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The Software Product and Software Process

Total questions: 63

Worksheet time: 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is a software product?

a)

A set of programs, documentation, and data

b)

Only the executable code

c)

A process model

d)

A testing framework

2.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good software product?

a)

Maintainability

b)

Efficiency

c)

High cost

d)

Reliability

3.

Software process refers to:

a)

Only coding and testing

b)

A structured set of activities to develop software

c)

Only requirement gathering

d)

Only maintenance

4.

Which of the following is a key characteristic of the software process?

a)

Predictability

b)

Randomness

c)

No documentation

d)

No testing

5.

The software process model defines:

a)

Only coding standards

b)

The sequence of phases in software development

c)

Only testing techniques

d)

Only debugging methods

6.

The Linear Sequential Model is also known as:

a)

Spiral Model

b)

Waterfall Model

c)

Agile Model

d)

RAD Model

7.

Which model is best suited for projects with well-defined requirements?

a)

Prototyping Model

b)

Waterfall Model

c)

Spiral Model

d)

Agile Model

8.

A major drawback of the Waterfall Model is:

a)

High flexibility

b)

Difficulty in accommodating changes

c)

No testing phase

d)

Too fast development

9.

The Prototyping Model is used when:

a)

Requirements are unclear

b)

Requirements are fixed

c)

Only coding is needed

d)

No customer interaction is required

10.

Rapid Application Development (RAD) focuses on:

a)

Slow development with extensive documentation

b)

Rapid prototyping and iterative delivery

c)

No customer involvement

d)

Only unit testing

11.

The Incremental Model combines elements of:

a)

Only Waterfall Model

b)

Waterfall and Iterative Models

c)

Only Spiral Model

d)

Only Agile Model

12.

In the Spiral Model, risk analysis is performed in which phase?

a)

Planning

b)

Risk Analysis

c)

Engineering

d)

Evaluation

13.

The Spiral Model is a combination of:

a)

Waterfall and Prototyping Models

b)

Only Agile

c)

Only RAD

d)

Only Incremental

14.

Which model is best for large, complex, and high-risk projects?

a)

Waterfall Model

b)

Spiral Model

c)

Prototyping Model

d)

RAD Model

15.

The Component Assembly Model is based on:

a)

Writing all code from scratch

b)

Reusing existing software components

c)

No testing

d)

Only documentation

16.

RUP stands for:

a)

Rapid Unified Process

b)

Rational Unified Process

c)

Random Unified Process

d)

Reusable Unified Process

17.

RUP divides the project lifecycle into:

a)

Only two phases

b)

Four phases (Inception, Elaboration, Construction, Transition)

c)

Only coding and testing

d)

No phases

18.

Agile methodology emphasizes:

a)

Heavy documentation

b)

Customer collaboration and iterative development

c)

No customer interaction

d)

Only unit testing

19.

Which of the following is NOT an Agile methodology?

a)

Scrum

b)

Kanban

c)

Waterfall

d)

Extreme Programming (XP)

20.

In Scrum, a 'Sprint' refers to:

a)

A long development phase

b)

A time-boxed iteration (usually 2-4 weeks)

c)

Only documentation phase

d)

No fixed duration

21.

Process customization is done to:

a)

Follow rigid standards without changes

b)

Adapt the process to project needs

c)

Avoid testing

d)

Only focus on coding

22.

CMM stands for:

a)

Capability Maturity Model

b)

Coding Maturity Model

c)

Cost Management Model

d)

Component Maturity Model

23.

CMM Level 1 is called:

a)

Optimized

b)

Managed

c)

Initial (Chaotic)

d)

Defined

24.

Which CMM level focuses on continuous process improvement?

a)

Level 2

b)

Level 3

c)

Level 4

d)

Level 5

25.

Process improvement aims to:

a)

Increase defects

b)

Reduce efficiency

c)

Enhance quality and productivity

d)

Avoid customer feedback

26.

Product metrics measure:

a)

Only development cost

b)

Characteristics of the software product

c)

Only team size

d)

No quantitative data

27.

Process metrics measure:

a)

Only code quality

b)

Efficiency of the development process

c)

Only testing time

d)

No improvement

28.

Defect density is calculated as:

a)

Total defects / Size of the software

b)

Total defects × Size of the software

c)

Only total defects

d)

No relation to software size

29.

Which metric measures the time taken to fix defects?

a)

Mean Time to Repair (MTTR)

b)

Defect density

c)

Code coverage

d)

Cyclomatic complexity

30.

Cyclomatic complexity measures:

a)

Code readability

b)

Number of independent paths in a program

c)

Only lines of code

d)

No structural complexity

31.

The V-Model is an extension of:

a)

Spiral Model

b)

Waterfall Model

c)

Agile Model

d)

RAD Model

32.

In the V-Model, testing phases are:

a)

Not considered

b)

Planned parallel to development phases

c)

Only done at the end

d)

Replaced with prototyping

33.

Which model is most suitable for projects with high uncertainty?

a)

Waterfall

b)

Spiral

c)

RAD

d)

Prototyping

34.

The Concurrent Development Model is best described as:

a)

A single linear flow

b)

A series of sequential steps

c)

A network of activities

d)

A model without any planning

35.

The Component Assembly Model emphasizes:

a)

Writing all code from scratch

b)

Reusing COTS components

c)

Avoiding testing

d)

No documentation

36.

Which Agile method uses "User Stories" as requirements?

a)

Scrum

b)

XP (Extreme Programming)

c)

Kanban

d)

All of the above

37.

The Agile Manifesto values:

a)

Comprehensive documentation over working software

b)

Following a plan over responding to change

c)

Working software over comprehensive documentation

d)

Contract negotiation over customer collaboration

38.

In Scrum, the "Product Backlog" is:

a)

A list of all defects

b)

A prioritized list of features

c)

A test case repository

d)

A deployment checklist

39.

Daily Stand-up meetings in Agile typically last:

a)

1 hour

b)

15-30 minutes

c)

2 hours

d)

No fixed duration

40.

Which Agile practice involves pair programming?

a)

Scrum

b)

XP

c)

Kanban

d)

Lean

41.

CMM Level 2 is characterized by:

a)

Chaotic processes

b)

Repeatable processes

c)

Defined processes

d)

Optimized processes

42.

Which CMM level introduces quantitative process management?

a)

Level 2

b)

Level 3

c)

Level 4

d)

Level 5

43.

ISO 9001 focuses on:

a)

Quality management systems

b)

Coding standards

c)

Testing techniques

d)

Hardware specifications

44.

Six Sigma aims to reduce defects to:

a)

1 per million opportunities

b)

3.4 per million opportunities

c)

10 per thousand

d)

5% of total output

45.

PDCA cycle stands for:

a)

Plan, Develop, Check, Act

b)

Plan, Do, Check, Act

c)

Program, Develop, Code, Analyze

d)

Process, Design, Code, Audit

46.

Function Point Analysis measures:

a)

Lines of code

b)

Software functionality from user perspective

c)

Execution speed

d)

Memory usage

47.

Which metric measures code complexity?

a)

LOC

b)

Cyclomatic Complexity

c)

Function Points

d)

Defect Density

48.

"Number of defects found per test case" is a:

a)

Process metric

b)

Product metric

c)

Project metric

d)

Maintenance metric

49.

COCOMO is used for estimating:

a)

Project cost

b)

Code quality

c)

Test coverage

d)

Requirements volatility

50.

Halstead's metrics measure:

a)

Program volume and difficulty

b)

Only execution time

c)

User satisfaction

d)

Network latency

51.

Waterfall vs. Agile: Waterfall is better when:

a)

Requirements are dynamic

b)

Requirements are stable

c)

Customer wants daily deliveries

d)

Team prefers no documentation

52.

Spiral Model vs. Prototyping: Spiral includes:

a)

Only prototyping

b)

Only risk analysis

c)

Prototyping + Risk analysis

d)

No customer interaction

53.

RUP vs. Agile: RUP is:

a)

More flexible than Agile

b)

A heavyweight process

c)

Never iterative

d)

Excludes testing

54.

Incremental vs. Iterative: Incremental delivers:

a)

Complete product in each cycle

b)

Partial but working functionality in each cycle

c)

Only documentation

d)

No working software until final delivery

55.

CMM vs. ISO: CMM focuses specifically on:

a)

Hardware quality

b)

Software process maturity

c)

Financial auditing

d)

Environmental standards

56.

Lean Software Development emphasizes:

a)

Maximizing documentation

b)

Eliminating waste

c)

Increasing team size

d)

Avoiding customer feedback

57.

DevOps integrates:

a)

Only development

b)

Development and operations

c)

Only testing

d)

Only maintenance

58.

Which model uses "timeboxing"?

a)

Waterfall

b)

RAD

c)

Spiral

d)

Prototyping

59.

"Burn-down charts" are used in:

a)

Waterfall

b)

Agile

c)

Spiral

d)

RUP

60.

Feature-Driven Development (FDD) is:

a)

A model without planning

b)

An Agile model focusing on feature delivery

c)

A documentation-heavy model

d)

A hardware development model

61.

The "Definition of Done" in Scrum ensures:

a)

All team members have the same understanding of completion

b)

Only developers decide when work is complete

c)

No testing is required

d)

Documentation is optional

62.

"Sprint Retrospective" focuses on:

a)

Planning the next sprint

b)

Reviewing the completed sprint for improvements

c)

Only demoing features

d)

Writing new requirements

63.

Hybrid models combine:

a)

Only Agile practices

b)

Elements from different models (e.g., Waterfall + Agile)

c)

Only documentation standards

d)

No testing phases