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Mental health final exam

Total questions: 52

Worksheet time: 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are some feelings that people may experience while working through the loss according to the grieving process?

a)

Anger, hopelessness, futility, fear, guilt

b)

Excitement, joy, anticipation, relief, pride

c)

Curiosity, boredom, amusement, surprise, envy

d)

Confidence, satisfaction, inspiration, gratitude, serenity

2.

Which of the following is NOT a step in the grieving process?

a)

A) Provides time

b)

B) Put events into perspective

c)

C) Ignore the loss

d)

D) Place lost things into memory

3.

Name one way to adapt to loss mentioned in the text.

a)

Accepting loss as part of life or teaching appropriate coping skills such as journaling or music.

b)

Ignoring your feelings completely and pretending nothing happened.

c)

Blaming others for your loss and holding grudges.

d)

Avoiding any discussion about the loss forever.

4.

To be able to make a decision, a person should be able to: (Select all that apply)

a)

Understand the decision and information provided

b)

Retain the information

c)

Use the information in making the decision

d)

Communicate their decision

5.

What does anger do to a person's vision and focus?

a)

Blurs vision; alters focus

b)

Improves night vision; sharpens focus

c)

Makes colors appear brighter; increases focus

d)

Has no effect on vision or focus

6.

Unexpressed anger can lead to disorders.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

Domestic violence is defined as:

a)

Physical violence only

b)

Pattern of behavior used by a batterer to gain power and control over another person through fear and intimidation

c)

Only emotional abuse

d)

None of the above

8.

List two potential risk factors for mental health issues mentioned in the text.

a)

Personal/family history; moody; power-seeking

b)

Eating too much sugar; being left-handed; loving music

c)

Wearing glasses; being tall; liking sports

d)

Owning a pet; traveling often; reading books

9.

According to Erik Erikson's Psychosocial Developmental Theory, what is the stage from birth to 1 year called?

a)

trust vs. mistrust

b)

autonomy vs. shame and doubt

c)

initiative vs. guilt

d)

industry vs. inferiority

10.

According to Erik Erikson's Psychosocial Developmental Theory, what is the stage from ages 1 to 2 years called?

a)

autonomy vs. shame + doubt

b)

trust vs. mistrust

c)

initiative vs. guilt

d)

industry vs. inferiority

11.

According to Erik Erikson's Psychosocial Developmental Theory, what is the stage from ages 2 to 6 years called?

a)

initiative vs. guilt

b)

trust vs. mistrust

c)

industry vs. inferiority

d)

autonomy vs. shame and doubt

12.

According to Erik Erikson's Psychosocial Developmental Theory, what is the stage from ages 6 to 12 years called?

a)

industry vs. inferiority

b)

trust vs. mistrust

c)

autonomy vs. shame and doubt

d)

identity vs. role confusion

13.

According to Erik Erikson's Psychosocial Developmental Theory, what is the stage from ages 12 to 18 years called?

a)

identity vs. role confusion

b)

trust vs. mistrust

c)

initiative vs. guilt

d)

intimacy vs. isolation

14.

According to Erik Erikson's Psychosocial Developmental Theory, what is the stage from ages 19 to 40 years called?

a)

intimacy vs. isolation

b)

identity vs. role confusion

c)

generativity vs. stagnation

d)

trust vs. mistrust

15.

According to Erik Erikson's Psychosocial Developmental Theory, what is the stage from ages 40 to 65 years called?

a)

generativity vs. stagnation

b)

identity vs. role confusion

c)

intimacy vs. isolation

d)

integrity vs. despair

16.

According to Erik Erikson's Psychosocial Developmental Theory, what is the stage for people older than 65 years called?

a)

integrity vs. despair

b)

identity vs. role confusion

c)

initiative vs. guilt

d)

autonomy vs. shame and doubt

17.

Which of the following is an example of clarification in mental health nursing?

a)

A) "You seem anxious about something..."

b)

B) "Did I understand you correctly..."

c)

C) "You look down this morning. Would you like to talk about it?"

d)

D) "I get the feeling that something is bothering you..."

18.

Which of the following is an example of validation in mental health nursing?

a)

A) "Let me see if I have this correct..."

b)

B) "I seem to have missed something. Could you repeat that..."

c)

C) "You seem anxious about something..."

d)

D) "Did I understand you correctly..."

19.

What is the first phase of a therapeutic relationship?

a)

Orientation: getting to know the client

b)

Termination: ending the relationship

c)

Evaluation: assessing progress

d)

Implementation: carrying out interventions

20.

What is anxiety?

a)

A) A physical illness

b)

B) A vague, uneasy, emotional feeling experienced in response to perceived threat or danger

c)

C) A type of psychotic disorder

d)

D) A form of depression

21.

Fill in the blank: Anxiety disorder is characterized by uncontrolled anxiety leading to impairment in ________, interpersonal, and work functioning.

a)

social

b)

physical

c)

nutritional

d)

financial

22.

Which of the following is NOT a manifestation of anxiety disorders?

a)

A) Thoughts, feelings, and behavior all affected

b)

B) Automatic relief behaviors such as jaw-clenching

c)

C) Improved concentration

d)

D) Finger-tapping and pen-clicking

23.

Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by increased anxiety and worry about various situations on most days, over a period of at least how many months?

a)

1 month

b)

3 months

c)

6 months

d)

12 months

24.

Fill in the blank: The most common anxiety disorder in the United States is ________.

a)

Generalized anxiety disorder

b)

Panic disorder

c)

Obsessive-compulsive disorder

d)

Social anxiety disorder

25.

Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a response to a situation involving actual death or threat of ________.

a)

severe injury

b)

happiness

c)

financial loss

d)

mild discomfort

26.

Which of the following is a symptom of PTSD?

a)

Decreased anxiety

b)

Intense feeling of fear/dread with each recurring mental rerun of event

c)

Improved sleep

d)

Enhanced concentration

27.

What is schizophrenia?

a)

A form of psychosis

b)

A type of anxiety disorder

c)

A mood disorder

d)

A personality disorder

28.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of schizophrenia?

a)

Disorganized thoughts

b)

Increased emotional response

c)

Perceptual alterations

d)

Chronic, disabling mental illness

29.

Fill in the blank: Schizophrenia is a ______ mental illness.

a)

chronic, disabling

b)

temporary, mild

c)

acute, curable

d)

short-term, reversible

30.

Which phase signals the beginning of schizophrenia illness?

a)

Prodromal phase

b)

Acute phase

c)

Recovery phase

d)

Remission phase

31.

What is a potential side effect of high-potency antipsychotic medication?

a)

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

b)

Increased appetite

c)

Insomnia

d)

Weight gain

32.

Which of the following is a characteristic of antisocial personality disorder?

a)

A) Persistent disregard for the rights of others

b)

B) Extreme fear of being alone

c)

C) Consistent dependence on others

d)

D) Helplessness

33.

Dependent personality disorder is characterized by ______ and extreme dependence on others.

a)

consistent

b)

sporadic

c)

hostile

d)

independent

34.

People with dependent personality disorder have an extreme fear of being alone.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

At what age does antisocial personality disorder usually have its onset?

a)

Before age 15

b)

After age 30

c)

After age 50

d)

Before age 5

36.

What is a key feature of somatic symptom disorder?

a)

Excessive mental distress over symptoms

b)

Complete absence of physical symptoms

c)

Lack of concern about health

d)

Deliberate faking of symptoms

37.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of somatic symptom disorder?

a)

Signs and symptoms

b)

Valid somatic complaint if required medical treatment

c)

Reported symptoms always have strong factual support

d)

Persistent moderate-to-severe levels of anxiety or depression

e)

Excessive mental distress over symptoms

38.

What percentage of the US population is affected by DSM-IV criteria for somatoform disorder?

a)

Around 5% to 7%

b)

Less than 1%

c)

About 15% to 20%

d)

Over 25%

39.

Somatic symptom disorder is seen more prominently in women than men.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

What is codependency often described as?

a)

A family disease

b)

A contagious illness

c)

A financial problem

d)

A legal issue

41.

Which of the following is a characteristic of codependent people?

a)

Feel responsibility for drug user’s problem

b)

Always prioritize their own needs

c)

Never make excuses for others

d)

Are not affected by family patterns

42.

What is enabling in the context of substance related disorders?

a)

Making excuses, engaging in behavior to 'make up' for the behavior of abuser

b)

Encouraging the abuser to seek professional help

c)

Ignoring the abuser's behavior completely

d)

Confronting the abuser directly about their actions

43.

What is a key feature of anorexia nervosa?

a)

Intense fear of weight gain; significant self-image disturbance (DSM-V)

b)

Excessive sleep and increased appetite

c)

Frequent episodes of uncontrollable laughter

d)

Persistent delusions of grandeur

44.

Maintenance of subnormal weight levels for age/height is a criterion for anorexia nervosa.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

What is the restricting type of eating disorder characterized by?

a)

Eating more food than normal in a discrete time span

b)

Weight loss achieved via dieting, starvation, excessive exercise

c)

Use of laxatives and diuretics

d)

None of the above

46.

Anorexia nervosa most often begins between the ages of ________, with women accounting for more than 90% of the cases.

a)

13 and 18 years

b)

6 and 10 years

c)

20 and 25 years

d)

30 and 35 years

47.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of oppositional-defiant disorder?

a)

Incessant arguing with adults

b)

Active defiance

c)

Intellectual functioning significantly below average

d)

Vindictive and spiteful behavior

48.

Women with orgasmic disorder experience a persistent delay or absence of ________ following normal sexual activity.

a)

orgasm

b)

arousal

c)

desire

d)

pain

49.

Intellectual functioning significantly below average is defined as having an IQ of ________ or less.

a)

70

b)

85

c)

100

d)

55

50.

Oppositional-defiant disorder is more prevalent in preschool children who demonstrate early difficulty with ________ or hyperactivity.

a)

temperament

b)

language

c)

vision

d)

hearing

51.

Which of the following is a characteristic of the purging type of eating disorder?

a)

Eating more food than normal

b)

Weight loss via excessive exercise

c)

Emptying the digestive tract via self-induced vomiting, use of laxatives, diuretics

d)

None of the above

52.

Levels of intellectual developmental disability are classified as:

a)

Mild, moderate, severe, profound

b)

Mild, moderate, extreme, profound

c)

Low, medium, high, severe

d)

None of the above