wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

ER: ID

Total questions: 58

Worksheet time: 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 22-year-old woman presents with cervical motion tenderness and yellow vaginal discharge. A PCR test confirms Chlamydia trachomatis. She is not pregnant and has no drug allergies. What is the appropriate treatment?

a)

Azithromycin 1 g PO x1

b)

Doxycycline 100 mg PO bid x 7 days

c)

Metronidazole 2 g PO x1

d)

Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM x1

2.

A 25-year-old male presents with urethral discharge and dysuria. Gram stain shows gram-negative diplococci. He weighs 160 kg. What is the correct treatment?

a)

Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM x1

b)

Ceftriaxone 1 g IM x1

c)

Doxycycline 100 mg PO bid x 7 days

d)

Azithromycin 1 g PO x1

3.

A 30-year-old woman presents with a frothy green vaginal discharge and vaginal itching. Wet prep reveals motile protozoa. What is the best treatment?

a)

Doxycycline 100 mg PO bid x 7 days

b)

Metronidazole 2 g PO x1

c)

Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM x1

d)

Acyclovir 400 mg PO tid x 7 days

4.

A 27-year-old male presents with painful grouped vesicles on an erythematous base on the penis. He also has fever and lymphadenopathy. What is the appropriate initial treatment?

a)

Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM x1

b)

Doxycycline 100 mg PO bid x 7 days

c)

Acyclovir 400 mg PO tid for 7–10 days

d)

Azithromycin 1 g PO x1

5.

A 32-year-old man presents with a painful genital ulcer and tender inguinal lymphadenopathy. What is the best empiric treatment?

a)

Azithromycin 1 g PO x1

b)

Acyclovir 400 mg PO tid

c)

Penicillin G 2.4 million units IM

d)

Doxycycline 100 mg PO bid x 21 days

6.

A 28-year-old male presents with tender inguinal lymphadenopathy and reports a painless ulcer 2 weeks ago that has resolved. What is the most appropriate treatment?

a)

Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM x1

b)

Acyclovir 400 mg PO tid x 7 days

c)

Doxycycline 100 mg PO bid x 21 days

d)

Azithromycin 1 g PO x1

7.

A 19-year-old woman presents with lower abdominal pain, abnormal vaginal discharge, and cervical motion tenderness. She is sexually active with inconsistent condom use. There is no fever. Which organism is most likely responsible?

a)

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

b)

Trichomonas vaginalis

c)

Chlamydia trachomatis

d)

Treponema pallidum

8.

A 21-year-old male presents with dysuria and copious purulent urethral discharge. He denies any rash or lesions. Gram stain reveals gram-negative diplococci. Which pathogen is most likely?

a)

Haemophilus ducreyi

b)

Chlamydia trachomatis

c)

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

d)

Ureaplasma urealyticum

9.

A 26-year-old female presents with vaginal itching and frothy greenish-yellow discharge. A wet mount reveals motile flagellated protozoa. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Bacterial vaginosis

b)

Candidiasis

c)

Trichomoniasis

d)

Gonorrhea

10.

A 29-year-old man presents with painful grouped vesicles on the shaft of his penis and tender inguinal lymphadenopathy. He reports flu-like symptoms and burning with urination.

a)

Syphilis

b)

HSV

c)

Chancroid

d)

LGV

11.

A 35-year-old male presents with a painful genital ulcer and unilateral, tender inguinal lymphadenopathy. The lesion has irregular borders and a purulent base. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

HSV

b)

LGV

c)

Chancroid

d)

Syphilis

12.

A 30-year-old man presents with tender inguinal lymphadenopathy ("buboes") and reports a painless ulcer on the penis that appeared two weeks ago and resolved spontaneously. He recently traveled to the Caribbean. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Syphilis

b)

LGV

c)

Chancroid

d)

Gonorrhea

13.

A 58-year-old man is brought in with altered mental status, fever, and hypotension. He meets 2 SIRS criteria, has a suspected infection, and a lactate of 5.2 mmol/L. What is the next best step?

a)

Start norepinephrine immediately

b)

Obtain blood cultures, then start broad-spectrum antibiotics

c)

Delay antibiotics until ICU admission

d)

Give dexamethasone before fluids

14.

Which fluid resuscitation strategy is recommended within the first 3 hours for a patient with hypotension and suspected septic shock?

a)

10 mL/kg NS

b)

30 mL/kg crystalloid

c)

1 L of D5NS over 4 hours

d)

Albumin 5% bolus

15.

In early sepsis, an initial lactate level of 4.5 mmol/L suggests:

a)

Adequate perfusion

b)

Need for blood transfusion

c)

Significant hypoperfusion

d)

Hepatic dysfunction only

16.

Which pressor is considered first-line for septic shock unresponsive to fluid resuscitation?

a)

Dobutamine

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Norepinephrine (Levophed)

d)

Dopamine

17.

A septic patient receives a 30 mL/kg bolus but remains hypotensive. MAP is 62 mm Hg. What's the next step?

a)

Add corticosteroids

b)

Start vasopressors

c)

Repeat fluid bolus only

d)

Observe for 6 hours

18.

What is the minimum MAP goal when titrating vasopressors in septic shock?

a)

60 mm Hg

b)

65 mm Hg

c)

75 mm Hg

d)

90 mm Hg

19.

Which of the following must be repeated within 6 hours if initially elevated?

a)

INR

b)

Hematocrit

c)

Lactate

d)

Platelet count

20.

Why are antibiotics given before completing all labs in septic shock?

a)

To reduce cost

b)

Because cultures are unnecessary

c)

Early antibiotics improve mortality

d)

Imaging must confirm infection first

21.

What's the most important first step in managing sepsis?

a)

Airway control

b)

Early pressors

c)

Identifying source and initiating antibiotics

d)

Foley catheter placement

22.

In septic shock, which of the following indicates organ dysfunction?

a)

MAP = 70

b)

Platelets = 180,000

c)

Lactate = 3.0 mmol/L

d)

WBC = 12,500

23.

Which is part of the 3-hour bundle in sepsis management?

a)

Central line placement

b)

Vasopressors

c)

Reassess fluid status

d)

Blood cultures before antibiotics

24.

Which is included in the 6-hour bundle?

a)

Measure lactate

b)

Start norepinephrine

c)

Insert Foley catheter

d)

Start empiric antifungals

25.

A patient with septic shock requires pressors. Where should they be administered?

a)

Peripheral IV

b)

Intraosseous access

c)

Central venous line

d)

Subcutaneous injection

26.

Which of the following findings does NOT define sepsis-related organ dysfunction?

a)

Bilirubin 1.2

b)

Platelets 90,000

c)

INR 1.7

d)

Urine output <0.5 mL/kg/hr for 2 hours

27.

A patient has sepsis with respiratory failure requiring intubation. What does this indicate?

a)

Mild infection

b)

No end-organ damage

c)

Organ dysfunction

d)

Transient hypoxia

28.

A 21-year-old woman presents with lower abdominal pain and mucopurulent cervical discharge. PCR confirms Chlamydia trachomatis. What is the treatment of choice?

a)

Metronidazole 2 g PO x1

b)

Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM x1

c)

Doxycycline 100 mg PO bid x 7 days

d)

Acyclovir 400 mg PO tid

29.

A 25-year-old male presents with copious purulent urethral discharge and dysuria. Gram stain shows gram-negative diplococci. What is the correct treatment?

a)

Azithromycin 1 g PO x1

b)

Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM x1

c)

Doxycycline 100 mg PO bid x 7 days

d)

Metronidazole 500 mg PO bid x 7 days

30.

A woman presents to the ED with vaginal itching, foul-smelling yellow-green frothy discharge, and erythema. Motile protozoa are seen on wet mount. What is the recommended treatment?

a)

Doxycycline 100 mg PO bid x 7 days

b)

Azithromycin 1 g PO x1

c)

Metronidazole 2 g PO x1

d)

Ceftriaxone 1 g IM x1

31.

A patient presents with painful genital ulcers, fever, and tender inguinal lymphadenopathy. PCR confirms HSV-2. What is the best initial treatment?

a)

Penicillin G 2.4 million units IM x1

b)

Acyclovir 400 mg PO tid for 7–10 days

c)

Azithromycin 1 g PO x1

d)

Doxycycline 100 mg PO bid x 21 days

32.

A 34-year-old man presents with a painful genital ulcer and purulent base, along with unilateral tender lymphadenopathy. Which treatment is appropriate?

a)

A. Acyclovir 400 mg PO tid x 7 days

b)

B. Azithromycin 1 g PO x1

c)

C. Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM x1

d)

D. Both B and C are acceptable

33.

A male patient presents with tender inguinal buboes and reports a painless ulcer on the penis 2 weeks prior. Which infection and treatment are correct?

a)

HSV; acyclovir 400 mg PO tid

b)

LGV; doxycycline 100 mg PO bid x 21 days

c)

Chancroid; azithromycin 1 g PO x1

d)

Syphilis; penicillin G 2.4 million units IM

34.

A 23-year-old woman with vaginal discharge and dysuria tests positive for both gonorrhea and chlamydia. What is the appropriate ED treatment?

a)

Azithromycin 1 g PO x1

b)

Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM + doxycycline 100 mg PO bid x 7 days

c)

Metronidazole 500 mg PO bid x 7 days

d)

Acyclovir 400 mg PO tid

35.

A 29-year-old man presents with painless ulcer on the penis. He is not circumcised and reports unprotected sex. Which of the following is most likely?

a)

HSV-2

b)

Chancroid

c)

Syphilis

d)

Trichomonas

36.

A 31-year-old woman presents with burning urination and a positive wet mount for Trichomonas vaginalis. Which advice should be emphasized at discharge?

a)

Begin iron supplements

b)

Avoid dairy for 48 hours

c)

Avoid alcohol for 48–72 hours

d)

Take with high-fat meals

37.

A patient with active genital HSV lesions is pregnant and goes into labor. What is the appropriate course of action?

a)

Allow vaginal delivery

b)

Administer IV penicillin

c)

Start suppressive acyclovir therapy

d)

Proceed with C-section

38.

Dengue fever is most commonly transmitted by which of the following?

a)

Anopheles mosquito

b)

Contaminated seafood

c)

Aedes mosquito

d)

Tick bite

39.

A traveler returns from the Caribbean with fever, retro-orbital pain, and facial flushing. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Malaria

b)

Dengue fever

c)

Typhoid fever

d)

RMSF

40.

What is the recommended treatment for dengue fever?

a)

IV quinidine

b)

Azithromycin

c)

Supportive care

d)

Oseltamivir

41.

Malaria is caused by which genus of protozoa?

a)

Giardia

b)

Trypanosoma

c)

Plasmodium

d)

Cryptosporidium

42.

Which of the following symptoms is most characteristic of malaria?

a)

Painless genital ulcer

b)

Cyclic fevers and splenomegaly

c)

Facial flushing and retro-orbital pain

d)

Non-bloody diarrhea

43.

Which medication is first-line for severe malaria?

a)

Chloroquine

b)

IV artesunate

c)

Acyclovir

d)

Metronidazole

44.

RMSF (Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever) is caused by which of the following organisms?

a)

Rickettsia rickettsii

b)

Plasmodium falciparum

c)

Campylobacter jejuni

d)

Vibrio cholerae

45.

Which rash is most characteristic of RMSF (Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever)?

a)

Vesicular rash on trunk

b)

Rash starting on palms and soles

c)

Maculopapular rash starting on wrists and ankles

d)

Petechial rash on face

46.

What is the treatment of choice for RMSF (Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever), even in pregnancy?

a)

Azithromycin

b)

Penicillin G

c)

Doxycycline

d)

Ceftriaxone

47.

Which of the following organisms is a common cause of traveler’s diarrhea?

a)

HSV-2

b)

Plasmodium vivax

c)

E. coli

d)

Rickettsia typhi

48.

A 24-year-old traveler presents with fever, cramping, and bloody diarrhea. Which diagnosis is most likely?

a)

Norovirus

b)

Traveler’s diarrhea

c)

Hepatitis B

d)

RMSF

49.

What is the recommended treatment for febrile traveler’s diarrhea if antimicrobial therapy is needed?

a)

A. Acyclovir

b)

B. Vancomycin

c)

C. Ciprofloxacin

d)

D. Nystatin

50.

Ciguatera poisoning is associated with consumption of which type of fish?

a)

Shellfish like clams

b)

Raw freshwater fish

c)

Reef fish like barracuda and snapper

d)

Spoiled tuna

51.

Which neurologic symptom is considered pathognomonic for ciguatera?

a)

Retro-orbital pain

b)

Cold allodynia (hot-cold reversal)

c)

Ascending weakness

d)

Facial paralysis

52.

What is an adjunctive treatment sometimes used for neurologic symptoms of ciguatera poisoning?

a)

Doxycycline

b)

IV mannitol

c)

Vancomycin

d)

Prednisone

53.

Scombroid poisoning is caused by which of the following mechanisms?

a)

Dinoflagellate neurotoxins

b)

Histamine buildup from spoiled fish

c)

Bacterial enterotoxins

d)

Shellfish proteins

54.

A patient develops flushing, palpitations, and oral burning within 20 minutes of eating tuna. What's the likely diagnosis?

a)

Ciguatera

b)

Shellfish allergy

c)

Scombroid poisoning

d)

RMSF

55.

Which medication is first-line for scombroid poisoning?

a)

A. Epinephrine

b)

B. Antihistamines (H1 + H2 blockers)

c)

C. Doxycycline

d)

D. Metronidazole

56.

PSP (paralytic shellfish poisoning) is caused by ingestion of shellfish contaminated with:

a)

Staph enterotoxin

b)

Histamine

c)

Saxitoxins

d)

Botulinum toxin

57.

Which of the following is most characteristic of PSP (paralytic shellfish poisoning)?

a)

Ascending paralysis with areflexia

b)

Paresthesias of the mouth, ataxia, and respiratory depression

c)

Jaundice and RUQ pain

d)

Vesicular rash and myalgia

58.

What is the priority treatment for a patient with PSP (paralytic shellfish poisoning) and respiratory compromise?

a)

IV ciprofloxacin

b)

Naloxone

c)

Antitoxin

d)

Airway protection and supportive care

Similar Resources on Wayground

Crisis hiperglucemicas.

62 questions

Crisis hiperglucemicas.

quiz

Worksheet

•

Professional Development