c)

Propranolol

d)

Methimazole only

34.

What is the primary trigger for thyroid storm in many patients?

a)

Metformin overdose

b)

High iodine diet

c)

Stressful event like infection, surgery, or postpartum state

d)

Prolonged fasting

35.

A 74-year-old female presents with confusion, hypotension, hypoventilation, and bradycardia. TSH is elevated, and free T4 is undetectable. What is the next best step in management?

a)

Start oral levothyroxine and observe

b)

IV levothyroxine and IV hydrocortisone

c)

Oral methimazole

d)

Wait for thyroid panel before starting therapy

36.

Why are glucocorticoids given in myxedema coma?

a)

To stimulate thyroid hormone production

b)

To reduce insulin resistance

c)

To prevent adrenal crisis and reduce peripheral conversion of T4 to T3

d)

To treat hyperkalemia

37.

What complication should be closely monitored in patients with myxedema coma and hypothermia?

a)

Hypertension crisis

b)

Bradyarrhythmia and QT prolongation

c)

Seizures

d)

Hyperthermia

38.

What distinguishes thyroid storm from uncomplicated thyrotoxicosis?

a)

Elevated TSH

b)

Hypothermia and lethargy

c)

CNS dysfunction, high fever, and decompensated cardiovascular system

d)

Absence of goiter

39.

What scoring system helps confirm the diagnosis of thyroid storm?

a)

Glasgow Coma Scale

b)

Burch-Wartofsky Point Scale

c)

MELD Score

d)

Wells Criteria

40.

Which of the following medications should be given one hour after PTU in thyroid storm to block hormone release?

a)

Iodine (SSKI or Lugol’s solution)

b)

Methimazole

c)

Hydrocortisone

d)

Lithium

41.

A 58-year-old male on chronic prednisone abruptly discontinues his medication and presents with hypotension, fatigue, and nausea. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Sepsis

b)

Addison’s disease

c)

Adrenal crisis due to secondary adrenal insufficiency

d)

Hypovolemic shock

42.

Which of the following is a classic lab finding in primary adrenal insufficiency but not typically seen in secondary?

a)

Hyperglycemia

b)

Hyperkalemia

c)

Elevated cortisol

d)

Elevated sodium

43.

What is the most appropriate initial treatment for adrenal crisis in the ED?

a)

IV insulin and fluid restriction

b)

Oral hydrocortisone and observation

c)

IV fluids and IV hydrocortisone 100 mg bolus

d)

Vasopressors only

44.

Which of the following symptoms is most suggestive of an acute adrenal crisis?

a)

Fever, bradycardia, hypothermia

b)

Hypotension unresponsive to fluids and pressors

c)

Headache and photophobia

d)

Polyuria and hypernatremia

45.

A patient with adrenal insufficiency is undergoing surgery. What pre-procedure management is essential?

a)

IV dextrose

b)

Antibiotic prophylaxis

c)

Stress-dose steroids

d)

Withholding all medications

46.

A patient presents with weakness, nausea, craving for salt, and hyperpigmentation of the skin. Labs show hyponatremia and hyperkalemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)

b)

Primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison’s disease)

c)

Secondary adrenal insufficiency

d)

Diabetes insipidus

47.

What diagnostic lab values are most consistent with adrenal insufficiency?

a)

Cortisol >20 mcg/dL, low ACTH

b)

Cortisol <10 mcg/dL, hyperkalemia, hyponatremia

c)

Normal electrolytes, elevated glucose

d)

Elevated cortisol and aldosterone

48.

What should be done before administering steroids if adrenal insufficiency is suspected, but the patient is stable?

a)

Order thyroid function tests

b)

Obtain a cortisol and ACTH level

c)

Start levothyroxine

d)

Give potassium replacement

49.

What fluid is preferred in the management of adrenal crisis?

a)

D5½NS

b)

Lactated Ringer’s

c)

D5NS or NS

d)

3% hypertonic saline

50.

Which of the following patients is most at risk for developing adrenal crisis?

a)

T2DM patient on metformin

b)

Patient with long-term steroid use undergoing major surgery

c)

Patient with hyperaldosteronism

d)

Elderly female with hypothyroidism